Pathophysiology Mock Exam
Course Introduction
Pathophysiology is the study of the functional and physiological changes in the body that result from disease processes, injury, or abnormal syndromes. This course explores the underlying mechanisms that disrupt normal biological function, examining how alterations at the cellular, tissue, and organ levels manifest as clinical symptoms. Students will gain a foundational understanding of disease progression, including topics such as inflammation, immune responses, genetic disorders, and system-specific pathologies. Emphasis is placed on the application of pathophysiological principles to clinical practice, enabling students to connect basic science with patient care and medical decision-making.
Recommended Textbook
Pathophysiology 6th Edition by Jacquelyn
L. Banasik
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Chapter 1: Introduction to Pathophysiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) A disease that is native to a particular region is called A) epidemic.
B) endemic.
C) pandemic.
D) ethnographic.
Answer: B
Q2) Your patient's red blood cell is slightly elevated today.This might be explained by (Select all that apply.)
A) gender difference.
B) situational factors.
C) normal variation.
D) cultural variation.
E) illness.
Answer: A,B,C,E
Q3) When the cause is unknown,a condition is said to be idiopathic
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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3
Chapter 2: Homeostasis, Allostasis, and Adaptive
Responses to Stressors
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Sample Questions
Q1) Indicators that an individual is experiencing high stress include all the following except
A) tachycardia.
B) diaphoresis.
C) increased peripheral resistance.
D) pupil constriction.
Answer: D
Q2) The primary adaptive purpose of the substances produced in the alarm stage is A) energy and repair.
B) invoke resting state.
C) produce exhaustion.
D) set a new baseline steady-state.
Answer: A
Q3) The effects of excessive cortisol production include A) immune suppression.
B) hypoglycemia.
C) anorexia.
D) inflammatory reactions.
Answer: A
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Chapter 3: Cell Structure and Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Repolarization of a neuron after a depolarizing action potential is because of A) activation of the Na -K pump.
B) influx of calcium.
C) efflux of potassium.
D) influx of sodium.
Answer: C
Q2) The organelle that contains enzymes necessary for oxidative phosphorylation to produce ATP is the A) mitochondria.
B) ribosome.
C) lysosome.
D) nucleus.
Answer: A
Q3) Some individuals inherit a gene that results in dangerously high blood cholesterol caused by impaired endocytosis of low-density lipoproteins (LDLs).
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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5
Chapter 4: Cell Injury, Aging, and Death
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Sample Questions
Q1) An increase in organ size and function caused by increased workload is termed A) atrophy.
B) hypertrophy.
C) metaplasia
D) inflammation.
Q2) Somatic death refers to death
A) of a body organ.
B) of the entire organism.
C) of nerve cells.
D) secondary to brain damage.
Q3) Extreme cold injures cells by all the following except A) ischemic injury from vasoconstriction.
B) peripheral nerve damage from rebound vasodilation.
C) decreased blood viscosity.
D) crystallization of cellular components.
Q4) Carbon monoxide injures cells by A) destruction of cellular membranes.
B) reducing oxygen level on hemoglobin.
C) promotion of free radicals.
D) crystallization of cellular organelles.
Page 6
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Chapter 5: Genome Structure, Regulation, and Tissue
Differentiation
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Q1) The differences in structure and function of cells in different body tissues are resulting from
A) gene differences in tissue cells.
B) expression of tissue-specific genes.
C) transcriptional controls.
D) translation of amino acids to proteins.
Q2) An important difference between skeletal and cardiac muscle is that
A) cardiac muscle is not striated.
B) only skeletal muscle is dependent upon actin-myosin cross-bridging.
C) calcium does not leave the sarcoplasmic reticulum in cardiac cells.
D) cardiac muscle has calcium channels on the cell surface for calcium entry.
Q3) Characteristics of smooth muscle include
A) being under voluntary control.
B) having striations.
C) contraction being short-lived.
D) being found in blood vessels.
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Chapter 6: Genetic and Developmental Disorders
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Q1) A point mutation
A) results from the addition or loss of one or more bases.
B) is because of the translocation of a chromosomal segment.
C) always produces significant dysfunction.
D) involves the substitution of a single base pair.
Q2) A fetus is most vulnerable to environmental teratogens during A) birth.
B) conception.
C) the first trimester.
D) the last trimester.
Q3) Males are more likely than females to be affected by ________ disorders.
A) X-linked
B) autosomal-dominant
C) autosomal-recessive
D) chromosomal nondisjunction
Q4) The primary factor associated with the risk of Down syndrome is A) family history of heritable diseases.
B) exposure to TORCH syndrome organisms.
C) maternal alcohol intake.
D) maternal age.
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Chapter 7: Neoplasia
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Sample Questions
Q1) Characteristics of telomerase include (Select all that apply.)
A) repairs the end caps of chromosomes.
B) contributes to cancer cell immortality.
C) is deficient in cancer cells.
D) activity allows a cell to replicate indefinitely.
