Pathophysiology for Medical Students
Chapter Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Pathophysiology for Medical Students explores the fundamental mechanisms underlying the development and progression of human diseases. This course provides a comprehensive overview of why and how normal physiological processes are altered in various disease states, with an emphasis on the cellular and systemic changes that lead to clinical signs and symptoms. Students will learn to connect the molecular and cellular basis of disease with organ-level dysfunction, integrating basic science with clinical medicine. Topics include inflammation, immune responses, neoplasia, cardiovascular and respiratory disorders, endocrine disturbances, and common pathologies affecting major organ systems. The course aims to develop critical thinking skills and a strong foundation for making clinical decisions, preparing students for the diagnostic and therapeutic challenges of medical practice.
Recommended Textbook
Pathophysiology The Biologic Basis for Disease in Adults and Children 8th Edition by Kathryn L. McCance
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Chapter 1: Cellular Biology
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Sample Questions
Q1) During which phase of the cell cycle is DNA synthesized?
A)G
B)S
C)G
D)M Answer: B
Q2) What are the major chemical components of the cell membranes? (Select all that apply.)
A)Lipids
B)Sodium ions
C)Carbohydrates
D)DNA
E)Proteins
Answer: A, E
Q3) What transports potassium and sodium across plasma membranes?
A)Passive electrolyte channels
B)Coupled channels
C)Adenosine triphosphatase (ATPase) enzyme
D)Diffusion
Answer: C
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Chapter 2: Altered Cellular and Tissue Biology: Environmental Agents
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Q1) What type of necrosis is often associated with pulmonary tuberculosis?
A)Bacteriologic
B)Caseous
C)Liquefactive
D)Gangrenous
Answer: B
Q2) In decompression sickness, emboli are formed by bubbles of what?
A)Oxygen
B)Nitrogen
C)Carbon monoxide
D)Hydrogen
Answer: B
Q3) After ovulation, the uterine endometrial cells divide under the influence of estrogen. This process is an example of what hormonal process?
A)Hyperplasia
B)Dysplasia
C)Hypertrophy
D)Anaplasia
Answer: A
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Chapter 3: The Cellular Environment: Fluids and Electrolytes,
Acids and Bases
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Sample Questions
Q1) In hyperkalemia, what change occurs to the cells' resting membrane potential?
A)Hypopolarization
B)Hyperexcitability
C)Depolarization
D)Repolarization
Answer: A
Q2) Why does increased capillary hydrostatic pressure result in edema?
A)Losses or diminished production of plasma albumin
B)Inflammation resulting from an immune response
C)Blockage within the lymphatic channel system
D)Sodium and water retention
Answer: D
Q3) Thirst activates osmoreceptors following an increase in which blood plasma component?
A)Antidiuretic hormone
B)Aldosterone
C)Hydrostatic pressure
D)Osmotic pressure
Answer: D
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Chapter 4: Genes and Genetic Diseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) Males, having only one X chromosome, are said to be what?
A)Homozygous
B)Heterozygous
C)Hemizygous
D)Ambizygous
Q2) Which statement is true regarding X-linked recessive conditions?
A)Such diseases use males as phenotypical carriers.
B)These conditions are passed from affected father to all of his female children.
C)25% of an affected individual's grandsons will be affected.
D)Cystic fibrosis is an example of such a condition.
Q3) The presence of a zygote having one chromosome with the normal complement of genes and one with a missing gene is characteristic of which genetic disorder?
A)Cri du chat
B)Down syndrome
C)Klinefelter syndrome
D)Turner syndrome
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Chapter 5: Genes, Environment-Lifestyle, and Common Diseases
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Q1) Which risk factor for hypertension is influenced by genetic factors and lifestyle?
A)Sodium intake
B)Physical inactivity
C)Psychosocial stress
D)Obesity
Q2) What factors are typically considered when assessing an individual's risk for developing such common diseases as hypertension? (Select all that apply.)
A)Age
B)Diet
C)Exercise habits
D)Family history
E)Spiritual beliefs
Q3) What are empirical risks for most multifactorial diseases based on?
A)Chromosomal testing
B)Direct observation
C)Liability thresholds
D)Relative risks
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Chapter 6: Epigenetics and Disease
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Q1) Which term refers to the silenced gene of a gene pair?
A)Activated
B)Altered
C)Mutated
D)Imprinted
Q2) What genetic process is likely responsible for the occurrence of asthma in only one of a pair of identical twins?
A)Epigenetic modifications
B)Genomic imprinting
C)Transgenerational inheritance
D)Methylation
Q3) What is the belief regarding twins who adopt dramatically different lifestyles?
A)They may experience very different aging processes.
B)They will retain very similar methylation patterns.
C)They will experience identical phenotypes throughout their lifespans.
D)They may never demonstrate similar DNA sequences of their somatic cells.
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Chapter 7: Innate Immunity: Inflammation and Wound Healing
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Q1) What does the phagosome step result in during the process of endocytosis?
A)Microorganisms are ingested.
