Pathophysiology for Physical Therapy Final
Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Pathophysiology for Physical Therapy explores the underlying physiological mechanisms of diseases and disorders most relevant to physical therapy practice. The course covers alterations in normal body functions and the resultant clinical manifestations, linking foundational knowledge of anatomy, physiology, and pathology to the patient assessment and management process. Students learn to analyze how pathological conditions affect movement, physical function, and healing, with an emphasis on musculoskeletal, cardiovascular, nervous, and respiratory systems. The course equips physical therapy students with the critical-thinking skills needed to interpret clinical signs and symptoms, aiding in the development of effective, evidence-based intervention strategies tailored to individual patient needs.
Recommended Textbook
Goulds Pathophysiology for the Health Professions 5th Edition by VanMeter
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Introduction to Pathophysiology
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Q1) Pathophysiology involves the study of:
A) the structure of the human body.
B) the functions of various organs in the body.
C) functional or structural changes resulting from disease processes.
D) various cell structures and related functions.
Answer: C
Q2) The term disease refers to:
A) the period of recovery and return to a normal healthy state.
B) a deviation from the normal state of health and function.
C) the treatment measures used to promote recovery.
D) a basic collection of signs and symptoms.
Answer: B
Q3) The term homeostasis refers to:
A) the causative factors in a particular disease.
B) maintenance of a stable internal environment.
C) a condition that triggers an acute episode.
D) a collection of signs and symptoms.
Answer: B
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3
Chapter 2: Fluid, Electrolyte, and Acid-Base Imbalances
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Q1) Hypocalcemia causes weak cardiac contractions because:
A) permeability of nerve membranes increases.
B) insufficient calcium ions are available for muscle contraction.
C) low phosphate ion levels prevent muscle contraction.
D) excessive amounts of calcium are stored in cardiac muscle.
Answer: B
Q2) Choose the correct proportion of blood (to body weight) in an adult male's body:
A) 30%
B) 20%
C) 10%
D) 4%
Answer: D
Q3) Which of the following is a common cause of hyponatremia?
A) Loss of the thirst mechanism
B) Excessive sweating
C) Excessive aldosterone secretion
D) Prolonged period of rapid, deep respirations
Answer: B
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4
Chapter 3: Introduction to Basic Pharmacology and Other Common Therapies
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Sample Questions
Q1) The form of therapy that involves assessment of physical function and works to restore any problems and prevent any further dysfunction using methods such as appropriate exercises and ultrasound is referred to as:
A) registered massage therapy.
B) naturopathy.
C) physiotherapy.
D) reflexology.
Answer: C
Q2) After they are metabolized, most drugs are excreted through the:
A) lungs.
B) pancreas.
C) kidneys.
D) large intestine.
Answer: C
Q3) Ingesting a drug with a large meal may be likely to:
A) immediately increase the blood level of the drug.
B) prevent gastric irritation.
C) ensure that the total dose is absorbed into the blood.
D) cause more rapid excretion of the drug.
Answer: B
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Chapter 4: Pain
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Q1) Cancer-related pain has been broken down into three basic categories: pain caused by the advance of the disease and resultant damage to the body, pain that is the result of a coexisting disease unrelated to the cancer, and:
A) phantom pain as a result of amputation.
B) pain associated with the treatment of the disease.
C) pain caused by emotional stress and metabolic changes.
D) pain associated with damage to the peripheral nerves.
Q2) Which of the following statements is TRUE?
A) The brain is more aware of pain impulses when the reticular activating system is depressed.
B) Acute pain does not cause a reflex response at the spinal cord synapses.
C) Young infants typically respond to pain with tachycardia and increased blood pressure.
D) Chronic pain is easier to tolerate without negative effects.
Q3) In which structure do pain impulses ascend the spinal cord?
A) Reticular formation
B) Corticospinal tract
C) Spinothalamic tract
D) Relevant dermatome
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Page 6
Chapter 5: Inflammation and Healing
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Q1) Some local effects of a general inflammatory response would include:
A) high, spiking fever and chills.
B) redness, warmth, and swelling.
C) leukopenia and reduced erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR).
D) anorexia and headaches.
Q2) Which of the following drugs relieves fever and some types of pain but is NOT an anti-inflammatory agent?
A) Acetaminophen
B) Prednisone
C) Aspirin
D) Ibuprofen
Q3) Which of the following is a serious potential complication found only with the anti-inflammatory COX-2 inhibitor drugs?