Q2) Retroviruses are associated with human cancers,including A) Burkitt lymphoma.
B) Hodgkin's lymphoma.
C) pancreatic cancer.
D) hepatic cancer.
Q3) Your patient is scheduled for a staging procedure.She wants to know what that means.The correct response is which of the following?
A) It is a procedure for determining the extent of tumor spread.
B) It is a histologic examination of tissues to determine the degree of tumor differentiation.
C) It is based on exploratory surgery.
D) It is biochemical testing of tumor cells to determine the genetic basis of the tumor.
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9
Chapter 8: Infectious Processes
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Sample Questions
Q1) The term used to describe fungal infections is A) sepsis.
B) mycoses.
C) amebiasis.
D) Chlamydia.
Q2) Dietary zinc is an important defense against infection,because it maintains (Select all that apply.)
A) natural killer cell function.
B) lymphocyte activity.
C) antioxidant activity.
D) neutrophil activity.
E) complement activity.
Q3) Characteristics of immunization include which of the following? (Select all that apply.)
A) Giving injections of preformed antibodies provides immediate immunity.
B) Immunization provides life-long immunity.
C) Immunization with killed vaccines may lead to infection from the agent.
D) Herd immunity controls disease without immunizing everyone in the population.
E) Lack of immunization may lead to an epidemic.
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Page 10
Chapter 9: Inflammation and Immunity
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Sample Questions
Q1) Functions of B cells include
A) synthesizing antibodies.
B) secreting cytokines.
C) killing antigen-presenting cells.
D) stimulating B cells.
E) killing virally infected cells.
Q2) The spleen is an important defense against infection,because it
A) activates the complement cascade.
B) initiates inflammation.
C) controls phagocytosis.
D) filters the blood.
Q3) Which clinical finding is most indicative of an acute bacterial infection?
A) Increased (band) neutrophils
B) Elevated temperature
C) Elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate
D) Elevated WBC count
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11
Chapter 10: Alterations in Immune Function
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Q1) An important mediator of a type I hypersensitivity reaction is A) complement.
B) antigen-antibody immune complexes.
C) T cells.
D) histamine.
Q2) Certain autoimmune diseases are associated with the presence of specific proteins on a person's cells.These proteins are called ________ proteins.
A) complement
B) antibody receptor
C) HLA or MHC
D) TCR or BCR
Q3) The hypersensitivity reaction that does not involve antibody production is type A) I.
B) II.
C) III.
D) IV.
Q4) Seasonal allergic rhinitis is most involved in type II hypersensitivity reactions.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 11: Malignant Disorders of White Blood Cells
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Q1) Renal insufficiency is a common complication of which disease?
A) Chronic myeloid leukemia (CML)
B) Chronic lymphoid leukemia (CLL)
C) Myeloma
D) Hodgkin disease
Q2) A diagnostic laboratory finding in myeloma is
A) Bence Jones proteins in the urine.
B) decreased platelet count.
C) increased IgM antibody titer.
D) elevated blood glucose levels.
Q3) Burkitt lymphoma is most closely associated with A) Epstein-Barr virus.
B) radiation exposure.
C) immunodeficiency syndromes.
D) history of cigarette smoking.
Q4) The only known curative treatment for CML is allogeneic bone marrow transplantation from a suitable donor.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 12: HIV Disease and Aids
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which statement best describes the etiologic development and transmission of AIDS?
A) AIDS is caused by a retrovirus and transmitted through body fluids.
B) The mechanism of AIDS transmission is unknown; therefore, AIDS is considered to be highly contagious.
C) AIDS is an autoimmune disease triggered by a homosexual lifestyle.
D) AIDS is caused by a virus that can be transmitted only by sexual contact.
Q2) The CDC defines three CD4 T-cell categories of T cell ranges.Which values are correct? (Select all that apply.)
A) In category 1, the CD4 T-cell count is greater than or equal to 500/mL.
B) In category 1, the CD4 T-cell counts range from 200 to 499/mL.
C) In category 2, the CD4 T-cell counts range from 200 to 499/mL.
D) In category 3, the CD4 T-cell count is less than 200/mL.
E) In category 3, the CD4 T-cell count is less than 300/mL.
Q3) HIV replicates very quickly from the onset of infection.What is the major site of HIV replication?
A) Vaginal mucosa
B) Anal mucosa
C) GI tract
D) Respiratory tract
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Chapter 13: Alterations in Oxygen Transport
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Sample Questions
Q1) Red blood cells differ from other cell types in the body,because they
A) contain cytoplasmic proteins.
B) have no cytoplasmic organelles.
C) have a longer life span.
D) contain glycolytic enzymes.
Q2) A newborn patient is diagnosed with hemolytic disease.The nurse may expect to find what signs and symptoms? (Select all that apply.)
A) Petechial hemorrhages
B) Hepatomegaly
C) Splenomegaly
D) Kernicterus
E) Erythema
Q3) Red blood cells obtain nearly all their energy from metabolism of A) glucose.
B) fats.
C) proteins.