B)Microorganisms are killed and digested.
C)Phagocytes recognize and adhere to bacteria.
D)An intracellular phagocytic vacuole is formed.
Q2) A keloid is the result of which dysfunctional wound healing response?
A)Epithelialization
B)Contraction
C)Collagen matrix assembly
D)Maturation
Q3) Frequently when H and H receptors are located on the same cells, they act in what fashion?
A)Synergistically
B)Additively
C)Antagonistically
D)Agonistically
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Chapter 8: Adaptive Immunity
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which statement is true concerning IgM?
A)IgM is the first antibody produced during the initial response to an antigen.
B)IgM mediates many common allergic responses.
C)IgM is the most abundant class of immunoglobulins.
D)IgM is capable of crossing the human placenta.
Q2) Which cell has the ability to recognize antigens presented by the MHC class I molecules?
A)T cytotoxic
B)CD 4
C)CD 8
D)T helper
Q3) Which is an example of a bacterial toxin that has been inactivated but still retains its immunogenicity to protect the person? (Select all that apply.)
A)Poliomyelitis
B)Measles
C)Tetanus
D)Gonorrhea
E)Diphtheria
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Chapter 9: Alterations in Immunity and Inflammation
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Q1) A healthcare professional is teaching a patient about Raynaud phenomenon and instructs the patient to avoid cold. What is the best explanation of how cold impacts the manifestations of this disease?
A)Immune complexes that are deposited in capillary beds, blocking circulation
B)Mast cells that are bound to specific endothelial receptors, causing them to degranulate and creating a localized inflammatory reaction that occludes capillary circulation
C)Cytotoxic T cells that attack and destroy the capillaries so that they are unable to perfuse local tissues
D)Antibodies that detect the capillaries as foreign protein and destroy them using lysosomal enzymes and toxic oxygen species
Q2) Raynaud phenomenon is an example of which type of hypersensitivity?
A)IV
B)III
C)II
D)I
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Chapter 10: Infection
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Q1) Which organism is a common sexually transmitted bacterial infection?
A)Staphylococcus aureus
B)Clostridium perfringens
C)Helicobacter pylori
D)Treponema pallidum
Q2) Which disease is an example of a rickettsial infection?
A)Cholera
B)Candida
C)Sleeping sickness
D)Rocky Mountain spotted fever
Q3) Some bacterial surface proteins bind with the crystalline fragment (Fc) portion of an antibody to do what?
A)Hide in cells to avoid triggering an immune response
B)Form self-protecting toxins
C)Make staining possible for microscopic observation
D)Produce a protective "self" protein
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Chapter 11: Stress and Disease
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Q1) Which statement is true concerning the differences between stress-induced hormonal alterations of men and women?
A)After injury, women produce more proinflammatory cytokines than men, a profile that is associated with poor outcomes.
B)Androgens appear to induce a greater degree of immune cell apoptosis after injury, creating greater immunosuppression in injured men than in injured women.
C)Psychologic stress associated with some types of competition decreases both testosterone and cortisol, especially in athletes older than 45 years of age.
D)After stressful stimuli, estrogen is increased in women, but testosterone is decreased in men.
Q2) Which statements are true regarding lymphocytes? (Select all that apply.)
A)Lymphocytes are involved in the production of the human growth hormone.
B)Elevated catecholamine levels influence lymphocytes.
C)Lymphocytes are synthesized in the anterior pituitary gland.
D)Lymphocytes have receptors for the hormone prolactin.
E)Lymphocytes produce endorphins in large amounts.
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Chapter 12: Cancer Biology
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Q1) What cellular characteristics are affected by anaplasia? (Select all that apply.)
A)Size
B)Ability to differentiate
C)Life expectancy
D)Tissue structure
E)Shape
Q2) What is the role of vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF) and basic fibroblast growth factor (bFGF) in cell metastasis?
A)To stimulate growth of nearby tumor cells
B)To develop new blood vessels to feed cancer cells
C)To prevent cancer cells from escaping apoptosis
D)To act as a chemical gradient to guide cells to blood vessels
Q3) What are the most common causes of nosocomial infections among patients with cancer? (Select all that apply.)
A)Indwelling medical devices
B)Suppressed immune system
C)Visitor-introduced microorganisms
D)Poor appetite
E)Inadequate wound care
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Chapter 13: Cancer Epidemiology
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Q1) When considering topics for a series of community discussions related to cancer prevention strategies, what should the healthcare professional include? (Select all that apply.)
A)Healthy eating
B)Tobacco avoidance
C)Importance of early diagnosis
D)Impact of obesity on one's health
E)Age-appropriate exercise routines
Q2) Which environmental factors have been shown to have greatest significant effect on the frequency of genetic mutations in humans? (Select all that apply.)
A)Tobacco use
B)Radiation exposure
C)Obesity
D)Severe allergies
E)Stressful occupation
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Chapter 14: Cancer in Children
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Q1) Which statement is true concerning the difference between adult and childhood cancers? (Select all that apply.)
