Pathophysiology for Medical Laboratory Science
Chapter Exam Questions
Course Introduction
This course provides an in-depth exploration of the fundamental mechanisms underlying human disease, focusing on the structural and functional changes that occur in cells, tissues, and organs. Students will examine the etiology, pathogenesis, and clinical manifestations of major diseases, integrating basic scientific concepts with clinical applications relevant to medical laboratory science. Emphasis is placed on understanding pathophysiological processes in relation to laboratory findings and diagnostic testing, equipping students with the knowledge to interpret laboratory data in the context of disease states.
Recommended Textbook
Goulds Pathophysiology for the Health Professions 5th Edition by VanMeter
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Introduction to Pathophysiology
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Q1) The term prognosis refers to the:
A) period of recovery and return to a normal state.
B) expected outcome of the disease.
C) mortality and morbidity rates for a given population.
D) typical collection of signs and symptoms.
Answer: B
Q2) The term disease refers to:
A) the period of recovery and return to a normal healthy state.
B) a deviation from the normal state of health and function.
C) the treatment measures used to promote recovery.
D) a basic collection of signs and symptoms.
Answer: B
Q3) Pathophysiology involves the study of:
A) the structure of the human body.
B) the functions of various organs in the body.
C) functional or structural changes resulting from disease processes.
D) various cell structures and related functions.
Answer: C
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3
Chapter 2: Fluid, Electrolyte, and Acid-Base Imbalances
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Q1) Which is the correct effect on the body of abnormally slow respirations?
A) Increased carbonic acid
B) Decreased carbonic acid
C) Increased bicarbonate ion
D) Decreased bicarbonate ion
Answer: A
Q2) Which statements apply to atrial natriuretic peptide?
1) It is secreted by heart muscle cells.
2) It is a hormone secreted by the kidneys.
3) It helps to control water and sodium balance.
4) It is released in response to low blood pressure.
A) 1, 3
B) 1, 4
C) 2, 3
D) 2, 4
Answer: A
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4
Chapter 3: Introduction to Basic Pharmacology and Other Common Therapies
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Q1) After they are metabolized, most drugs are excreted through the: A) lungs.
B) pancreas.
C) kidneys.
D) large intestine.
Answer: C
Q2) Antagonistic drugs may be used to:
A) increase the effectiveness of selected drugs.
B) prolong the action of a drug.
C) act as an antidote when necessary.
D) speed up the excretion of a drug.
Answer: C
Q3) Ingesting a drug with a large meal may be likely to:
A) immediately increase the blood level of the drug.
B) prevent gastric irritation.
C) ensure that the total dose is absorbed into the blood.
D) cause more rapid excretion of the drug.
Answer: B
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Chapter 4: Pain
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Q1) Which of the following applies to spinal anesthesia?
A) It causes analgesia with loss of consciousness.
B) The drug is injected into cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) or the epidural space of the spinal cord.
C) The drug stimulates release of endorphins in the spinal cord.
D) The transmission of pain impulses is blocked in a small area of the body.
Q2) Pain perceived in the left arm during the course of a heart attack is an example of:
A) referred pain.
B) phantom pain.
C) chronic pain.
D) subjective pain response.
Q3) What is the role of nociceptors? They are:
A) pain receptors that are stimulated by thermal, chemical, or physical means.
B) spinal nerves that conduct impulses from specific areas of the skin.
C) responsible for the state of arousal with pain.
D) useful in localizing pain to a specific area of the body.
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Chapter 5: Inflammation and Healing
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Q1) Which of the following cellular elements found in the inflammatory response are responsible for phagocytosis?
A) Macrophages
B) Basophils
C) B lymphocytes
D) T lymphocytes
E) Eosinophils
Q2) Prolonged administration of glucocorticoids such as prednisone may cause:
1) atrophy of lymphoid tissue.
2) increased resistance to infection.
3) thrombocytopenia.
4) decreased protein synthesis.
A) 1, 2
B) 1, 3
C) 1, 4
D) 2, 4
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Chapter 6: Infection
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Q1) Secondary bacterial infections occur frequently during influenza epidemics primarily because:
A) antiviral drugs lower host resistance.
B) the virus causes extensive tissue inflammation and necrosis.