D) acetyl coenzyme A.
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Chapter 14: Alterations in Homeostasis and Blood Coagulation
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Q1) The prothrombin time (PT)and INR (international normalized ratio)measure the integrity of
A) platelet function.
B) extrinsic pathway.
C) intrinsic pathway.
D) fibrinolysis.
Q2) Widespread activation of the clotting cascade secondary to massive trauma is called
A) hemophilia B.
B) disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC).
C) Hageman disease.
D) idiopathic thrombocytopenia purpura.
Q3) Activation of the extrinsic pathway of coagulation is initiated by A) platelet factors.
B) collagen exposure.
C) tissue thromboplastin.
D) factor VII.
Q4) Hemophilia B is also known as Christmas disease.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 15: Alterations in Blood Flow
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Sample Questions
Q1) The goal of long term heparin for the management of a deep vein thrombosis is to
A) relieve edema.
B) prevent clot dislodgement.
C) dissolve the thrombus.
D) prevent further clot formation.
Q2) Blood flow is slow through capillaries because capillaries
A) are so far away from the heart.
B) have the largest total cross-sectional area.
C) are so narrow.
D) have no smooth muscle.
Q3) Risk factors for atherosclerosis include
A) female gender.
B) hyperlipidemia.
C) high-protein diet.
D) low-fiber diet.
Q4) Which is not a manifestation of acute arterial obstruction?
A) Pain
B) Purpura
C) Pallor
D) Pulselessness
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Chapter 16: Alterations in Blood Pressure
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Q1) It can be explained to a patient that high blood pressure increases the risk of (Select all that apply.)
A) stroke.
B) renal disease.
C) diabetes.
D) ischemic heart disease.
E) liver disease.
Q2) The prevalence of high blood pressure is higher in
A) non-Hispanic white adults.
B) Mexican-American adults.
C) non-Hispanic black adults.
D) Asian children.
Q3) A patient presents to the emergency department with a diastolic blood pressure of 132 mm Hg,retinopathy,and symptoms of an ischemic stroke.This symptomology is likely the result of
A) arthrosclerosis.
B) angina.
C) myocardial infarction.
D) hypertensive crisis.
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Page 18
Chapter 17: Cardiac Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Myocardial cells are connected by gap junctions enabling them to A) all be stimulated simultaneously.
B) function as a coordinated syncytium.
C) be affected by the autonomic nervous system.
D) share ATP.
Q2) Echocardiograms are used to help diagnose (Select all that apply.)
A) heart enlargement.
B) valvular disorders.
C) cardiac tumors.
D) left ventricular motion abnormalities.
E) collection of fluid in lung bases.
Q3) Which physiologic change increases cardiac work but does not enhance cardiac output?
A) Increased preload
B) Increased heart rate
C) Increased contractility
D) Increased afterload
Q4) The R wave is responsible for apical depolarization. A)True
B)False
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Chapter 18: Alterations in Cardiac Function
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Q1) Primary treatment for myocardial infarction (MI)is directed at A) protecting the heart from further ischemia.
B) decreasing myocardial oxygen demands.
C) reducing heart rate and blood pressure.
D) activating the parasympathetic system.
Q2) Constrictive pericarditis is associated with A) impaired cardiac filling.
B) cardiac hypertrophy.
C) increased cardiac preload.
D) elevated myocardial oxygen consumption.
Q3) Angina caused by coronary artery spasm is called _____ angina.
A) stable
B) classic
C) unstable
D) Prinzmetal variant
Q4) An example of an acyanotic heart defect is A) tetralogy of Fallot.
B) transposition of the great arteries.
C) ventricular septal defect.
D) all right-to-left shunt defects.
20
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Chapter 19: Heart Failure and Dysrhythmias: Common Sequelae of Cardiac Diseases
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Q1) Which statement is true about the incidence of heart failure? (Select all that apply.)
A) Heart failure affects about 2 million Americans.
B) Heart failure is the fastest-growing cardiac disorder.
C) There are more than 400,000 new cases of heart failure diagnosed each year in the United States.
D) The increasing incidence and hospitalization rates of heart failure reflect the aging population in the United States.
E) The incidence of heart failure is 10 per 1000 population after age 65.
Q2) Increased preload of the cardiac chambers may lead to which patient symptom?
A) Decreased heart rate
B) Decreased respiratory rate
C) Edema
D) Excitability
Q3) A patient with pure left-sided heart failure is likely to exhibit
A) jugular vein distention.
B) pulmonary congestion with dyspnea.
C) peripheral edema.
D) hepatomegaly.
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Chapter 20: Shock
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Q1) A patient who was involved in a fall from a tree becomes short of breath.The lung sounds are absent on one side.This patient is experiencing ________ shock.
A) cardiogenic
B) obstructive
C) hypovolemic
D) distributive
Q2) Improvement in a patient with septic shock is indicated by an increase in A) cardiac output.
B) SvO<sub>2</sub>.
C) systemic vascular resistance.
D) serum lactate level.