A)Numerous differences exist between these two categories of cancer.
B)Genetic risk factors and congenital conditions are more related in childhood cancers.
C)Environmental risks are strongly associated with childhood cancers.
D)Exposure to pesticides is a minor risk for the development of adult cancers.
E)Maternal exposure to carcinogenic substances presents little risk to the fetus.
Q2) Currently, what percentage of children with cancer can be cured?
A)40%
B)50%
C)60%
D)85%
Q3) Which statement is likely true regarding children being treated for cancer with radiation therapy?
A)They will most likely have a successful remission of tumor growth.
B)They seldom require follow-up maintenance treatments.
C)They are prone to experience severe developmental delays.
D)They are at increased risk for developing childhood cancers.
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Chapter 15: Structure and Function of the Neurologic System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse recognizes that a patient's diagnosis of a bacterial infection of the brain's meningeal layer is supported by which diagnostic laboratory result?
A)Chloride 125 mEq/L
B)Leukocytes 110/mm<sup>3</sup>
C)Protein 32 mg/dL
D)Glucose 63 mg/dL
Q2) A patient has a defect in the arachnoid villi. What finding would the healthcare professional expect to note?
A)Production of excess cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)
B)Ischemia in the choroid plexuses
C)Cloudy cerebral spinal fluid on analysis
D)Absorption of too little cerebrospinal fluid
Q3) Which statements are true regarding the blood-brain barrier (BBB)? (Select all that apply.)
A)The BBB is dependent on astrocytes.
B)It uses the meningeal layers of the brain.
C)It restricts the flow of large molecules, such as plasma proteins.
D)Naturally occurring inflammatory mediators affect the BBB.
E)Becomes increasingly permeable with aging
Page 17
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Chapter 16: Pain, Temperature Regulation, Sleep, and Sensory Function
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Q1) When considering the risk factors for the development of phantom limb pain, the nurse recognizes which as a primary contributing factor?
A)Age, with adolescent patients being at a higher risk than adults
B)Presence of pain in the limb before amputation
C)Patient's previous experience with managing pain
D)Cultural views regarding the acceptance of pain
Q2) What part of the brain provides the emotional response to pain?
A)Limbic system
B)Parietal lobe
C)Thalamus
D)Hypothalamus
Q3) A healthcare professional is caring for four postsurgical patients. Based on an understanding of the physiologic process of nociceptors, the nurse expects to give more pain medication to which patient?
A)Repair of several crushed fingers
B)Dislocated shoulder replacement
C)Cyst removal on the internal surface of an ovary
D)Repair of a ruptured spleen
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Chapter 17: Alterations in Cognitive Systems, Cerebral
Hemodynamics, and Motor Function
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Q1) A patient is in status epilepticus. In addition to giving medication to stop the seizures, what would the healthcare professional place highest priority on?
A)Facilitating a CT scan of the head
B)Providing oxygen
C)Assessing for brain death
D)Assessing for drug overdose
Q2) What is the most critical aspect in correctly diagnosing a seizure disorder and establishing its cause?
A)Computed tomographic (CT) scan
B)Cerebrospinal fluid analysis
C)Skull x-ray studies
D)Health history
Q3) Antipsychotic drugs cause tardive dyskinesia by mimicking the effects of an increase of what?
A)Dopamine
B)Gamma-aminobutyric acid
C)Norepinephrine
D)Acetylcholine
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Chapter 18: Disorders of the Central and Peripheral Nervous
Systems and the Neuromuscular Junction
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Q1) A healthcare professional is caring for a patient who has a spinal cord injury at T5. The patient exhibits severe hypertension, a heart rate of 32 beats/min, and sweating above the spinal cord lesion. How does the professional chart this event?
A)Craniosacral dysreflexia
B)Parasympathetic dysreflexia
C)Autonomic hyperreflexia
D)Retrograde hyperreflexia
Q2) A patient has been hospitalized with Guillain-Barré syndrome (GBS). The patient asks how this could have occurred. What response by the healthcare professional is best?
A)It is often preceded by a viral illness.
B)It is due to a genetic defect in acetylcholine.
C)It could be caused by a brain tumor.
D)It is often transmitted by family pets.
Q3) What is the type of vascular malformation that most often results in hemorrhage?
A)Cavernous angioma
B)Venous angioma
C)Capillary telangiectasia
D)Arteriovenous malformation
Page 20
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Chapter 19: Neurobiology of Schizophrenia, Mood Disorders, and Anxiety Disorders
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Q1) Which neurotransmitter is reduced in people with schizophrenia?
A)Dopamine
B)Gamma-aminobutyric acid
C)Acetylcholine
D)Serotonin
Q2) Which neurotransmitters are inhibited in generalized anxiety disorder (GAD)? (Select all that apply.)
A)Acetylcholine
B)Serotonin
C)Dopamine
D)Norepinephrine
E)Epinephrine
Q3) A patient reports frequent nightmares. For which of these should the healthcare professional assess the patient?