C) respiratory droplets transmit infections.
D) the viral infection is usually self-limiting.
Q2) The "incubation period" refers to the time period between:
A) entry of the pathogen into the body and the first signs of infectious disease.
B) the onset of the prodromal period and the peak of the acute infection.
C) the onset of clinical signs and signs of recovery from infection.
D) the acute period and establishment of chronic infection.
Q3) Which of the following is a function of interferons?
A) They block the invasion of pathogenic bacteria.
B) They reduce the inflammatory response to local infection.
C) They increase host cell resistance to viral invasion.
D) They may facilitate the spread of some cancer cells.
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8
Chapter 7: Immunity
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Q1) Host-versus-graft disease refers to:
A) hyperacute rejection of tissue.
B) T cells in grafted tissue attacking host cells.
C) infection resulting from immunosuppression therapy.
D) transplant rejection by the recipient's immune system.
Q2) In cases of HIV infection, the "window period" refers to the time between:
A) entry of the virus into the blood and the initial manifestations.
B) entry of the virus into the body and the appearance of antibodies in the blood.
C) entry of the virus into the body and a significant drop in CD4 T-helper lymphocyte count.
D) diagnosis of "HIV positive" and diagnosis of "AIDS."
Q3) A diagnosis of HIV positive means that:
A) the number of T lymphocytes in the circulating blood is decreased.
B) significant opportunistic infection is present in the body.
C) the individual has AIDS.
D) the virus and its antibodies are present in the blood.
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Chapter 8: Skin Disorders
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Q1) Which of the following is a common effect of a type I hypersensitivity response to ingested substances?
A) Contact dermatitis
B) Urticaria
C) Discoid lupus erythematosus
D) Psoriasis
Q2) Which of the following areas lacks blood vessels and nerves?
A) Epidermis
B) Dermis
C) Subcutaneous tissue
D) Fatty tissue
Q3) How are antiviral drugs effective in treating a viral infection?
A) They destroy the virus if administered for at least 2 weeks.
B) They limit the acute stage and viral shedding.
C) They prevent any systemic effects of viruses.
D) They prevent any secondary bacterial infection.
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Chapter 9: Musculoskeletal Disorders
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Q1) Juvenile rheumatoid arthritis (JRA) differs from the adult form in that:
A) only small joints are affected.
B) rheumatoid factor is not present in JRA, but systemic effects are more severe.
C) onset is more insidious in JRA.
D) deformity and loss of function occur in most children with JRA.
Q2) What is the distinguishing feature of primary fibromyalgia syndrome?
A) Joint pain and stiffness throughout the body
B) Degeneration and atrophy of skeletal muscles in back and lower limbs
C) Localized areas of constant pain
D) Specific trigger points for pain and tenderness
Q3) What is the chemical transmitter released at the neuromuscular junction?
A) Norepinephrine
B) GABA
C) Serotonin
D) Acetylcholine
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Chapter 10: Blood and Circulatory System Disorders
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Q1) Which of the following applies to the leukemias?
A) Chronic leukemias are more common in older people.
B) AML is the most common childhood leukemia.
C) Exposure to chemicals is not considered a predisposing factor.
D) Lymphoid tissue produces abnormal leukocytes.
Q2) A high percentage of blast cells in the leukocyte population indicates a poor prognosis for an individual with:
A) thalassemia.
B) acute myelogenous leukemia (AML).
C) myelodysplastic syndrome.
D) multiple myeloma.
Q3) Which of the following applies to erythropoietin?
A) It is produced by the liver.
B) It increases iron absorption for heme production.
C) It stimulates production of red blood cells.
D) Hypoxia stimulates the red bone marrow to produce erythropoietin.
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Chapter 11: Lymphatic System Disorders
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Q1) The function of the hormones secreted by the thymus gland is to:
A) break down old erythrocytes and recycle the hemoglobin.
B) concentrate the lymph and filter out toxins.
C) stimulate lymph production.
D) enable lymphocytes to develop into mature T cells.
Q2) One of the reasons non-Hodgkin's lymphomas are harder to treat than Hodgkin's lymphomas is that they:
A) tend to be much larger than Hodgkin's lymphomas.
B) involve multiple nodes and widespread metastases.
C) are not affected by the newer drug treatments.
