Pathophysiology
Question Bank
Course Introduction
Pathophysiology is the study of the functional changes that occur in the body as a result of disease or injury. This course explores the mechanisms underlying the development and progression of common diseases, integrating knowledge from anatomy, physiology, and biochemistry to understand how normal bodily processes are altered in pathological states. Students will examine the cellular and systemic responses to various pathological insults and learn to connect clinical manifestations with their underlying causes, providing a foundation for effective diagnosis and treatment in clinical practice.
Recommended Textbook
Pathophysiology 5th Edition by Copstead
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54 Chapters
1230 Verified Questions
1230 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Introduction to Pathophysiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) C.Q.was recently exposed to group A hemolytic Streptococcus and subsequently developed a pharyngeal infection.His clinic examination reveals an oral temperature of 102.3° F, skin rash, dysphagia, and reddened throat mucosa with multiple pustules.He complains of sore throat, malaise, and joint stiffness.A throat culture is positive for Streptococcus, and antibiotics have been prescribed.The etiology of C.Q.'s disease is A) a sore throat.
B) streptococcal infection.
C) genetic susceptibility.
D) pharyngitis.
Answer: B
Q2) An obese but otherwise healthy teen is given a prescription for a low-calorie diet and exercise program.This is an example of A) primary prevention. B) secondary prevention. C) tertiary prevention.
D) disease treatment.
Answer: B
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3
Chapter 2: Homeostasis and Adaptive Responses to Stressors
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Sample Questions
Q1) Aldosterone may increase during stress, leading to A) decreased urinary output.
B) increased blood potassium.
C) increased sodium retention.
D) increased blood volume.
E) decreased blood pressure.
Answer: A, C, D
Q2) Events which occur during the alarm stage of the stress response include secretion of
A) catecholamines.
B) ACTH.
C) glucocorticoids.
D) immune cytokines.
E) TSH.
Answer: A, B, C, D
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Cell Structure and Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Excitable cells are able to conduct action potentials because they have A) receptors for neurotransmitters.
B) tight junctions.
C) ligand-gated channels.
D) voltage-gated channels.
Answer: D
Q2) The benefit of glycolysis is that this phase supplies
A) ATP to meet energy needs of the body.
B) pyruvate to the citric acid cycle.
C) energy for oxidative phosphorylation
D) lactate during anaerobic conditions.
Answer: B
Q3) The organelle that contains enzymes necessary for oxidative phosphorylation to produce ATP is the A) mitochondria.
B) ribosome.
C) lysosome.
D) nucleus.
Answer: A
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Cell Injury, Aging, and Death
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18 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Of the statements below, the accurate statement regarding nutrition and cellular health is
A) the body can generally produce elements essential for nutritional balance.
B) obese individuals are generally nutritionally healthy.
C) deficient cellular uptake by one cell type may contribute to excess nutrient delivery to other cell types.
D) a normal BMI indicates nutritional health.
Q2) The cellular response indicative of injury due to faulty metabolism is A) hydropic swelling.
B) lactate production.
C) metaplasia.
D) intracellular accumulations.
Q3) The cellular change that is considered preneoplastic is A) anaplasia.
B) dysplasia.
C) metaplasia.
D) hyperplasia.
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6
Chapter 5: Genome Structure, Regulation, and Tissue
Differentiation
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Sample Questions
Q1) The differences in structure and function of cells in different body tissues is due to
A) gene differences in tissue cells.
B) expression of tissue-specific genes.
C) transcriptional controls.
D) translation of amino acids to proteins.
Q2) Which tissue type is categorized as epithelial?
A) Tendons and ligaments
B) Blood cells
C) Blood vessel endothelium
D) Cartilage
Q3) Protein synthesis involves
A) direction from mRNA.
B) amino acid movement into the nucleus.
C) nucleotide triplets.
D) RNA polymerase.
E) removal of introns from the DNA template.
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Page 7
Chapter 6: Genetic and Developmental Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Cystic fibrosis is a single gene disorder that primarily affects
A) brain and heart.
B) kidney and adrenals.
C) lungs and pancreas.
D) liver and intestine.
Q2) The parents of a child with PKU are concerned about the risk of transmitting the disorder in future pregnancies.The correct assessment of the risk is
A) each child has a 25% chance of being a carrier.
B) each child has a 25% chance of being affected.
C) since one child is already affected, the next three children will be unaffected.
D) one cannot predict the risk for future pregnancies.
Q3) Males are more likely than females to be affected by ________ disorders.
A) X-linked
B) autosomal-dominant
C) autosomal-recessive
D) chromosomal nondisjunction
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8
Chapter 7: Neoplasia
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Sample Questions
Q1) The most common tumor suppressor gene defect identified in cancer cells is A) Rb.
B) P53.
C) DCC.
D) APC.
Q2) Cancer grading is based on A) tumor size.
B) local invasion.
C) cell differentiation.
D) metastasis.