A)A recent major loss
B)Family history of nightmares
C)History of traumatic event
D)Poor nutrition and weight loss
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Chapter 20: Alterations of Neurologic Function in Children
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Q1) An infant is brought to the emergency department by parents who report that the baby's fontanels seem to be bulging outward. What action by the healthcare provider is most appropriate?
A)Assess the baby for recent trauma to the head.
B)Measure the head circumference and plot it on a growth chart.
C)Prepare the baby for a lumbar puncture and blood cultures.
D)Determine how much fluid the baby had in the last 24 hours.
Q2) Gait disturbances and instability are characteristic of which form of cerebral palsy?
A)Spastic
B)Dystonic
C)Ataxic
D)Biochemical
Q3) A baby demonstrates asymmetric pathological reflexes and microcephaly at a 9-month checkup. The baby appeared normal at birth. What action by the healthcare professional is best?
A)Determine the baby's risk for developing an HIV infection since birth.
B)Assess the baby for other signs of child abuse or neglect.
C)Ask the mother if she uses drugs or alcohol in excess.
D)Perform spinal cord imaging and other diagnostic studies.
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Page 22
Chapter 21: Mechanisms of Hormonal Regulation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which substance is a water-soluble protein hormone?
A)Thyroxine
B)Aldosterone
C)Follicle-stimulating hormone
D)Insulin
Q2) What effect does hyperphosphatemia have on other electrolytes?
A)Increases serum calcium
B)Decreases serum calcium
C)Decreases serum magnesium
D)Increases serum magnesium
Q3) What is the portion of the pituitary that secretes oxytocin?
A)Posterior
B)Inferior
C)Anterior
D)Superior
Q4) Which hormone inhibits the secretion of growth hormone (GH)?
A)Somatostatin
B)Thyroxine
C)Thyroid-stimulating hormone
D)Calcitonin
Page 23
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Chapter 22: Alterations of Hormonal Regulation
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Q1) A person diagnosed with type 1 diabetes experienced an episode of hunger, lightheadedness, tachycardia, pallor, headache, and confusion. The healthcare professional teaches the person that what is the most probable cause of these symptoms?
A)Hyperglycemia caused by incorrect insulin administration
B)Dawn phenomenon from eating a snack before bedtime
C)Hypoglycemia caused by increased exercise
D)Somogyi effect from insulin sensitivity
Q2) Which form of diabetic insipidus (DI) will result if the target cells for antidiuretic hormone (ADH) in the renal collecting tubules demonstrate insensitivity?
A)Neurogenic
B)Nephrogenic
C)Psychogenic
D)Ischemic
Q3) Which condition may result from pressure exerted by a pituitary tumor?
A)Hypothyroidism
B)Hypercortisolism
C)Diabetes insipidus
D)Insulin hyposecretion
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Page 24
Chapter 23: Obesity and Disorders of Nutrition
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Q1) A researcher is moving to an area with a year-round cold climate. The researcher asks the health care professional how people in these areas are able to adjust to the temperature. What response by the professional is most accurate?
A)They have less adipose tissue.
B)They have more beige (bAT) adipose tissue.
C)Their bone marrow produces more adipose tissue.
D)They gain weight which insulates them.
Q2) A student asks the professor about the functions of adipose tissue. What responses by the professor are accurate? (Select all that apply.)
A)Provides insulation
B)Helps with mechanical support
C)Dysregulates thyroid function
D)Secretes adipokines
E)Helps generate heat
Q3) Which individual does the health care professional determine is obese?
A)Body mass index 23 kg/m<sup>2</sup>
B)Body mass index 25 kg/m<sup>2</sup>
C)Body mass index 29 kg/m<sup>2</sup>
D)Body mass index 32 kg/m<sup>2</sup>
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Page 25
Chapter 24: Structure and Function of the Reproductive Systems
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Q1) The human zygote has a total of how many chromosomes?
A)23
B)25
C)46
D)50
Q2) A mother reports that her young teens have voracious appetites. The healthcare professional would explain that which hormone is linked to an increase in appetite during puberty?
A)Inhibin
B)Leptin
C)Activin
D)Follistatin
Q3) Where is the usual site of cervical dysplasia or cancer in situ?
A)Squamous epithelium of the cervix meets the cuboidal epithelium of the vagina.
B)Columnar epithelium of the cervix meets the squamous epithelium of the uterus.
C)Squamous epithelium of the cervix meets the columnar epithelium of the uterus.
D)Columnar epithelium of the cervix meets the squamous epithelium of the vagina.
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Page 26
Chapter 25: Alterations of the Female Reproductive System
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Q1) What type of cyst develops when an ovarian follicle is stimulated but no dominant follicle develops and completes the maturity process?
A)Follicular
B)Corpus luteum
C)Corpus albicans
D)Benign ovarian
Q2) Infertility is defined as the inability to conceive after how many months of unprotected intercourse with the same partner?
A)6
B)12
C)18
D)24
Q3) A woman has a pelvic organ prolapse. What treatments does the healthcare professional teach the woman about? (Select all that apply.)