A) Increased risk of infection at the site of inflammation
B) Reye's syndrome developing in children and young adults
C) Increased incidence of heart attacks
D) Greatly delayed blood clotting
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Chapter 6: Infection
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Q1) The presence of the bacterial capsule:
A) aids in the release of endotoxins.
B) protects the microbe from phagocytosis.
C) increases the release of toxins and enzymes.
D) prevents replication of the bacterium.
Q2) Which of the following is a characteristic of resident or normal flora (microflora)?
A) It exists in all areas of the body.
B) Different species inhabit various areas of the body.
C) It is of no benefit to the human host.
D) It consists only of bacteria.
Q3) Which of the following is NOT classified as a protozoan agent of disease?
A) Plasmodium vivax
B) Trichomonas vaginalis
C) Tinea pedis
D) Entamoeba histolytica
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8
Chapter 7: Immunity
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Q1) HIV infection impairs:
A) humoral immunity.
B) cell-mediated immunity.
C) both humoral and cell-mediated immunity.
D) neither type of immunity.
Q2) Which of the following is an effect of cytokines? They:
A) activate and stimulate proliferation of B and T lymphocytes.
B) destroy antigens quickly.
C) increase the rate of mitosis in tumors.
D) cause immediate pain.
Q3) Which statement applies to contact dermatitis?
A) It occurs when IgE antibodies on the skin react with the causative substance.
B) It may result from ingested foods.
C) Urticaria (hives) gradually spread over the body.
D) A type IV reaction occurs in affected areas.
Q4) A diagnosis of HIV positive means that:
A) the number of T lymphocytes in the circulating blood is decreased.
B) significant opportunistic infection is present in the body.
C) the individual has AIDS.
D) the virus and its antibodies are present in the blood.
Page 9
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Chapter 8: Skin Disorders
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Q1) Which of the following applies to actinic keratoses?
A) They predispose to malignant melanoma.
B) They arise on skin exposed to ultraviolet radiation.
C) They occur primarily on dark-skinned persons.
D) They are malignant and invasive.
Q2) Which of the following skin lesions are usually caused by Staphylococcus aureus?
A) Furuncles
B) Verrucae
C) Scabies
D) Tinea
Q3) Which type of microbe causes Tinea infections?
A) Fungus
B) Virus
C) Gram-negative bacterium
D) Mite
Q4) Choose the correct match of the skin condition and its usual location.
A) Scabies-fingers, wrists, waist
B) Impetigo-legs, feet
C) Pediculosis humanus corporis-scalp
D) Seborrheic keratosis-feet, hands
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Chapter 9: Musculoskeletal Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which factors delay healing of bone fractures?
1) Lack of movement of the bone
2) Prolonged inflammation and ischemia
3) Presence of osteomyelitis
4) Close approximation of bone ends
A) 1, 2
B) 1, 3
C) 2, 3
D) 3, 4
Q2) What is a typical characteristic of the pain caused by osteoarthritis?
A) Decreases over time
B) Quite severe in the early stages
C) Aggravated by general muscle aching
D) Increased with weight-bearing and activity
Q3) Which of the following is characteristic of osteoarthritis?
A) Inflammation and fibrosis develop at the joints.
B) Degeneration of articulating cartilage occurs in the large joints.
C) It progresses bilaterally through the small joints.
D) There are no changes in the bone at the affected joints.
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Chapter 10: Blood and Circulatory System Disorders
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Q1) Which of the following applies to the leukemias?
A) Chronic leukemias are more common in older people.
B) AML is the most common childhood leukemia.
C) Exposure to chemicals is not considered a predisposing factor.
D) Lymphoid tissue produces abnormal leukocytes.
Q2) Jaundice is one typical sign of:
A) sickle cell anemia.
B) aplastic anemia.
C) iron deficiency anemia.
D) acute leukemia.
Q3) Which of the following is present with pernicious anemia?
A) Pancytopenia
B) Hypochlorhydria
C) Leukocytosis
D) Multiple infarcts
Q4) Which of the following applies to sickle cell trait?
A) Most hemoglobin is in the form of HgS
B) Sickling of erythrocytes occurs with severe hypoxia.
C) Painful sickling crises with multiple infarctions occur frequently.
D) A child's skeletal growth is delayed.
Page 12
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Chapter 11: Lymphatic System Disorders
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Q1) Malignant neoplasms involving lymphocyte proliferation in the lymph nodes are called:
A) lymphomas
B) myelomas
C) lymphocytomas
D) lymphedemas
Q2) The spleen has a number of important functions, which include:
A) lymph production, hematopoiesis, platelet production.