Q3) Tachycardia is an early sign of low cardiac output that occurs because of A) tissue hypoxia.
B) anxiety.
C) baroreceptor activity.
D) acidosis.
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Chapter 21: Respiratory Function and Alterations in Gas Exchange
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Q1) Secondary pulmonary hypertension is most often caused by A) increased pulmonary blood flow.
B) increased pulmonary vascular resistance.
C) increased left atrial pressure.
D) decreased alveolar compliance.
Q2) Virchow's triad can result in
A) decreased pulmonary arterial pressure.
B) alveolar collapse.
C) pulmonary embolus.
D) bronchoconstriction.
Q3) Hypoventilation causes
A) hypoxemia.
B) respiratory alkalosis.
C) increased minute ventilation.
D) decreased PaCO .
Q4) Shifts in the oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve represent the A) effect of carbonic anhydrase on the uptake of CO .
B) ability of blood to pick up more CO when PaO is low.
C) amount of hydrogen in solution in the blood.
D) changes in hemoglobin affinity for oxygen.
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Chapter 22: Obstructive Pulmonary Disorders
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Q1) Croup is characterized by
A) a productive cough.
B) a barking cough.
C) an inability to cough.
D) drooling, sore throat, and difficulty swallowing.
Q2) In individuals who have asthma,exposure to an allergen to which they are sensitized leads to which pathophysiologic event?
A) Loss of alveolar elastin and premature closure of airways
B) Pulmonary edema and decreased alveolar compliance
C) Mast cell degranulation that causes decreased surfactant
D) Inflammation, mucosal edema, and bronchoconstriction
Q3) Lack of a-antitrypsin in emphysema causes
A) chronic mucous secretion and airway fibrosis.
B) destruction of alveolar tissue.
C) pulmonary edema and increased alveolar compliance.
D) bronchoconstriction and airway edema.
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Chapter 23: Restrictive Pulmonary Disorders
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Q1) Chronic occupational lung disease is characterized by (Select all that apply.)
A) causation from long-term inhalation of inorganic material.
B) a latent period before symptoms occur.
C) hyperactive respiratory macrophages.
D) a progressive cough and dyspnea with exercise.
E) possible negative chest x-ray when symptom-free.
Q2) A restrictive respiratory disorder is characterized by
A) increased total lung capacity.
B) decreased residual volume.
C) inspiratory wheezing.
D) expiratory wheezing.
Q3) A patient with a productive cough and parenchymal infiltrates on x-ray is demonstrating symptomology of A) bacterial pneumonia.
B) viral pneumonia.
C) tuberculosis.
D) acute respiratory distress syndrome.
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Chapter 24: Fluid and Electrolyte Homeostasis and Imbalances
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Q1) Which change in a patient's assessment has the greatest urgency?
A) Serum potassium concentration is decreasing; abdominal distention, but denies any difficulty breathing
B) Serum calcium concentration is decreasing; reports constipation; is alert and denies any discomfort
C) Serum calcium concentration is increasing; reports constipation; is alert and denies any discomfort
D) Serum potassium concentration is increasing; has developed cardiac dysrhythmias, but denies any difficulty breathing
Q2) A patient has a positive Chvostek sign.The nurse interprets this as a sign of A) hypercalcemia.
B) hypermagnesemia.
C) decreased neuromuscular excitability.
D) increased neuromuscular excitability.
Q3) Decreased neuromuscular excitability is often the result of A) hypercalcemia and hypermagnesemia.
B) hypomagnesemia and hyperkalemia.
C) hypocalcemia and hypokalemia.
D) hypernatremia and hypomagnesemia.
Page 26
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Chapter 25: Acid-Base Homeostasis and Imbalances
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Q1) A patient has been hospitalized several times in 6 months with severe ECV depletion and hypokalemia resulting from chronic laxative abuse.Which blood gas results should be relayed to the physician?
A) pH in high part of normal range, PaO normal, PaCO normal, bicarbonate normal
B) pH in high part of normal range, PaO normal, PaCO high, bicarbonate high
C) pH in low part of normal range, PaO normal, PaCO low, bicarbonate low
D) pH in low part of normal range, PaO normal, PaCO normal, bicarbonate normal
Q2) The body compensates for metabolic alkalosis by
A) hypoventilation.
B) decreasing arterial carbon dioxide.
C) increasing bicarbonate ion excretion.
D) hyperventilation.
Q3) Fully compensated respiratory acidosis is demonstrated by
A) pH 7.36, PaCO 55, HCO - 36.
B) pH 7.45, PaCO 40, HCO - 28.
C) pH 7.26, PaCO 60, HCO - 26.
D) pH 7.40, PaCO 40, HCO - 24.
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Chapter 26: Renal Function
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Q1) Serious renal impairment generally does not occur until ____ of the total nephrons have been damaged.
A) 20%
B) 40%
C) 60%
D) 80%
Q2) The main driving force for glomerular filtration is
A) oncotic pressure in the Bowman's capsule.