A)Pessary
B)Kegel exercises
C)Estrogen therapy
D)Surgical repair
E)Bearing down exercises
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Chapter 26: Alterations of the Male Reproductive System
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Q1) How does the epididymis become infected?
A)The pathogenic microorganisms ascend the vasa deferentia from an already infected urethra or bladder.
B)The pathogenic microorganisms are attached to sperm that travel through the genital tract.
C)The pathogenic microorganisms from the tunica vaginalis are transported to the epididymis.
D)The pathogenic microorganisms from the prostate fluid ascend to the epididymis.
Q2) Priapism has been associated with the abuse of what substance?
A)Marijuana
B)Alcohol
C)Cocaine
D)Heroin
Q3) What is the reason breast cancer in men has such a poor prognosis?
A)Breast cancer is extremely aggressive in men.
B)Treatment is usually delayed as a result of late detection.
C)Chemotherapies are not as effective in men.
D)Breast tumors tend to be small and hard to isolate.
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Chapter 27: Sexually Transmitted Infections
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Q1) Which is a characteristic lesion of secondary syphilis?
A)Condylomata lata
B)Gummas
C)Chancroid
D)Donovan bodies
Q2) A healthcare professional is teaching a high school group about STIs. Which statement by the professional provides the most accurate information regarding the transmission of herpes simplex virus (HSV)?
A)HSV is transmitted only when vesicles are present.
B)HSV is transmitted only while lesions are present.
C)The use of condoms prevents the transmission of HSV.
D)The risk of transmission is present even during latent periods.
Q3) A woman diagnosed with trichomoniasis asks if her sexual partner should be treated as well. What is the appropriate response by the healthcare professional?
A)Sexual partners should be treated only if symptoms are present.
B)Sexual partners should be treated even if they are asymptomatic.
C)Infections in men are self-limiting even without treatment.
D)Sexual partners should be treated to prevent infection.
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Chapter 28: Structure and Function of the Hematologic System
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Q1) By which structure are mature erythrocytes removed from the bloodstream?
A)Liver
B)Lymph nodes
C)Thymus
D)Spleen
Q2) What is the consequence of a splenectomy?
A)The level of iron in circulation increases.
B)Antibody production increases to improve immune function.
C)The number of defective cells in circulation increases.
D)The number of clotting factors increases.
Q3) Which of these are formed elements of the blood that are not cells but are disk-shaped cytoplasmic fragments essential for blood clotting?
A)Monocytes
B)Platelets
C)Macrophages
D)Erythrocytes
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Chapter 29: Alterations of Erythrocytes, Platelets, and Hemostatic Function
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Q1) After a person has a subtotal gastrectomy for chronic gastritis, which type of anemia will result?
A)Iron deficiency
B)Aplastic
C)Folic acid
D)Pernicious
Q2) A patient has polycythemia vera and presents to the Emergency Department with plethora and neurological changes. The student asks the healthcare professional to explain the primary cause of these symptoms. What response by the professional is best?
A)Decreased erythrocyte count
B)Destruction of erythrocytes
C)Increased blood viscosity
D)Tissue destruction by macrophages
Q3) What does the student learn about warm autoimmune hemolytic anemia?
A)Warm autoimmune hemolytic anemia occurs primarily in children.
B)It is self-limiting and rarely produces hemolysis.
C)Erythrocytes are bound to macrophages and sequestered in the spleen.
D)Immunoglobulin M coats erythrocytes and binds them to receptors on monocytes.
Page 31
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Chapter 30: Alterations of Leukocyte and Lymphoid Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Reed-Sternberg (RS) cells represent malignant transformation and proliferation of which of these?
A)Interleukin (IL)-1, IL-2, IL-5, and IL-6
B)Tumor necrosis factor-beta
C)B cells
D)T cells
Q2) Which classic clinical manifestations are symptoms of infectious mononucleosis (IM)? (Select all that apply.)
A)Lymph node enlargement
B)Hepatitis
C)Pharyngitis
D)Edema in the area of the eyes
E)Fever
Q3) Which virus is associated with Burkitt lymphoma in African children?
A)Cytomegalovirus
B)Adenovirus
C)Human papillomavirus
D)Epstein-Barr virus
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Chapter 31: Alterations of Hematologic Function in Children
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32 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) A healthcare professional is teaching a community group about inherited disorders. What pattern of inheritance does the professional describe for sickle cell disease?
A)Inherited X-linked recessive disorder
B)Inherited autosomal recessive disorder
C)Disorder initiated by hypoxemia and acidosis
D)Disorder that is diagnosed equally in men and women
Q2) A couple who both carry the sickle cell trait wish to have children. What does the healthcare professional tell them is the chance that each pregnancy will result in a child who has sickle cell disease (SCD)?
A)20%
B)25%
C)33%
D)50%
Q3) The alpha- and beta-thalassemias are considered what types of inherited disorder?