B) hematopoiesis, destruction of old erythrocytes, blood reservoir.
C) defense from infection, metabolism of vitamins, platelet production.
D) lipid metabolism, production of hemoglobin, water absorption.
Q3) The staging system typically used in determining the stage of the Hodgkin's lymphoma is the:
A) Reed-Sternberg system.
B) sequential staging system.
C) Ann Arbor system.
D) differential landmark system.
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Chapter 12: Cardiovascular System Disorders
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Q1) Which statement applies to paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea?
A) It indicates decreased CO<sub>2</sub> diffusion in the lungs.
B) It indicates swelling in the bronchioles and bronchi.
C) It is caused by increased blood in the lungs when lying in a supine position.
D) It results from pleural effusion.
Q2) The first arteries to branch off the aorta are the:
A) common carotid arteries.
B) pulmonary arteries.
C) coronary arteries.
D) subclavian arteries.
Q3) Which factor predisposes to varicose veins during pregnancy?
A) Compressed pelvic veins
B) Stenotic valves in leg veins
C) Thrombus formation
D) Insufficient muscle support for veins
Q4) What would indicate decompensated acidosis related to shock?
A) Serum bicarbonate level below normal
B) PCO<sub>2</sub> above normal
C) Serum pH below normal range
D) Urine pH of 4.5
Page 14
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Chapter 13: Respiratory System Disorders
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Q1) What are typical pathological changes with bronchiectasis?
A) Bronchospasm and increased mucous secretion
B) Adhesions and fibrosis in the pleural membranes
C) Airway obstructions and weak, dilated bronchial walls
D) Fixation of the ribs in the inspiratory position
Q2) Persistent thick mucus in the bronchioles of a child with cystic fibrosis may cause:
1) air trapping.
2) atelectasis.
3) repeated infections.
4) irreversible damage to lung tissue.
A) 1, 2
B) 2, 4
C) 1, 3, 4
D) 1, 2, 3, 4
Q3) What is the most common cause of viral pneumonia?
A) Rhinovirus
B) Influenza virus
C) Haemophilus influenzae
D) Pneumococcus
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Page 15
Chapter 14: Neurological Disorders
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Q1) In which type of neuron is progressive degeneration occurring with amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS)?
A) Upper motor neurons
B) Upper and lower motor neurons
C) Motor and sensory neurons
D) Motor, sensory, and autonomic system neurons
Q2) How does a depressed skull fracture cause brain damage?
A) A bone fragment penetrates and tears brain tissue.
B) A section of the skull is missing, leaving the brain unprotected.
C) A section of skull bone is displaced below the level of the skull, causing pressure on the brain.
D) Many fracture lines are present, causing instability.
E) The contrecoup injury is the cause of brain damage.
Q3) What is the probable source of an embolus causing a cerebrovascular accident (CVA)?
A) Right ventricle of the heart
B) Femoral vein
C) Common carotid artery
D) Pulmonary artery
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Page 16
Chapter 15: Disorders of the Eye, Ear, and Other Sensory Organs
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Q1) Which is the early effect of age-related macular degeneration?
A) Loss of central visual acuity
B) Intermittent pain and blurred vision
C) Loss of peripheral vision
D) Loss of night vision and color perception
Q2) Which of the following is caused by an irregular curvature of the cornea or lens?
A) Nystagmus
B) Astigmatism
C) Hyperopia
D) Strabismus
Q3) Which statement does NOT apply to chronic glaucoma?
A) Degeneration and obstruction of the trabecular network
B) Gradual increase in intraocular pressure
C) Abnormally narrow angle between the cornea and iris
D) Damage to the retina and optic nerve
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Chapter 16: Endocrine System Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why does hypocalcemia cause tetany?
A) Skeletal muscle contractions are weaker.
B) Nerves to skeletal muscle are more excitable.
C) Calcium is not stored in skeletal muscle cells.
D) Serum phosphate levels are low.
Q2) Blood glucose levels are increased by:
1) glucocorticoids.
2) glucagon.
3) epinephrine.
4) norepinephrine.
5) parathyroid hormone (PTH)
A) 1, 2
B) 1, 2, 3
C) 2, 4, 5
D) 1, 3, 4, 5
Q3) Which of the following does NOT usually develop as a complication of diabetes?
A) Osteoporosis
B) Nephropathy
C) Impotence
D) Peripheral neuropathy
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Chapter 17: Digestive System Disorders
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Q1) What does the pathophysiology of chronic gastritis include?