B) hydrostatic pressure in glomerular capillaries.
C) permeability of the glomerular membrane.
D) solute content of the blood in the glomerular capillaries.
Q3) The blood urea nitrogen (BUN)level is affected by (Select all that apply.)
A) protein intake.
B) fat intake.
C) fluid intake.
D) catabolism.
E) renal function.
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28
Chapter 27: Intrarenal Disorders
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Q1) Findings that should prompt an evaluation for renal cancer include
A) bacteria in the urine.
B) intermittent urinary colic.
C) hematuria.
D) red blood cell casts in the urine.
Q2) Renal stone formation is affected by (Select all that apply.)
A) urine concentration.
B) urine PH.
C) metabolic/congenital conditions.
D) dietary intake.
E) potassium level.
Q3) In addition to E.coli,a risk factor for development of pyelonephritis is
A) urinary retention and reflux.
B) nephrotic syndrome.
C) respiratory disease.
D) glomerulonephritis.
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Chapter 28: Acute Kidney Injury and Chronic Kidney Disease
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Q1) Osteoporosis commonly occurs in patients with end-stage renal disease because of A) hyperparathyroidism.
B) hypercalcemia.
C) excess active vitamin D.
D) phosphorous deficiency.
Q2) The most likely cause of anemia in a patient with end-stage renal disease is A) insufficient erythropoietin.
B) blood loss secondary to hematuria.
C) vitamin B deficiency secondary to deficient intrinsic factor.
D) iron deficiency.
Q3) Appropriate management of end-stage renal disease includes A) potassium supplementation.
B) a high-protein diet.
C) erythropoietin administration.
D) a high-phosphate diet.
Q4) The best intervention for acute kidney injury (AKI)is prevention.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 29: Disorders of the Lower Urinary Tract
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Q1) The direct cause of stress incontinence is
A) the effect of aging.
B) pelvic muscle weakness.
C) neurologic conditions.
D) detrusor muscle overactivity.
Q2) The most frequent initial symptom of bladder cancer is
A) bladder infection.
B) hematuria.
C) sudden incontinence.
D) dysuria.
Q3) A patient has ureteral colic.The manifestation that requires immediate notification of the physician is A) severe flank pain.
B) vomiting.
C) pink-tinged urine.
D) chills and fever.
Q4) Infection can lead to bladder stone formation.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 30: Male Genital and Reproductive Function
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Q1) The male penis is innervated by the ________ nerve.
A) sciatic
B) sacral
C) pudendal
D) caudal
Q2) The capacitation process occurs in sperm
A) after introduction into the vagina.
B) before emission from the penis.
C) after fertilization of the egg.
D) before ejaculation from the penis.
Q3) An important function of the scrotum is to
A) regulate the temperature of the testes.
B) provide support to the prostate gland.
C) regulate blood supply to the penis.
D) supply antibacterial secretions.
Q4) The nerve most responsible for penile erection is the _____nerve.
A) penile
B) prepual
C) pudendal
D) prostatic
Page 32
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Chapter 31: Alterations in Male Genital and Reproductive Function
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Q1) The pathology report for a patient with penile cancer has this statement: The tumor involves the shaft of the penis.The cancer is at what stage?
A) Stage I
B) Stage II
C) Stage III
D) Stage IV
Q2) Sudden,severe testicular pain is indicative of
A) prostatitis.
B) testicular cancer.
C) testicular torsion.
D) epididymitis.
Q3) Cryptorchidism is
A) associated with an increased incidence of testicular cancer.
B) an extremely uncommon disorder.
C) rarely treated.
D) a consequence of gonorrhea.
Q4) The majority of penile cancer cases are classified as basal cell carcinoma.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 32: Female Genital and Reproductive Function
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Q1) Before the onset of menstruation,water retention and breast swelling are thought to be high levels of ________ stimulating the secretory cells of the breast.
A) estrogen
B) progesterone
C) hCG
D) oxytocin
Q2) The heartbeat becomes audible through a stethoscope during which phase of fetal development?
A) First trimester
B) Second trimester
C) Third trimester
D) Parturition
Q3) The purpose of the placenta during pregnancy is to
A) protect the developing fetus.
B) provide nutrients to the mother.
C) provide nutrients to the fetus and remove wastes.
D) remove excess estrogen during pregnancy.
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Chapter 33: Alterations in Female Genital and Reproductive Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) A potential risk factor for breast cancer includes
A) a history of fibrocystic breast disease.
B) more than three pregnancies prior to age 35.
C) malnourishment.
D) early menarche and late first pregnancy.
Q2) Which pharmacologic treatments may be seen in a patient with breast cancer? (Select all that apply.)
A) Estrogen receptor modulators
B) Estrogen antagonists
C) Anti-inflammatory agents
D) Estrogen/progesterone combination therapies
E) Antineoplastic agents
Q3) Excessive vomiting in pregnant women is known as
A) placenta previa.
B) hyperemesis gravidarum.
C) abruptio placentae.