A)Autosomal recessive
B)Autosomal dominant
C)X-linked recessive
D)X-linked dominant
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Chapter 32: Structure and Function of the Cardiovascular and Lymphatic Systems
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39 Verified Questions
39 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What physical sign does the healthcare professional relate to the result of turbulent blood flow through a vessel?
A)Increased blood pressure during periods of stress
B)Bounding pulse felt on palpation
C)Cyanosis observed on exertion
D)Murmur heard on auscultation
Q2) The right lymphatic duct drains into which structure?
A)Right subclavian artery
B)Right atrium
C)Right subclavian vein
D)Superior vena cava
Q3) Which chamber of the heart endures the highest pressures?
A)Right atrium
B)Left atrium
C)Left ventricle
D)Right ventricle
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Chapter 33: Alterations of Cardiovascular Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) When endothelial cells are injured, what alteration contributes to atherosclerosis?
A)The release of toxic oxygen radicals that oxidize low-density lipoproteins (LDLs)
B)Cells are unable to make the normal amount of vasodilating cytokines.
C)Cells produce an increased amount of antithrombotic cytokines.
D)Cells develop a hypersensitivity to homocysteine and lipids.
Q2) A patient in the clinic reports fever, arthralgia, a rash, and nosebleeds. What other information should the healthcare professional elicit from this patient?
A)Family history of Marfan's disease
B)History of a recent bacterial infection
C)History of any recent chest trauma
D)Any illnesses in family members
Q3) A disproportionate thickening of the interventricular septum is the hallmark of which form of cardiomyopathy?
A)Dystrophic
B)Hypertrophic
C)Restrictive
D)Dilated
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Chapter 34: Alterations of Cardiovascular Function in Children
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25 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) A healthcare professional is assessing a baby in the neonatal intensive care unit who is very unstable. The professional hears a systolic ejection click at the upper left sternal border with a thrill palpated at the upper left sternal border. What procedure does the professional prepare the parents for the baby to have?
A)Heart transplant
B)Balloon angioplasty
C)Prostaglandin infusion
D)High dose aspirin
Q2) What is the initial manifestation of aortic coarctation observed in a neonate?
A)Heart failure (HF)
B)Cor pulmonale
C)Pulmonary hypertension
D)Cerebral hypertension
Q3) Which heart defect results in a single vessel arising from both ventricles, providing blood to both the pulmonary and systemic circulations?
A)Coarctation of the aorta
B)Tetralogy of Fallot
C)Total anomalous pulmonary connection
D)Truncus arteriosus
Page 36
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Chapter 35: Structure and Function of the Pulmonary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The lung is innervated by the parasympathetic nervous system via which nerve?
A)Vagus
B)Phrenic
C)Brachial
D)Pectoral
Q2) What pulmonary defense mechanism propels a mucous blanket that entraps particles moving toward the oropharynx?
A)Nasal turbinates
B)Alveolar macrophages
C)Cilia
D)Irritant receptors on the nares
Q3) What does the pathophysiology student learn about the respiratory process referred to as remodeling? (Select all that apply.)
A)Remodeling involves the vascular walls.
B)Scarring and thickening occurs during this process.
C)Remodeling results in a permanent change.
D)Pulmonary artery hypotension results.
E)Remodeling increases blood flow resistance.
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Chapter 36: Alterations of Pulmonary Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) A healthcare professional is educating a patient about asthma. The professional states that good control is necessary due to which pathophysiologic process?
A)Norepinephrine causes bronchial smooth muscle contraction and mucus secretion but it also causes high blood pressure.
B)Uncontrolled inflammation leads to increased bronchial hyperresponsiveness and eventual scarring.
C)The release of epinephrine leads to development of cardiac dysrhythmias.
D)Immunoglobulin G causes smooth muscle contraction which will eventually weaken the respiratory muscles.
Q2) What does the student learn about exudative pleural effusion? (Select all that apply.)
A)Contains high concentrations of white blood cells
B)Produces a very thick exudate
C)May occur in response to an inflammatory process
D)The presence of a malignant cancer can trigger exudative effusion.
E)Is the result of increased capillary permeability
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Chapter 37: Alterations of Pulmonary Function in Children
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which symptoms are least likely to be assessed in a child with croup? (Select all that apply.)
A)Congestion
B)Sore throat
C)Low-grade fever
D)Barking cough
E)Coarse rhonchi
Q2) Which T-lymphocyte phenotype is the key determinant of childhood allergic asthma?
A)Cluster of differentiation (CD) 4 T-helper Th1 lymphocytes
B)CD4 T-helper Th2 lymphocytes
C)CD8 cytotoxic T lymphocytes
D)Memory T lymphocytes
Q3) Bronchiolitis tends to occur during the first years of life and is most often caused by what type of infection?
A)Respiratory syncytial virus (RSV)
B)Influenza virus
C)Adenoviruses
D)Rhinovirus
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Chapter 38: Structure and Function of the Renal and Urologic Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) The concentration of the final urine is determined by antidiuretic hormone (ADH), which is secreted by which gland?