A) Atrophy of the gastric mucosa with decreased secretions
B) Hyperchlorhydria and chronic peptic ulcers
C) Frequent vomiting and diarrhea
D) Episodes of acute inflammation and edema of the mucosa
Q2) Obstruction of the biliary tract by gallstones is referred to as:
A) cholelithiasis.
B) cholecystitis.
C) cholangitis.
D) choledocholithiasis.
Q3) What does the term melena mean?
A) Blood in a dark-colored stool
B) Occult blood in the stool
C) Blood in the sputum
D) Blood in vomitus
Q4) How does iron deficiency anemia frequently develop with ulcerative colitis?
A) Loss of surface area for absorption in the ileum
B) Bone marrow depression by toxic wastes
C) Chronic blood loss in stools
D) Insufficient hydrochloric acid for iron absorption
Page 19
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Chapter 18: Urinary System Disorders
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Q1) In acute post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis, the inflammation causes:
A) increased permeability of the glomerular capillaries.
B) glomerular congestion and decreased GFR.
C) decreased blood pressure and edema.
D) A and B
Q2) Which of the following is related to Wilms' tumor?
A) Direct exposure to carcinogens
B) Hormonal imbalance
C) Repeated infections
D) A genetic defect
Q3) Which of the following results from decreased blood flow into the kidneys?
A) Decreasing blood pressure
B) Dilation of the afferent arterioles
C) Decreased aldosterone secretion
D) Increased angiotensin and systemic vasoconstriction
Q4) Which of the following causes acute renal failure?
A) Polycystic kidney disease
B) Pyelonephritis in the right kidney
C) Nephrosclerosis
D) Bilateral acute glomerulonephritis
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Chapter 19: Reproductive System Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Painful menstruation is called:
A) polymenorrhea.
B) premenstrual syndrome.
C) dysmenorrhea.
D) endometriosis.
Q2) What is the cause of syphilis?
A) A gram-negative diplococcus
B) An anaerobic protozoa
C) A virus
D) An anaerobic spirochete
Q3) Which term refers to excessive fluid collecting between the layers of the tunica vaginalis?
A) Varicocele
B) Hypospadias
C) Spermatocele
D) Hydrocele
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21
Chapter 20: Neoplasms and Cancer
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Q1) The development of neutropenia during chemotherapy for cancer means :
A) the cancer cells are being destroyed quickly.
B) the patient is likely to hemorrhage.
C) higher doses of chemotherapy could be tolerated by this patient.
D) the patient is at high risk for infection.
Q2) Malignant brain tumors:
A) metastasize quickly to all parts of the body.
B) spread first to lungs and bone.
C) spread to other parts of CNS.
D) do not metastasize anywhere at any time.
Q3) The warning signs for cancer include:
A) unusual bleeding.
B) change in a wart or mole (e.g., color).
C) a new solid lump, often painless.
D) All the above
Q4) Benign tumors in the brain are often life-threatening because they:
A) metastasize early in their development.
B) create excessive pressure within the skull.
C) cannot be removed.
D) cause serious systemic effects.
Page 22
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Chapter 21: Congenital and Genetic Disorders
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Q1) Which of the following can easily pass through the placental barrier?
A) Many viruses
B) Some heavy metals
C) Certain chemicals
D) All of the above
Q2) Down syndrome is an example of a/an:
A) autosomal dominant disorder.
B) multifactorial disorder.
C) developmental defect.
D) chromosomal disorder.
Q3) Hemophilia A has been diagnosed in a young boy. He has inherited this defective gene from:
A) his father.
B) his mother.
C) both parents.
Q4) Which of the following can be detected using amniotic fluid?
A) Chromosomal abnormalities
B) Metabolic disorders
C) Certain structural abnormalities
D) All the above
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Chapter 22: Complications due to Pregnancy
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Q1) Common effects of the expanding uterus during pregnancy include all of the following EXCEPT:
A) compression of the urinary bladder.
B) restricted inspiratory volume.
C) low blood pressure.
D) varicose veins.
Q2) Gestational diabetes in the mother usually results in:
A) normal maternal blood glucose levels until the last month of pregnancy.
B) no further indication of diabetes mellitus following delivery.
C) delivery of a high birth-weight infant.
D) no additional complications for the infant or mother.
Q3) During which time period do teratogens cause major developmental damage to organs?
A) First week following fertilization
B) First 2 months
C) Any time up to 6 months
D) During labor and delivery
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24
Chapter 23: Complications due to Adolescence
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Q1) Which of the following would confirm reduced normal linear growth during adolescence?