D) are asymptomatic until they reach stage IV.
Q3) The staging system typically used in determining the stage of the Hodgkin's lymphoma is the:
A) Reed-Sternberg system.
B) sequential staging system.
C) Ann Arbor system.
D) differential landmark system.
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13
Chapter 12: Cardiovascular System Disorders
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Q1) Heart block, in which a conduction delay at the AV node results in intermittent missed ventricular contractions, is called:
A) first-degree block.
B) second-degree block.
C) bundle-branch block.
D) total heart block.
Q2) More extensive permanent damage is likely when a myocardial infarction is caused by:
A) a hemorrhage.
B) an embolus.
C) a thrombus.
D) an arrhythmia.
Q3) A drug taken in small doses on a continuing basis to reduce platelet adhesion is:
A) acetylsalicylic acid (ASA).
B) streptokinase.
C) acetaminophen.
D) heparin.
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Chapter 13: Respiratory System Disorders
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Q1) What is an early sign of bronchogenic carcinoma?
A) Air trapping and overinflation of the lung
B) Weight loss
C) Bone pain
D) Chronic cough
Q2) Cigarette smoking predisposes to malignant neoplasms because smoking:
A) can cause metaplasia and dysplasia in the epithelium.
B) promotes malignant changes in all types of benign tumors in the lungs.
C) causes paraneoplastic syndrome.
D) increases exposure to carbon monoxide in the lungs.
Q3) A group of common chronic respiratory disorders characterized by tissue degeneration and respiratory obstruction is called:
A) mesothelioma.
B) COPD.
C) CF.
D) MD.
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Chapter 14: Neurological Disorders
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Q1) How does a depressed skull fracture cause brain damage?
A) A bone fragment penetrates and tears brain tissue.
B) A section of the skull is missing, leaving the brain unprotected.
C) A section of skull bone is displaced below the level of the skull, causing pressure on the brain.
D) Many fracture lines are present, causing instability.
E) The contrecoup injury is the cause of brain damage.
Q2) Which statement applies to Huntington's disease?
A) It is inherited as an autosomal recessive trait.
B) It is manifested in individuals by age 20 years.
C) It presents with choreiform movements in the upper body and decreased ability to concentrate.
D) It causes decreased levels of all neurotransmitters in the CNS.
Q3) Which statement is TRUE about depression?
A) It is classified as a mood disorder.
B) Episodes of intense fear are recurrent.
C) It is marked by increased appetite and libido.
D) It is not a common condition.
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Page 16
Chapter 15: Disorders of the Eye, Ear, and Other Sensory Organs
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Q1) The semicircular canals of the inner ear are responsible for:
A) balance and equilibrium.
B) hearing in the upper frequency range.
C) hearing in the lower frequency range.
D) balancing the pressure in the auditory canal.
Q2) Which of the statements apply to infection of the eye by Staphylococcus aureus?
1) It involves the conjunctiva.
2) It is highly contagious.
3) It is commonly known as "pinkeye."
4) It usually causes keratitis and permanent visual loss.
A) 1, 3
B) 2, 3
C) 2, 4
D) 1, 2, 3
Q3) Which term refers to near-sightedness?
A) Hyperopia
B) Presbyopia
C) Myopia
D) Diplopia
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Chapter 16: Endocrine System Disorders
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Q1) Which of the following often causes hyperparathyroidism?
A) A malignant tumor in the parathyroid glands
B) End-stage renal failure
C) Osteoporosis
D) Radiation involving the thyroid gland and neck area
Q2) Which of the following may cause hypertension?
A) Hypoparathyroidism
B) Hypoglycemia
C) Pheochromocytoma
D) Addison's disease
Q3) What is the cause of diabetic ketoacidosis?
A) Excess insulin in the body
B) Loss of glucose in the urine
C) Failure of the kidney to excrete sufficient acids
D) Increased catabolism of fats and proteins
Q4) Why is amputation frequently a necessity in diabetics?
A) Necrosis and gangrene in the feet and legs
B) Lack of glucose to the cells in the feet and legs
C) Severe dehydration in the tissues
D) Elevated blood glucose increasing blood viscosity
Page 18
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Chapter 17: Digestive System Disorders
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Q1) Which of the following applies to gastric cancer?