D) spontaneous abortion.
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Page 35
Chapter 34: Sexually Transmitted Infections
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Q1) A long asymptomatic latent phase is characteristic of which of the following sexually transmitted infections?
A) Gonorrhea
B) Syphilis
C) Chlamydia
D) Hepatitis B
Q2) A painless ulceration called a chancre is a lesion associated with infection by
A) human papillomavirus.
B) N. gonorrhoeae.
C) C. trachomatis.
D) T. pallidum.
Q3) The initial incubation period of syphilis lasts for
A) 2 to 3 days.
B) 10 to 90 days.
C) 3 to 6 weeks.
D) 40 years.
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Chapter 35: Gastrointestinal Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Brush-border enzymes are produced by ________ cells.
A) pancreatic acinar
B) gastric mucosa
C) intestinal epithelial
D) goblet
Q2) The portion of the stomach that controls gastric emptying is the A) fundus.
B) body.
C) antrum.
D) pylorus.
Q3) Absorption of glucose and amino acids across the intestinal epithelium occurs by A) endocytosis.
B) ATP-driven transporters.
C) sodium-dependent carriers.
D) passive diffusion.
Q4) Which enzyme assists with protein digestion?
A) Amylase
B) Chymotrypsin
C) Lactase
D) Lipase
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Chapter 36: Gastrointestinal Disorders
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Q1) Dumping syndrome is commonly seen after __________ procedures.
A) appendectomy
B) intestinal biopsy
C) colonoscopy
D) gastric bypass
Q2) What finding would rule out a diagnosis of irritable bowel syndrome in a patient with chronic diarrhea?
A) Negative stool leukocytes
B) Intermittent constipation
C) Abdominal pain and distention
D) Bloody stools
Q3) A patient receiving chemotherapy may be at greater risk for development of A) gastroesophageal reflux.
B) stomatitis.
C) esophageal varices.
D) Mallory-Weiss syndrome.
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Chapter 37: Alterations in Function of the Gallbladder and Exocrine Pancreas
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Sample Questions
Q1) A biliary cause of acute pancreatitis is suggested by an elevation in which serum laboratory results?
A) Lipase
B) Amylase
C) Glucose
D) Alkaline phosphatase
Q2) The definitive treatment for cholecystitis is
A) lithotripsy of stones.
B) chemical dissolution of stones.
C) antibiotics and anti-inflammatories.
D) cholecystectomy.
Q3) Patients who may be at risk for development of cholesterol gallstones include (Select all that apply.)
A) high spinal cord injuries.
B) patients receiving total parenteral nutrition.
C) patients receiving chemotherapy.
D) patients with rapid weight loss.
E) pregnant women.
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Chapter 38: Liver Diseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) An increased urine bilirubin is associated with A) an increased indirect serum bilirubin.
B) hemolytic reactions.
C) Gilbert syndrome.
D) hepatitis.
Q2) Hepatic encephalopathy is associated with A) hyperbilirubinemia.
B) hyperuricemia.
C) toxic effects of alcohol on brain cells.
D) increased blood ammonia levels.
Q3) Jaundice is a common manifestation of A) malabsorption syndromes.
B) anemia.
C) liver disease.
D) cholecystitis.
Q4) What form of viral hepatitis is likely to be transmitted sexually?
A) Hepatitis A
B) Hepatitis B
C) Hepatitis C
D) Hepatitis E
Page 40
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Chapter 39: Endocrine Physiology and Mechanisms of
Hypothalamic-Pituitary Regulation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which hormone is responsible for regulation of immune and inflammatory reactions?
A) Thyrotropin
B) Androgen
C) Aldosterone
D) Cortisol
Q2) Most endocrine hormones are water-soluble and exert their effects on target cells by
A) binding to nuclear receptors.
B) generating second messengers.
C) binding to intracellular receptors.
D) stimulating action potentials.
Q3) Oversecretion of ACTH occurs in
A) Cushing disease.
B) hyperthyroidism.
C) diabetes insipidus.
D) hypoglycemia.
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Chapter 40: Disorders of Endocrine Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient reporting vision changes,photophobia,and lid lag may be exhibiting signs of
A) Addison disease.
B) Cushing syndrome.
C) myxedema.
D) Graves disease.
Q2) Antidiuretic hormone (ADH)increases
A) sodium reabsorption in the distal tubule of the kidney.
B) potassium secretion in the distal tubule of the kidney.
C) water reabsorption in the collecting tubule of the kidney.
D) urinary output.
Q3) The signs and symptoms of adrenocortical hormone excess may occur from either a primary or secondary disorder.A symptom associated with primary Cushing syndrome is A) hyperpigmentation.
B) hypotension.
C) hyperglycemia.
D) hyperkalemia.
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Chapter 41: Diabetes Mellitus
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Sample Questions
Q1) Diabetes mellitus is the ________ leading cause of death and a major cause of disability in the United States.
A) first
B) second
C) fourth
D) seventh
Q2) The underlying pathogenic mechanism for type 2 diabetes is
A) pancreatic b-cell destruction.