A) Levels of androgens
B) Abnormally thin epiphyseal plate seen on X-ray
C) Lack of a broader pelvis in males
D) Development of kyphosis
Q2) Three factors common to metabolic syndrome include:
A) presence of significant abdominal fat mass, changes in glucose metabolism, and changes in lipoprotein metabolism.
B) increased fat mass throughout the body, changes in glucose metabolism, and delayed sexual maturation.
C) significant increase of fat on hips and thighs, delayed linear growth, and change in calcium and vitamin D metabolism.
D) BMI at the 85th percentile, type 2 diabetes mellitus, and hypertension.
Q3) Infectious mononucleosis can be diagnosed by the presence of:
A) sore throat, fever, and lymphadenopathy.
B) abnormal lymphocytes and positive antibody test.
C) the causative bacteria in the saliva.
D) extreme fatigue and malaise.
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Page 25
Chapter 24: Complications due to Aging
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Q1) What is a major factor leading to increased occurrence of cancer in the elderly?
A) Widespread vascular degeneration
B) Cumulative exposure to carcinogens
C) Hereditary factors
D) Increased immune surveillance
Q2) Senescence refers to the period of time when:
A) mitosis is accelerated.
B) apoptosis is reduced.
C) aging changes become apparent.
D) cell death exceeds cell replacement.
Q3) All of the following changes are associated with aging EXCEPT:
A) loss of elastic fibers.
B) decreased metabolic rate.
C) decreased secretion of all hormones.
D) degenerative vascular changes.
Q4) With advancing age, the major change in the cardiovascular system involves:
A) irregular impulse conduction in the heart.
B) a reduced number of collagen fibers to support cardiac muscle.
C) vascular degeneration, leading to arteriosclerosis and atherosclerosis.
D) the heart valves becoming thin and weak.
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Chapter 25: Immobility and Associated Problems
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Q1) What is a major factor predisposing to pulmonary infection in immobilized patients?
A) Decreased activity and demand for oxygen
B) Increased retention of CO<sub>2</sub>
C) Inability to sneeze forcefully
D) Stasis of secretions in the lungs
Q2) Which of the following is likely to develop when a leg is immobilized in a cast?
A) Contracture
B) Muscle hypertrophy
C) Muscle atrophy
D) Increased osteoblastic activity
Q3) Inactive muscle quickly loses strength as it becomes _____________.
A) less elastic.
B) atrophied.
C) contracted.
D) spastic.
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Chapter 26: Stress and Associated Problems
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Q1) Which of the following may alter a person's perception of a stressor?
A) The presence of several stressors at the same time
B) Past experiences
C) Lack of effective coping mechanisms
D) A, B, and C
Q2) Improved function of the heart and brain during a stress response results from:
1) glycogenesis.
2) bronchodilation.
3) vasoconstriction in the skin and viscera.
4) decreased metabolic rate.
A) 1, 2
B) 2, 3
C) 2, 4
D) 3, 4
Q3) Severe, prolonged stress may cause acute renal failure or stress ulcers to develop as a result of:
A) a deficit of glucose and oxygen in the body.
B) the development of decompensated acidosis.
C) prolonged vasoconstriction and ischemia.
D) the supply of hormones having been exhausted.
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Chapter 27: Substance Abuse and Associated Problems
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Q1) Chronic alcoholism is likely to cause all of the following EXCEPT:
A) cirrhosis.
B) mental confusion.
C) loss of motor coordination.
D) altered personality and amnesia.
E) respiratory failure.
Q2) Withdrawal from any drug is best accomplished:
A) with medical support.
B) with legally prescribed drugs.
C) following intensive counseling.
D) using CNS stimulants.
Q3) What is/are the typical effect(s) of psychedelic substances?
A) Drowsiness and euphoria
B) Marked stimulation of the central nervous system (CNS)
C) Lethargy and decreased metabolic rate
D) Altered perception and awareness as well as hallucinations
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29
Chapter 28: Environmental Hazards and Associated Problems
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Q1) A common illness for tourists in developing countries is "traveler's diarrhea," often caused by:
A) Salmonella
B) Shigella
C) E. coli
D) Listeria
Q2) Institutions frequently have outbreaks of infection associated with poultry products contaminated by:
A) E. coli
B) Salmonella
C) Listeria
D) HIV
Q3) What is/are signs of hypothermia?
A) Systemic vasodilation
B) Lethargy and confusion
C) Nausea and cramps
D) Rapid but strong pulse
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