A)Posterior pituitary
B)Thyroid
C)Parathyroid
D)Anterior pituitary
Q2) What is the only surface inside the nephron where cells are covered with microvilli to increase the reabsorptive surface area called?
A)Proximal convoluted tubules
B)Distal tubules
C)Ascending loop of Henle
D)Descending loop of Henle
Q3) Which hormone is synthesized and secreted by the kidneys?
A)Antidiuretic hormone
B)Aldosterone
C)Erythropoietin
D)Angiotensinogen
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Page 40
Chapter 39: Alterations of Renal and Urinary Tract Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient who has chronic kidney disease has hemoglobin of 7.2 mg/dL. What treatment does the healthcare professional prepare the patient for?
A)Intrinsic factor
B)Vitamin B12
C)Vitamin D
D)Erythropoietin
Q2) What are considered risk factors for developing bladder and kidney cancers? (Select all that apply.)
A)Cigarette smoking
B)Hypertension
C)Exposure to arsenic
D)Below normal body weight
E)Male gender
Q3) Creatinine is primarily excreted by glomerular filtration after being constantly released from what type of tissue?
A)Nervous system
B)Kidneys
C)Muscle
D)Liver
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Chapter 40: Alterations of Renal and Urinary Tract Function in Children
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24 Verified Questions
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/46471
Sample Questions
Q1) The excretion of urea is low in infants because of which features? (Select all that apply.)
A)Medullary nephrons with comparatively short loops
B)Immature tubular transport capacity impairing the excretion of urea
C)High anabolic state
D)Dilute urine as a result of the immaturity of an infant's glomeruli
E)Available protein used for physical growth
Q2) When does an individual have their full complement of renal nephrons?
A)At birth
B)At 6 months of age
C)At puberty
D)Between the ages 18 and 21 years
Q3) Which symptoms are considered part of the nephrotic syndrome in children? (Select all that apply.)
A)Proteinuria
B)Pyuria
C)Hyperlipidemia
D)Edema
E)Hypoalbuminemia
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Chapter 41: Structure and Function of the Digestive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) What information does the student learn regarding the functions of the pancreas?
(Select all that apply.)
A)Cholecystokinin stimulates the release of pancreatic enzymes.
B)Bilirubin and S cells inhibit the secretion of pancreatic enzymes.
C)Pancreatic polypeptide is released after eating.
D)Acetylcholine (ACh) is liberated from the pancreatic branches of the vagus nerve.
E)ACh stimulates the release of pancreatic enzymes.
Q2) The ileum and jejunum are suspended by folds of the peritoneum that contain an extensive vascular and nervous network. What are these folds called?
A)Ligament of Treitz
B)Mesentery
C)Auerbach folds
D)Lamina propria
Q3) Glucose transport enhances the absorption of which electrolyte?
A)Sodium
B)Phosphate
C)Potassium
D)Chloride
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Chapter 42: Alterations of Digestive Function
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Q1) A patient reports feeling constipated. When assessing this patient, how often should the patient report bowel movements to be considered within the normal range?
A)Once a day
B)Once every 2 days
C)Once a week
D)Once every 2 weeks
Q2) After a partial gastrectomy or pyloroplasty, clinical manifestations that include increased pulse, hypotension, weakness, pallor, sweating, and dizziness are the results of which mechanism?
A)Excessive relaxation of gastric and vascular smooth muscles
B)Postoperative hemorrhage
C)Concentrated food bolus, causing hyperglycemia
D)Rapid gastric emptying
Q3) Where in the brain is the vomiting center located?
A)Hypothalamus
B)Medulla oblongata
C)Pons
D)Midbrain
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Chapter 43: Alterations of Digestive Function in Children
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Sample Questions
Q1) A child has cystic fibrosis (CF). Which medication does the healthcare professional teach the parents about?
A)Salt tablets
B)Pancreatic enzymes
C)Antihypertensives
D)Antibiotics
Q2) Which disorder is characterized by damage to the mucosa of the duodenum and jejunum and impaired secretion of secretin, cholecystokinin, and pancreatic enzymes?
A)Wilson disease
B)Cystic fibrosis
C)Gluten-sensitive enteropathy
D)Galactosemia
Q3) A student asks the professor to explain the characteristic appearance of stools in people with cystic fibrosis. What explanation by the professor is best?
A)Bile ducts obstructed with mucus, leading to clay colored stools
B)Mechanical obstruction causes narrow, ribbon-like stool
C)Deficiency of pancreatic enzymes leads to steatorrhea.
D)Ischemia due to sodium blockages causes bloody stools.
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Chapter 44: Structure and Function of the Musculoskeletal System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which type of ion directly controls the contraction of muscles?
A)Sodium
B)Potassium
C)Calcium
D)Magnesium
Q2) The student learns that after puberty, the epiphyseal plate calcifies and the epiphysis merges with which structure?
A)Epiphyseal line
B)Epiphyseal plate
C)Metaphysis
D)Articular cartilage
Q3) Which minerals are stored in bones? (Select all that apply.)