B) insulin resistance and b-cell dysfunction.
C) lack of exercise and chronic overeating.
D) impaired glucose transport into cells.
Q3) What indicator is most helpful in evaluating long-term blood glucose management in patients with diabetes mellitus?
A) Blood glucose levels
B) Urine glucose levels
C) Glycosylated hemoglobin levels (Hba c)
D) Clinical manifestations of hyperglycemia
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Chapter 42: Alterations in Metabolism and Nutrition
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Sample Questions
Q1) The process of metabolizing proteins to provide energy is called A) glycogenolysis.
B) glycolysis.
C) gluconeogenesis.
D) proteolysis.
Q2) The main source of energy for the body comes from A) proteins.
B) fats.
C) carbohydrates.
D) water.
Q3) An immobile patient should be treated with an extra ________ g of protein daily.
A) 2 to 4
B) 4 to 6
C) 7 to 9
D) 10 to 15
Q4) The postoperative energy requirement can increase ____ above BMR. A) 7%.
B) 10% to 35%.
C) 15% to 30%.
D) 50%.
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Chapter 43: Structure and Function of the Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which are functions of neuroglia? (Select all that apply.)
A) Generation of action potential
B) Modulation of ionic composition of extracellular fluid in the brain
C) Production of CSF
D) Phagocytosis of wastes within the CNS
E) Slowing the rate of conduction to the nerve axons
Q2) Within the spinal nerves,there are ____ pairs of thoracic nerves.
A) 8
B) 12
C) 5
D) 2
Q3) The peripheral nervous system contains a total of ____ nerves.
A) 12
B) 31
C) 24
D) 86
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Chapter 44: Acute Disorders of Brain Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Rupture of a cerebral aneurysm should be suspected if the patient reports
A) ringing in the ears.
B) transient episodes of numbness.
C) transient episodes of vertigo.
D) sudden, severe headache.
Q2) It is true that epidural bleeding is
A) associated with widespread vascular disruption.
B) located between the arachnoid and the dura mater.
C) usually because of venous leakage.
D) characterized by a lucid interval immediately after injury.
Q3) The most important preventive measure for hemorrhagic stroke is A) anticoagulation.
B) blood pressure control.
C) thrombolytics.
D) management of dysrhythmias.
Q4) Leakage of CSF from the nose or ears is commonly associated with A) epidural hematoma.
B) temporal skull fracture.
C) basilar skull fracture.
D) cerebral aneurysm.
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Chapter 45: Chronic Disorders of Neurologic Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which conditions are risk factors for the development of cerebral palsy? (Select all that apply.)
A) Birth trauma
B) Seizure disorder
C) Kernicterus
D) Prenatal maternal infection
E) Scoliosis
Q2) The classic manifestations of Parkinson disease include
A) intention tremor and akinesia.
B) rest tremor and skeletal muscle rigidity.
C) ataxia and intention tremor.
D) skeletal muscle rigidity and intention tremor.
Q3) Ascending paralysis with no loss of sensation is characteristic of A) multiple sclerosis.
B) Guillain-Barré syndrome.
C) myasthenia gravis.
D) amyotrophic lateral sclerosis.
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Chapter 46: Alterations in Special Sensory Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse caring for an individual with vision impairment should be prepared to A) keep the patient on bed rest to avoid injury.
B) speak to the patient with a clear, loud voice.
C) announcing himself or herself at all interactions.
D) provide as much bright light as possible.
Q2) Opacification of the lens is commonly referred to as A) hyperopia.
B) glaucoma.
C) presbyopia.
D) cataract.
Q3) Hearing loss associated with aminoglycosides is known as A) sensorineural.
B) conductive.
C) presbycusis.
D) otosclerosis.
Q4) It is true that a conductive hearing loss
A) cannot be corrected.
B) is as a result of damage to hair cells in the inner ear.
C) usually results from chronic exposure to loud noise.
D) is because of dysfunction of outer and middle ear structures.
Page 48
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Chapter 47: Pain
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Q1) Which treatment is helpful in neuropathic pain but not used for acute pain?
A) Narcotic analgesics
B) Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs and aspirin
C) Anticonvulsants
D) Nonnarcotic analgesics
Q2) It is useful to conceptualize pain physiology according to the four stages because each stage provides an opportunity for
A) education.
B) stimulation.
C) intervention.
D) documentation.
Q3) Referred pain may be perceived at some distance from the area of tissue injury,but generally felt
A) on the same side of the body.
B) with slightly less intensity.
C) within the same dermatome.
D) within 10 to 15 cm area.
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Chapter 48: Neurobiology of Psychotic Illnesses
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Q1) An elderly patient is taking antipsychotic drugs and begins to develop involuntary chewing motions.The patient is likely exhibiting signs of A) dementia.
B) Parkinson disease.
C) tardive dyskinesia.
D) dysthymia.
Q2) The action of most antidepressants currently available is to
A) improve brain norepinephrine and serotonin activity.