Q3) Side effects of chemotherapy include A) anemia.
B) nausea.
C) leukocytosis.
D) bleeding.
E) infections.
Q4) In general, a cancer cell that is more tissue-specific differentiated is ____ (more/less)likely to be aggressive.
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Page 9
Chapter 8: Infectious Processes
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Sample Questions
Q1) An infectious disease that is common in a community is termed A) endemic.
B) epidemic.
C) pandemic.
D) partdemic.
Q2) Characteristics of immunization include which of the following?
A) Giving injections of preformed antibodies provides immediate immunity
B) Immunization provides life-long immunity
C) Immunization with killed vaccines may lead to infection from the agent
D) Herd immunity controls disease without immunizing everyone in the population
E) Lack of immunization may lead to an epidemic
Q3) The term infectivity is defined as the ability to
A) cause disease.
B) spread.
C) cause very severe disease.
D) invade and multiply.
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Chapter 9: Inflammation and Immunity
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Sample Questions
Q1) Activation of the complement cascade results in A) antibody production.
B) inflammation.
C) immunosuppression.
D) autoimmunity.
E) chemotaxis.
Q2) Functions of T cells include
A) synthesizing antibodies.
B) secreting cytokines.
C) killing antigen-presenting cells.
D) stimulating of B cells.
E) killing virally infected cells.
Q3) The "classical pathway" for activation of the complement cascade is triggered by A) activation of C3.
B) inflammation.
C) first recognition of an antigen.
D) antigen-antibody complexes.
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Chapter 10: Alterations in Immune Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Severe combined immunodeficiency (SCID)syndrome is an example of a(n)
A) deficient immune response.
B) excessive immune response.
C) primary acquired immunodeficiency.
D) hypersensitivity reaction.
Q2) Certain autoimmune diseases are associated with the presence of specific proteins on a person's cells.These proteins are called ________ proteins.
A) complement
B) antibody receptor
C) HLA or MHC
D) TCR or BCR
Q3) Myasthenia gravis is a type II hypersensitivity disorder that involves
A) impaired muscle function.
B) symptoms of hyperthyroidism.
C) symptoms of arthritis or polyarthralgia.
D) symptoms of glomerular disease.
Q4) Seasonal allergic rhinitis is most involved in type ____ hypersensitivity reactions.
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Chapter 11: Malignant Disorders of White Blood Cells
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Sample Questions
Q1) Two of the most serious oncology emergencies associated with non-Hodgkin lymphoma are obstruction of the superior vena cava and compression of the
Q2) Which group of clinical findings describes the typical presentation of ALL (acute lymphoid leukemia)?
A) Pain in long bones, infection, fever, bruising
B) Vertebral fracture, hypercalcemia, bone pain
C) Elevated WBC count found on routine exam, asymptomatic
D) Painless enlarged cervical lymph node, fever, weight loss
Q3) A 58-year-old woman is seen in the clinic for reports of severe back pain.Her chest X-ray demonstrates generalized bone demineralization and compression fracture.Blood studies demonstrate elevated calcium levels.The most likely diagnosis is A) leukemia.
B) myeloma.
C) Hodgkin disease.
D) back trauma.
Q4) The only known curative treatment for CML is _____ bone marrow transplantation from a suitable donor.
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Page 13
Chapter 12: HIV Disease and AIDS
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23 Verified Questions
23 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is infected with the retrovirus HIV.The patient may have contracted HIV as it was transmitted via
A) saliva.
B) tears.
C) semen.
D) cervical secretions.
E) cerebrospinal fluid.
Q2) Which type of HIV virus causes most infections in the United States and Europe?
A) HIV type 1
B) HIV type 2
C) HIV type A
D) HIV type B
Q3) In which type of cells is the CD4 found?
A) T cells
B) Microglial cells
C) Retinal cells
D) Cervical cells
E) Pacemaker cells
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Chapter 13: Alterations in Oxygen Transport
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Sample Questions
Q1) Patients who experience anemic episodes when exposed to certain drugs most likely have
A) thalassemia.
B) spherocytosis.
C) sickle cell anemia.
D) glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency.
Q2) The nurse is educating a patient diagnosed with anemia of chronic renal failure about the disease.Which statements made by the nurse are correct regarding the patient's treatment?
A) "Since your glomerular filtration is 13 mL/min, you'll be started on dialysis."
B) "Your hematocrit is 29%, so you're going to start on erythropoietin therapy."
C) "Your hemoglobin is 9 g/dl, so you'll need erythropoietin therapy."
D) "We need to get your hemoglobin up to at least 15 g/dl"
E) "You're going to need iron, folate, and B12 therapy to help improve your blood counts."
Q3) The anemia resulting from a deficiency of either vitamin B (cobalamin)or folate is caused by a disruption in DNA synthesis of the blast cells in the bone marrow that produces very large abnormal bone marrow cells called ________.