A)Carbonate
B)Phosphate
C)Selenium
D)Magnesium
E)Calcium
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Page 46
Chapter 45: Alterations of Musculoskeletal Function
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Q1) Which patient finding would lead the health care professional to assess the patient for inflammatory joint disease?
A)Unilateral joint involvement
B)Normal joint synovial fluid
C)Absence of synovial membrane inflammation
D)Systemic symptoms of inflammation
Q2) What is the tear in a ligament referred to as?
A)Fracture
B)Strain
C)Disunion
D)Sprain
Q3) The pathophysiologic presentation of gout is closely linked to the metabolism of which chemical?
A)Purine
B)Pyrimidine
C)Vitamin E
D)Amino acid
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Chapter 46: Alterations of Musculoskeletal Function in Children
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Sample Questions
Q1) The anatomic makeup of which bone structures make them susceptible locations for osteomyelitis in children? (Select all that apply.)
A)Hip joint
B)Distal femur
C)Proximal humerus
D)Distal radius
E)Lateral ankle
Q2) A child has a disorder that resulted in the failure of bones to ossify, resulting in soft bones and skeletal deformity. What treatment plan does the healthcare professional discuss with the parents?
A)Extremely careful handling
B)Increasing vitamin D intake
C)Revascularization
D)Containment and motion therapy
Q3) Generally, what is the first symptom of facioscapulohumeral muscular dystrophy?
A)Inability to open the eyes completely
B)Difficulty standing
C)Drooping shoulders
D)Facial pain
48
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Chapter 47: Structure, Function, and Disorders of the Integument
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Sample Questions
Q1) What information does the student learn about Kaposi sarcoma? (Select all that apply.)
A)South America has been the site of the endemic form of Kaposi sarcoma.
B)Kaposi sarcoma is a vascular malignancy.
C)It is associated with drug-induced immunosuppression.
D)Kaposi sarcoma is associated with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS).
E)The classic form of Kaposi sarcoma is observed on the lower legs of older men.
Q2) Lesions on the elbows and knees that are well demarcated, thick, silvery, scaly, and erythematous characterize which type of psoriasis?
A)Plaque
B)Inverse
C)Guttate
D)Erythrodermic
Q3) Which cell is thought to be the progenitor cell of Kaposi sarcoma?
A)Endothelial
B)Keratinocyte
C)Melanocyte
D)Exothelial
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Chapter 48: Alterations of the Integument in Children
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Q1) A preschool teacher notices a child who has burrows on the hands that are several millimeters to 1 cm long, papules, and vesicular lesions. What other assessment finding would help the teacher determine the type of infestation the child has?
A)Ask the child if he or she has been around puppies or kittens.
B)Check the child's hair for the presence of small mites.
C)Ask the child if itching occurs especially at night.
D)Assess the child's trunk and abdomen for petechiae.
Q2) A person has a vascular anomaly associated with a congenital malformation of dermal capillaries and has been told this lesion does not fade with age. What treatment options can the healthcare professional discuss with this person?
A)Surgical excision
B)Pulsed dye laser
C)Cool temperatures
D)Cosmetic tattooing
Q3) Which contagious disease is caused by the itch mite?
A)Miliaria
B)Tinea corporis
C)Pediculosis
D)Scabies
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Page 50
Chapter 49: Shock, Multiple Organ Dysfunction Syndrome, and Burns in
Adults
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Q1) In septic shock, which mediators are antiinflammatory? (Select all that apply.)
A)Interleukin (IL)-4 (IL-4)
B)IL-10
C)IL-13
D)Tumor necrosis factor-alpha (TNF-a)
E)Prostaglandin
Q2) A student has studied secondary multiple organ dysfunction syndrome (MODS). What substance does the student learn is least likely to stimulate the normal endothelial cells to change to a proinflammatory state?
A)Interleukin (IL)-1
B)IL-4
C)IL 6
D)Tumor necrosis factor
Q3) Which clinical manifestation of septic shock confirms an elevation in immune system response?
A)Tachycardia
B)Increased white blood cell count
C)Low respiratory rate
D)Hypothermia
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Chapter 50: Shock, Multiple Organ Dysfunction Syndrome, and Burns in Children
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Sample Questions
Q1) A healthcare professional is assessing the severity of a burn injury. What factors does the professional include in this assessment? (Select all that apply.)
A)Amount of fluid lost over a 24-hour period
B)Circumference of the burn injury
C)Depth of the burn injury
D)Severity of the injury caused to other body systems
E)Percentage of total body surface area involved
Q2) What causes renal failure after electrical burns in children?
A)Cytokines are released after the damaged tissue.
B)Immature kidneys are unable to compensate for the electrical burn.
C)Cardiac output is reduced.
D)Myoglobin is released from damaged muscles.
Q3) What is the most common type of shock in children?
A)Hypovolemic
B)Cardiogenic
C)Neurogenic
D)Septic
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Page 52