B) inhibit norepinephrine and serotonin activity.
C) convert into catecholamines in the brain.
D) block D receptors in the brain.
Q3) Which symptoms would support a diagnosis of major depressive disorder? (Select all that apply.)
A) Diminished interest or pleasure
B) Incomprehensible speech
C) Altered reality
D) Psychomotor agitation or retardation
E) Appetite disturbance
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Chapter 49: Neurobiology of Nonpsychotic Illnesses
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Q1) The first-line treatment for posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD)is
A) adrenergic blockers.
B) benzodiazepines
C) tricyclic antidepressants.
D) selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors.
Q2) An anxiety disorder that is precipitated by a traumatic event is known as A) generalized anxiety disorder.
B) posttraumatic stress disorder.
C) panic disorder.
D) phobia.
Q3) The fearful expectation of panic anxiety is known as A) a nervous breakdown.
B) anticipatory anxiety.
C) a phobia.
D) avoidance anxiety.
Q4) The most common childhood psychiatric disorder is A) bipolar disorder.
B) attention-deficit hyperactivity disorder.
C) autism spectrum disorder.
D) psychosis.
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Chapter 50: Structure and Function of the Musculoskeletal System
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Q1) The parathyroid gland functions to facilitate (Select all that apply.)
A) calcium absorption from the gut.
B) bone resorption.
C) calcium reabsorption in the kidneys.
D) vitamin C action.
E) osteoblast production.
Q2) Osteoclast activity leads to
A) hardening of the bones.
B) resorption of bone.
C) deposition of bone.
D) arthritis.
Q3) It is true that articular cartilage (Select all that apply.)
A) is comprised of mostly protein.
B) dries out with aging.
C) spreads weight load.
D) needs synovial fluid lubrication.
E) has limited regeneration ability.
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Chapter 51: Alterations in Musculoskeletal Function:
Trauma, Infection, and Disease
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Q1) Inflammation of the sacs that overlie bony prominences is called A) epicondylitis.
B) arthritis.
C) tendinitis.
D) bursitis.
Q2) Anticholinesterase inhibitors may be used to manage A) muscular dystrophy.
B) myasthenia gravis.
C) fibromyalgia.
D) rheumatoid arthritis.
Q3) Bone healing may be impaired by A) excessive vitamin C.
B) nicotine use.
C) a high-protein diet.
D) immobilization.
Q4) Healing of a fractured bone with a poor alignment is called A) malunion.
B) nonunion.
C) disunion.
D) delayed union.
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Chapter 52: Alterations in Musculoskeletal Function:
Rheumatic Disorders
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Q1) The chief pathologic features of osteoarthritis are
A) stress fractures of the epiphysis, inflammation of the diaphysis, and accumulation of excessive synovial fluid.
B) autoimmune damage to the synovium, destruction of articular cartilage by pannus, and thickening of synovial fluid.
C) degeneration of articular cartilage, destruction of the bone under the cartilage, and thickening of the synovium.
D) thinning of the joint capsule, resorption of bone, excessive formation of new bone, and formation of bone spurs.
Q2) Ankylosing spondylitis is characterized by
A) inflammation, stiffness, and fusion of spinal joints.
B) loss of articular cartilage in weight-bearing joints.
C) excessive bone remodeling leading to soft bone.
D) immune mechanisms leading to widespread joint inflammation.
Q3) Ankylosing spondylitis causes
A) intervertebral joint fusion.
B) instability of synovial joints.
C) costal cartilage degeneration.
D) temporomandibular joint degeneration.
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Chapter 53: Alterations in the Integumentary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) A major difference between a vesicle and a wheal is that vesicles
A) contain fluid, but wheals are edematous tissue.
B) are palpable, but a wheal is not.
C) are larger than wheals.
D) are smaller than wheals.
Q2) Deep pressure ulcers usually
A) appear first as reddened areas that do not blanch.
B) begin in the dermal and epidermal skin layers.
C) result from thrombosis of deep vessels.
D) are an unavoidable consequence of immobility.
Q3) Onycholysis is characterized by
A) silvery plaques on the skin.
B) itching, oozing rash.
C) destruction of the nails.
D) whitish coating on the tongue.
Q4) Which type of dermatitis is associated with cradle cap in newborns?
A) Irritant
B) Seborrheic
C) Atopic
D) Stasis
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Chapter 54: Burn Injuries
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Q1) It is true that second-degree,superficial partial-thickness burns
A) are less painful than third-degree burns.
B) involve only the epidermis.
C) usually heal in 7 to 21 days.
D) are rarely associated with scar formation.
Q2) The first priority when rescuing a burned individual is
A) establishing a patent airway.
B) removing his or her clothing.
C) eliminating the source of the burn.
D) covering the wounds with wet sheets.
Q3) A necessary intervention when managing burns associated with automobile airbag injury include
A) irrigation with water.
B) application of steroid cream.
C) IV infusion of antibiotics.
D) debridement of skin.
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56