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Chapter 14: Alterations in Hemostasis and Blood Coagulation
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Sample Questions
Q1) A commonly ingested substance associated with prolongation of the bleeding time is
A) acetaminophen.
B) tobacco.
C) caffeine.
D) aspirin.
Q2) A male patient involved in a motor vehicle accident is brought to the emergency department with acute flank pain.What additional signs of bleeding may the patient exhibit?
A) Hematuria
B) Melena
C) Hematemesis
D) Menorrhagia
E) Hemoptysis
Q3) The ________ is responsible for the synthesis of coagulation factors, with the exception of part of factor VIII.
Q4) Hemophilia B is also known as ________ disease.
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Chapter 15: Alterations in Blood Flow
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the effect on resistance if the radius of a vessel is halved?
A) Resistance doubles.
B) Resistance decreases by a factor of 16.
C) Resistance decreases by half.
D) Resistance increases by a factor of 16.
Q2) The goal of heparin for the management of a deep vein thrombosis is to
A) relieve edema.
B) prevent clot dislodgement.
C) dissolve the thrombus.
D) prevent further clot formation.
Q3) Which vessel normally demonstrates the most rapid blood flow?
A) An arteriole
B) A capillary
C) A venule
D) The vena cava
Q4) Risk factors for atherosclerosis include
A) female gender.
B) hyperlipidemia.
C) high-protein diet.
D) low-fiber diet.
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Chapter 16: Alterations in Blood Pressure
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Sample Questions
Q1) An erroneously low blood pressure measurement may be caused by
A) positioning the arm above the heart level.
B) using a cuff that is too small.
C) positioning the arm at heart level.
D) measuring blood pressure after exercise.
Q2) The ingestion of certain drugs, foods, or chemicals can lead to ____________.
Q3) Hypertension is closely linked to
A) obstructive sleep apnea.
B) urinary tract infection.
C) de Quervain syndrome.
D) spinal stenosis.
Q4) A patient has a history of falls, syncope, dizziness, and blurred vision.The patient's symptomology is most likely related to A) hypertension.
B) hypotension.
C) deep vein thrombosis.
D) angina.
Q5) The most commonly recognized outcome of hypertension is ____________.
Q6) ________ damage is a function of both the stage of hypertension and its duration.
Page 18
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Chapter 17: Cardiac Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) The v wave of an atrial pressure tracing corresponds to A) atrial filling.
B) ventricular systole.
C) atrial systole.
D) mitral valve closure.
Q2) Parasympathetic stimulation of the heart generally leads to a decrease in heart rate, because acetylcholine
A) increases intracellular cAMP levels and opens calcium channels.
B) opens potassium channels allowing potassium ion efflux.
C) binds and blocks b receptors on the cell membrane.
D) inhibits voltage-gated sodium channels in the membrane.
Q3) Cardiac myosin has a high affinity for actin when the myosin has what molecule(s)bound to it?
A) Calcium
B) ATP
C) ADP and phosphate
D) Creatine phosphate
Q4) A requirement for rhythmicity is that the cell membrane has channels that automatically open during phase ________.
Q5) A standard ECG has ________ leads.
Page 19
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Chapter 18: Alterations in Cardiac Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) The cause of Prinzmetal angina is ________.
Q2) Acute coronary syndrome in the presence of thrombosis may present as A) unstable angina.
B) MI.
C) sudden cardiac arrest.
D) bleeding.
E) hypovolemia.
Q3) Patent ductus arteriosus is accurately described as a(n) A) opening between the atria.
B) stricture of the aorta that impedes blood flow.
C) communication between the aorta and the pulmonary artery.
D) cyanotic heart defect associated with right-to-left shunt.
Q4) Angina due to coronary artery spasm is called _____ angina.
A) stable
B) classic
C) unstable
D) Prinzmetal variant
Q5) Atherosclerotic plaque formation is due to injury to the ____________.
Q6) __________ is a congenital malformation that results in the formation of one large vessel that receives blood from both the right and left ventricles.
Page 20
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Chapter 19: Heart Failure and Dysrhythmias: Common Sequelae of Cardiac Diseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) The common denominator in all forms of heart failure is
A) poor diastolic filling.
B) reduced cardiac output.
C) pulmonary edema.
D) tissue ischemia.
Q2) Patients with structural evidence of heart failure who exhibit no signs or symptoms are classified into which New York Heart Association heart failure class?
A) Class I
B) Class II
C) Class III
D) Class IV
Q3) A patient who reports dizziness and who has absent P waves, wide QRS complexes, and a heart rate of 38 beats/min on an ECG is most likely in which rhythm?
A) Third-degree heart block
B) Junctional tachycardia
C) Ventricular escape rhythm
D) Sinus bradycardia
Q4) Chronic elevation of myocardial wall tension results in ________.
Q5) First-degree block is identified by a prolonged ________.
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Chapter 20: Shock
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Sample Questions
Q1) The majority of cases of anaphylactic shock occur when a sensitized individual comes in contact with
A) perfumes.
B) incompatible blood products.
C) animal proteins or dander.
D) antibiotics.
Q2) The effect of nitric oxide on systemic arterioles is
A) vasodilation.
B) vasoconstriction.
C) not significant.
D) opposed by nitrate drugs.
Q3) A patient experiencing shock may exhibit which signs and symptoms?
A) Warm, flushed skin
B) Pinpoint pupils
C) Pulse of more than 100 beats/minute
D) Increased urinary output
E) Fast and deep respirations
Q4) _________________ is a serious complication of septic shock characterized by abnormal clot formation in the microvasculature throughout the body.
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Chapter 21: Respiratory Function and Alterations in Gas Exchange
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Sample Questions
Q1) "My doctor said I have cor pul-something, which is a heart problem," says Mr.Garabedian."I thought I just had these bad lungs that can't be fixed.How can that make my heart go bad?" Which mechanism leads to the development of cor pulmonale, which should serve as the basis for your response to Mr.Garabedian?
A) Left ventricular failure causes pulmonary venous congestion and pulmonary edema.
B) Pneumothorax causes compression atelectasis, decreased alveolar ventilation, and impaired oxygenation.
C) Increased resistance to pulmonary arterial flow leads to compensatory right ventricular hypertrophy.
D) Impaired ventilation causes decreased PaO , which precipitates cardiac dysrhythmias.
Q2) The amount of gas remaining in the lungs after a maximal expiration is called the A) residual volume.
B) functional residual capacity.
C) expiratory reserve volume.
D) vital capacity.
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Page 23
Chapter 22: Obstructive Pulmonary Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) When a client diagnosed with COPD type A asks, "Why is my chest so big and round?", the nurse responds that
A) "Loss of elastic tissue in your lungs allows your airways to close and trap air, which makes your chest round."
B) "Swelling and mucus in your airways causes air to be trapped in your lungs, which makes your chest round."
C) "Coughing caused by your condition has changed the structure of your airways, which makes your chest round."
D) "Scar tissue in your lungs makes them stiff and more full of air than usual, which makes your chest round."
Q2) Chronic bronchitis often leads to cor pulmonale because of A) ventricular hypoxia.
B) increased pulmonary vascular resistance.
C) left ventricular strain.
D) hypervolemia.
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24
Chapter 23: Restrictive Pulmonary Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) A common characteristic of viral pneumonia is
A) high fever.
B) alveolar infiltrates on a chest x-ray.
C) increased white blood cell count.
D) dry cough.
Q2) A patient exhibiting respiratory distress as well as a tracheal shift should be evaluated for
A) pneumonia.
B) pneumothorax.
C) pulmonary edema.
D) pulmonary embolus.
Q3) Pneumocystitis is a term that refers to a A) fungal pneumonia secondary to HIV.
B) viral pneumonia found in transplant recipients.
C) non-infectious inflammation in the lung.
D) pneumonia secondary to bladder infection.
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Chapter 24: Fluid and Electrolyte Homeostasis and Imbalances
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Sample Questions
Q1) The fraction of total body water (TBW)volume contained in the intracellular space in adults is
A) three-fourths.
B) two-thirds.
C) one-half.
D) one-third.
Q2) When a parent asks how they will know if their 2-month-old baby, who is throwing up and has frequent diarrhea, is dehydrated, the nurse's best response is A) "Clinical dehydration is the combination of extracellular fluid volume deficit and hypernatremia, so those are the diagnostic criteria."
B) "If he doesn't wet his diaper all afternoon and his neck veins look flat when he is lying down, then he is probably dehydrated."
C) "If he sleeps more than usual and acts tired when he is awake, then he is probably dehydrated."
D) "If the soft spot on the top of his head feels sunken in and his mouth is dry between his cheek and his gums, then he is probably dehydrated."
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Chapter 25: Acid-Base Homeostasis and Imbalances
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Sample Questions
Q1) Fully compensated respiratory acidosis is demonstrated by
A) pH 7.36, PaO 55, HCO <sup>-</sup> 36.
B) pH 7.45, PaO 40, HCO <sup>-</sup>28.
C) pH 7.26, PaO 60, HCO <sup>-</sup> 26.
D) pH 7.40, PaO 40, HCO <sup>-</sup> 24.
Q2) The major buffer in the extracellular fluid is
A) hemoglobin.
B) albumin.
C) bicarbonate.
D) phosphate.
Q3) Renal compensation for respiratory acidosis is evidenced by A) decreased carbon dioxide.
B) elevated carbon dioxide.
C) decreased bicarbonate ion concentration.
D) elevated bicarbonate ion concentration.
Q4) Respiratory acidosis may be caused by A) hyperventilation.
B) massive blood transfusion.
C) tissue hypoxia.
D) hypoventilation.
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Chapter 26: Renal Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Serious renal impairment generally does not occur until ____ of the total nephrons have been damaged
A) 20%
B) 40%
C) 60%
D) 80%
Q2) The underlying mechanism which directly results in glycosuria is
A) filtration of glucose from the glomerulus.
B) exceeding the threshold for glucose reabsorption.
C) secretion of glucose into the distal tubule.
D) the mechanism is unknown.
Q3) Approximately two-thirds of the water and electrolytes filtered by the kidney are reabsorbed by the
A) loop of Henle.
B) collecting tubule.
C) distal tubule.
D) proximal tubule.
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Chapter 27: Intrarenal Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) The consequence of an upper urinary tract obstruction in a single ureter is A) kidney stone formation.
B) hydronephrosis.
C) dilation of the urethra.
D) anuria.
Q2) Risk factors for renal carcinoma include
A) genetics.
B) hypotension.
C) cigarette smoking.
D) obesity.
E) chemicals.
Q3) Findings that should prompt an evaluation for renal cancer include A) bacteria in the urine.
B) intermittent urinary colic.
C) hematuria.
D) red blood cell casts in the urine.
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29
Chapter 28: Acute Kidney Injury and Chronic Kidney Disease
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Sample Questions
Q1) One of the most common causes of acute tubular necrosis (ATN)is
A) ischemic conditions.
B) cytotoxic agents.
C) immune reaction.
D) prolonged postrenal kidney injury.
Q2) The most helpful laboratory value in monitoring the progression of declining renal function is
A) serum creatinine.
B) serum potassium.
C) blood urea nitrogen.
D) mental status changes.
Q3) Appropriate management of end-stage renal disease includes A) potassium supplementation.
B) a high-protein diet.
C) erythropoietin administration.
D) a high-phosphate diet.
Q4) ________ is both a cause of chronic kidney disease and a result of chronic kidney disease.
Q5) The best intervention for acute kidney injury (AKI)is ________.
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Chapter 29: Disorders of the Lower Urinary Tract
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Sample Questions
Q1) The most frequent initial symptom of bladder cancer is
A) bladder infection.
B) hematuria.
C) sudden incontinence.
D) dysuria.
Q2) The urinalysis finding most indicative of cystitis include the presence of A) WBCs and RBCs.
B) nitrites.
C) casts.
D) bacteria.
Q3) The normal post-void residual urine in the bladder is
A) less than 100 milliliters.
B) 150 to 200 milliliters.
C) 250 to 300 milliliters.
D) none of these; no normal residual volume is identified.
Q4) Which group is at the highest risk for urinary tract infection?
A) Infants and children
B) Sexually active women
C) Adult males
D) Patients taking diuretics
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Chapter 30: Male Genital and Reproductive Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nerve most responsible for penile erection is the _____nerve.
A) penile
B) prepual
C) pudendal
D) prostatic
Q2) Erectile function is most likely to be impaired if spinal cord injury occurs at
A) L1-L2.
B) L2-L3.
C) S1-S2.
D) S2-S4.
Q3) The capacitation process occurs in sperm
A) after introduction into the vagina.
B) before emission from the penis.
C) after fertilization of the egg.
D) before ejaculation from the penis.
Q4) The activation of sperm after they enter the vagina is called
A) flagellation.
B) ejaculation.
C) emission.
D) capacitation.
Page 32
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Chapter 31: Alterations in Male Genital and Reproductive Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) The majority of penile cancer cases are classified as _______.
Q2) A patient diagnosed with a micropenis must be evaluated for A) endocrine disorders.
B) vascular abnormalities.
C) female sex assignment.
D) epispadias.
Q3) Sudden, severe testicular pain is indicative of A) prostatitis.
B) testicular cancer.
C) testicular torsion.
D) epididymitis.
Q4) Sexual impotence is rarely due to A) drug side effects.
B) psychological factors.
C) primary causes.
D) vascular diseases.
Q5) The most common cause of urinary obstruction in male newborns and infants is
Q6) Erection requires the release of nitrous oxide into the ________ during sexual stimulation. Page 33
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Chapter 32: Female Genital and Reproductive Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Before the onset of menstruation, water retention and breast swelling is thought to be due to high levels of ________ stimulating the secretory cells of the breast.
A) estrogen
B) progesterone
C) hCG
D) oxytocin
Q2) At the midpoint of the menstrual cycle, ovulation occurs in response to the A) increase in progesterone.
B) increase in luteinizing hormone and FSH.
C) decrease in estrogen.
D) decrease in gonadotropin.
Q3) The corpus luteum
A) is the site of implantation of a fertilized egg.
B) secretes hCG.
C) develops at the site of a ruptured ovarian follicle.
D) is part of the human placenta.
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35
Chapter 33: Alterations in Female Genital and Reproductive Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Uterine prolapse is caused by a relaxation of the A) cardinal ligaments.
B) abdominal organs.
C) cervix.
D) vaginal musculature.
Q2) Treatment of a uterine prolapse may involve the insertion of a(n)________ to hold the uterus in place.
A) catheter.
B) IUD.
C) pessary.
D) endopelvic mesh implant.
Q3) Endometriosis is a condition in which
A) the endometrium sloughs continuously.
B) ectopic endometrial tissue is present.
C) an abnormal Pap smear is diagnostic.
D) the endometrium proliferates and does not shed.
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Chapter 34: Sexually Transmitted Infections
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Sample Questions
Q1) Herpes lesions are fluid-filled vesicles that appear __________days after infection.
A) 1 to 2
B) 3 to 7
C) 7 to 10
D) 10 to 14
Q2) Which of the following infections is asymptomatic and self-limited and does not require therapy?
A) Syphilis
B) Nongonococcal cervicitis
C) Gonorrhea
D) Molluscum contagiosum
Q3) What systemic infections are potentially transmitted by sexual contact?
A) Cytomegalovirus
B) Hepatitis A
C) Hepatitis B
D) HIV
E) Herpes simplex virus
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37
Chapter 35: Gastrointestinal Function
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22 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Pancreatic secretions are high in
A) hydrochloric acid.
B) bicarbonate ions.
C) intrinsic factor.
D) secretin.
Q2) How much fluid is secreted from the intestinal glands daily?
A) 1/2 liter
B) 1 liter
C) 2 liters
D) 4 liters
Q3) Older individuals may experience which change in the mouth?
A) Increase in salivation
B) Increase in taste for salt
C) Increase in the number of papillae
D) Increased exposure of dentin
Q4) The portion of the stomach that controls gastric emptying is the A) fundus.
B) body.
C) antrum.
D) pylorus.
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Chapter 36: Gastrointestinal Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Acute right lower quadrant pain associated with rebound tenderness and systemic signs of inflammation are indicative of
A) appendicitis.
B) peritonitis.
C) cholecystitis.
D) gastritis.
Q2) Premature infants are at greater risk for developing A) necrotizing enterocolitis.
B) pseudomembranous colitis.
C) appendicitis.
D) diverticular disease.
Q3) Barrett esophagus is a
A) gastrin secreting lesion.
B) preneoplastic lesion.
C) benign condition.
D) gastrin-secreting tumor.
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Chapter 37: Alterations in Function of the Gallbladder and Exocrine Pancreas
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Sample Questions
Q1) It is true that gallstones are
A) a minimal risk for Native Americans.
B) more common in women.
C) more common in men.
D) at highest risk among Asians.
Q2) The finding of hypotension, rigid abdomen, and absent bowel sounds in a patient with pancreatitis
A) is an expected finding and requires no specific intervention.
B) indicates peritonitis with substantial risk for sepsis and shock.
C) requires immediate surgical intervention.
D) is an unusual finding in pancreatitis and indicates misdiagnosis.
Q3) The definitive treatment for cholecystitis is
A) lithotripsy of stones.
B) chemical dissolution of stones.
C) antibiotics and anti-inflammatories.
D) cholecystectomy.
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Chapter 38: Liver Diseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) ________ disease is a rare autosomal recessive disorder in which excessive amounts of copper accumulate in the liver.
A) Kayser-Fleischer
B) Wilson
C) Reye
D) Byler
Q2) What form of viral hepatitis is likely to be transmitted sexually?
A) Hepatitis A
B) Hepatitis B
C) Hepatitis C
D) Hepatitis E
Q3) An increased urine bilirubin is associated with
A) an increased indirect serum bilirubin.
B) hemolytic reactions.
C) Gilbert syndrome.
D) hepatitis.
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Chapter 39: Endocrine Physiology and Mechanisms of
Hypothalamic-Pituitary Regulation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Up-regulation of target cell receptors results in
A) decreased target cell sensitivity to hormone.
B) reduced production of hormone.
C) increased target cell responsiveness to hormone.
D) an increased hormone half-life.
Q2) Cortisol is produced in the zona ________ of the adrenal cortex.
A) glomerulosa
B) reticularis
C) fasciculata
D) medulla
Q3) The most common mechanism regulating hormone production and secretion is
A) positive feedback.
B) negative feedback.
C) positive reinforcement.
D) negative reinforcement.
Q4) An example of a secondary endocrine disorder is
A) pituitary hyposecretion of TSH.
B) adrenal insufficiency following adrenalectomy.
C) congenital adrenal hyperplasia.
D) pheochromocytoma.
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Chapter 40: Disorders of Endocrine Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) The formation of active vitamin D
A) occurs in the skin.
B) is impaired in renal failure.
C) is dependent on oral intake of vitamin D.
D) is necessary for normal potassium metabolism.
Q2) Clinical manifestations of hypoparathyroidism
A) are similar to those occurring with hypermagnesemia.
B) result from decreased neuromuscular excitability.
C) are similar to those occurring with hypokalemia.
D) result from decreased serum ionized calcium.
Q3) Surgical removal of a gland may result in A) hypersecretion.
B) hyposecretion.
C) hyporesponsiveness.
D) tissue resistance.
Q4) Clinical manifestations of Graves disease may include A) tremor.
B) cold intolerance.
C) lethargy.
D) weight gain.
Page 43
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Chapter 41: Diabetes Mellitus
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Sample Questions
Q1) The American Diabetes Association recommends a postprandial blood glucose level of ________ mg/dl for adults with diabetes.
A) less than 180
B) more than 180
C) 70
D) 130
Q2) The therapies that would be appropriate for a patient with type 1 diabetes mellitus include
A) carbohydrate counting.
B) high-protein diet.
C) daily exercise.
D) insulin.
E) oral hypoglycemic agents.
Q3) The breakdown of stored glycogen in the liver and muscles is called A) glycolysis.
B) glycogenesis.
C) glycogenolysis.
D) gluconeogenesis.
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Page 44
Chapter 42: Alterations in Metabolism and Nutrition
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Sample Questions
Q1) What patient is most at risk for severe protein malnutrition?
A) A postsurgical patient who has been NPO for 3 days
B) A postburn patient who has a deep partial-thickness burn
C) A febrile patient who has had a temperature of 102.6° F for 3 days
D) An immobile patient who has been in skeletal traction for 1 week
Q2) The main source of energy for the body comes from A) proteins.
B) fats.
C) carbohydrates.
D) water.
Q3) The metabolic response to fever is A) anabolic.
B) catabolic.
C) both anabolic and catabolic.
D) related to gluconeogenesis.
Q4) The postoperative energy requirement can increase ____ above BMR. A) 7%.
B) 10% to 35%.
C) 15% to 30%.
D) 50%.
45
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Chapter 43: Structure and Function of the Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The entire human nervous system develops from the A) brainstem.
B) neural ectoderm.
C) mesoderm.
D) telencephalon.
Q2) Exocytosis of neurotransmitter in response to depolarization of the presynaptic nerve membrane is mediated by
A) neurotransmitter binding to presynaptic carrier proteins.
B) potassium influx through voltage-gated channels.
C) sodium-potassium ATPase.
D) calcium influx through voltage-gated channels.
Q3) The ________ protects the soft tissue of the brain.
A) dural septa
B) dura
C) falx cerebri
D) tentorium cerebella
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Chapter 44: Acute Disorders of Brain Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) It is true that encephalitis is usually
A) due to a bacterial infection in the CNS.
B) fatal.
C) due to a viral infection in brain cells.
D) asymptomatic.
Q2) Cerebral aneurysm is most frequently the result of A) embolic stroke.
B) subarachnoid hemorrhage.
C) subdural hemorrhage.
D) meningitis.
Q3) A severe complication of elevated intracranial pressure is A) Cushing reflex.
B) brain herniation.
C) burr hole.
D) hydrocephalus.
Q4) The most important preventative measure for hemorrhagic stroke is A) anticoagulation.
B) blood pressure control.
C) thrombolytics.
D) management of dysrhythmias.
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Chapter 45: Chronic Disorders of Neurologic Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) The dementia of Alzheimer disease is associated with structural changes in the brain, including
A) deposition of amyloid plaques in the brain.
B) degeneration of basal ganglia.
C) hypertrophy of frontal lobe neurons.
D) significant aluminum deposits in the brain.
Q2) Before making a diagnosis of Alzheimer disease
A) a brain biopsy demonstrating organic changes is necessary.
B) biochemical tests for aluminum toxicity must be positive.
C) other potential causes of dementia must be ruled out.
D) increased protein is found in a lumbar puncture.
Q3) It is true that Bell palsy is a
A) permanent facial paralysis after stroke.
B) painful neuropathic pain affecting the trigeminal nerve.
C) paralysis of the muscles innervated by the facial nerve.
D) herpetic outbreak in a facial dermatome.
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Chapter 46: Alterations in Special Sensory Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Ménière disease is characterized by
A) bilateral hearing impairment.
B) vertigo in association with hearing loss.
C) middle ear infection.
D) ossification of bones in the middle ear.
Q2) Hearing loss associated with aminoglycosides is known as
A) sensorineural.
B) conductive.
C) presbycusis.
D) otosclerosis.
Q3) It is true that a conductive hearing loss
A) cannot be corrected.
B) is due to damage to hair cells in the inner ear.
C) usually results from chronic exposure to loud noise.
D) is due to dysfunction of outer and middle ear structures.
Q4) _________ is one of the most common complications of diabetes.
A) Cataract
B) Diabetic retinopathy
C) Macular degeneration
D) Glaucoma
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Chapter 47: Pain
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Sample Questions
Q1) Slow pain sensation is transmitted primarily by A) group Ia afferents.
B) a motor neurons.
C) unmyelinated C fibers.
D) Ad fibers.
Q2) One of the most common causes of acute pain is A) headache.
B) fibromyalgia.
C) malignancy.
D) trigeminal neuralgia.
Q3) A patient presenting with a severe, pounding headache accompanied by nausea and photophobia is likely experiencing a ________ headache.
A) tension
B) migraine
C) sinus
D) chronic
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Chapter 48: Neurobiology of Psychotic Illnesses
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Sample Questions
Q1) The action of most antidepressants currently available is to
A) improve brain norepinephrine and serotonin activity.
B) inhibit norepinephrine and serotonin activity.
C) convert into catecholamines in the brain.
D) block D2 receptors in the brain.
Q2) A client who reported hearing voices, some of them saying bad and hurtful things, will now eat only food from unopened sealed packages.The behaviors described indicate that the patient may be experiencing a(n)_____ disorder.
A) bipolar
B) obsessive-compulsive
C) personality
D) psychotic
Q3) Researchers suggest a mediating role between the later development of schizophrenia and A) prenatal radiation exposure.
B) prenatal influenza exposure.
C) childhood vaccinations.
D) childhood chickenpox.
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Chapter 49: Neurobiology of Nonpsychotic Illnesses
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Sample Questions
Q1) The fearful expectation of panic anxiety is known as
A) a nervous breakdown.
B) anticipatory anxiety.
C) a phobia.
D) avoidance anxiety
Q2) An anxiety disorder that is precipitated by a traumatic event is known as
A) generalized anxiety disorder.
B) posttraumatic stress disorder.
C) panic disorder.
D) phobia.
Q3) Which statements are true about post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD)?
A) PTSD occurs up to 1 month after an event.
B) PTSD is an acute condition.
C) Remission may take as long as 3 to 4 years.
D) Women appear to take longer to recover from PTSD than men.
E) Acute stress disorder and PTSD are precipitated by a traumatic event.
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Chapter 50: Structure and Function of the Musculoskeletal System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Osteoclast activity leads to A) hardening of the bones.
B) resorption of bone.
C) deposition of bone.
D) arthritis.
Q2) Articular cartilage is avascular and A) completely incapable of regeneration.
B) nonliving.
C) nourished by synovial fluid.
D) rarely damaged.
Q3) A concentric contraction results in A) muscle shortening.
B) no change in muscle length.
C) muscle lengthening.
D) muscle damage.
Q4) The neurotransmitter released from the a-motor neuron at the motor end plate is A) norepinephrine.
B) epinephrine.
C) serotonin.
D) acetylcholine.
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Chapter 51: Alterations in Musculoskeletal Function:
Trauma, Infection, and Disease
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Sample Questions
Q1) A bone disorder that results from insufficient vitamin D is referred to as A) rickets.
B) osteoporosis.
C) osteomalacia.
D) subluxation.
Q2) The most common type of osteomyelitis is A) hematogenous.
B) contiguous focus.
C) Brodie abscess.
D) direct invasion.
Q3) The complication which is not likely to result from a compound, transverse fracture of the tibia and fibula is A) bone infection.
B) fat emboli.
C) air embolus.
D) compartment syndrome.
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Chapter 52: Alterations in Musculoskeletal Function:
Rheumatic Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) The final stage of gout, characterized by crystalline deposits in cartilage, synovial membranes, and soft tissue, is called
A) tophaceous gout.
B) gouty arthritis.
C) complicated gout.
D) asymptomatic hyperuricemia.
Q2) Characteristics of gout include
A) disturbed uric acid metabolism.
B) crystalline deposits in bony and connective tissue.
C) onset before menopause in women.
D) cardiac involvement.
E) renal involvement.
Q3) Tophi are
A) renal calculi composed of uric acid.
B) deposits of urate crystals in tissues.
C) painful edematous joints.
D) spots that coalesce in a malar rash.
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Page 55
Chapter 53: Alterations in the Integumentary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which type of dermatitis is associated with cradle cap in newborns?
A) Irritant
B) Seborrheic
C) Atopic
D) Stasis
Q2) Impetigo is a skin infection caused by A) fungus.
B) yeast.
C) bacteria.
D) parasite.
Q3) Atopic dermatitis (eczema)is due to A) parasitic infestation of the skin.
B) superficial staphylococcal infection.
C) superficial fungal infection.
D) contact with skin allergens.
Q4) Shingles is caused by the same virus that causes A) measles.
B) mumps.
C) chicken pox.
D) rubella.
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Chapter 54: Burn Injuries
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Sample Questions
Q1) Electrical injury may cause extensive damage to low-resistance tissues, particularly A) bone and muscle.
B) nerves and blood vessels.
C) epidermis.
D) dermis and subcutaneous tissue.
Q2) The first priority when rescuing a burned individual is
A) establishing a patent airway.
B) removing his or her clothing.
C) eliminating the source of the burn.
D) covering the wounds with wet sheets.
Q3) The immediate management of a thermal burn victim once the fire has been extinguished is to
A) cover with blankets to prevent shock.
B) monitor for signs of respiratory impairment.
C) apply lubricant to the burn area.
D) start an IV line.
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