A) It usually appears as polyp or protruding mass.
B) Most cases involve an adenocarcinoma of the mucous glands.
C) Genetics or geographical area does not affect the incidence.
D) It is usually diagnosed in an early stage because of pyloric obstruction.
Q2) What causes the characteristic rigid abdomen found in the patient with peritonitis?
A) Increased fluid and gas, causing abdominal distention
B) Inflammation of the peritoneum and organs, causing a firm mass in the abdomen
C) Inflamed peritoneum, resulting in reflex abdominal muscle spasm
D) Voluntary contraction of the abdominal muscles as a protective mechanism
Q3) To which site does colon cancer usually first metastasize?
A) Lungs
B) Stomach
C) Liver
D) Spleen
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19
Chapter 18: Urinary System Disorders
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Q1) Which disease would cause an increased ASO titer and elevated serum ASK?
A) Nephrotic syndrome
B) Acute post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis
C) Pyelonephritis
D) Polycystic kidney
Q2) Renal disease frequently causes hypertension because:
A) albuminuria increases vascular volume.
B) congestion and ischemia stimulate release of renin.
C) antidiuretic hormone (ADH) secretion is decreased.
D) damaged tubules absorb large amounts of filtrate.
Q3) Which of the following describes the correct flow of blood in the kidney?
A) Afferent arteriole to the peritubular capillaries to the venule
B) Efferent arteriole to the glomerular capillaries to the peritubular capillaries
C) Peritubular capillaries to the glomerular capillaries to the venule
D) Afferent arteriole to the glomerular capillaries to the efferent arteriole
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Chapter 19: Reproductive System Disorders
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Q1) Viable sperm may not be able to access an ovum when:
A) cervical mucus is highly viscous.
B) vaginal pH is abnormal.
C) structural abnormalities are present.
D) A, B, and C
Q2) Which of the following is the most common cause of acute bacterial prostatitis?
A) N. gonorrhoeae
B) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
C) S. aureus
D) E. coli
Q3) What is a significant early sign of endometrial carcinoma?
A) A positive Pap test
B) Minor vaginal bleeding or spotting
C) Infection resistant to treatment
D) Painful intercourse
Q4) What is a major predisposing factor to cervical cancer?
A) High estrogen levels
B) Familial incidence
C) Infection with herpes simplex virus (HSV)
D) Early age for onset of menstrual cycles
21
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Chapter 20: Neoplasms and Cancer
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Q1) The method that can be used as an alternative to surgical removal of a tumor by using heat generated by a needle inserted into the tumor is referred to as:
A) radiation therapy.
B) thermolysis intervention.
C) brachytherapy.
D) radiofrequency ablation.
Q2) Which term refers to the spread of malignant cells through blood and lymph to distant sites?
A) Invasiveness
B) Seeding
C) Metastasis
D) Systemic effect
Q3) The development of neutropenia during chemotherapy for cancer means :
A) the cancer cells are being destroyed quickly.
B) the patient is likely to hemorrhage.
C) higher doses of chemotherapy could be tolerated by this patient.
D) the patient is at high risk for infection.
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Chapter 21: Congenital and Genetic Disorders
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Q1) Which of the following statements regarding Down syndrome is TRUE?
A) The typical physical characteristics are present at birth.
B) All children with Down syndrome have the same organ defects and medical problems.
C) The extent of cognitive impairment can be assessed at birth.
D) The birth of a child with Down syndrome is only a risk to mothers over age 35.
Q2) What is the term for an arrangement of the chromosomes from an individual's cell, organized in pairs based on size and shape?
A) Pedigree
B) Punnett squares
C) Karyotype
D) Genotype
Q3) What is an example of a multifactorial congenital disorder?
A) Type AB blood
B) Down syndrome
C) Color blindness
D) Cleft lip and palate
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Chapter 22: Complications due to Pregnancy
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Q1) Which of the following is a serious potential complication of abruptio placentae indicated by low serum levels of clotting factors?
A) Severe hypertension
B) Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)
C) Jaundice
D) Thromboembolism
Q2) What is the likely cause of painless, bright red, vaginal bleeding during the last trimester?
A) Ectopic pregnancy
B) Abruptio placentae
C) Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)
D) Placenta previa
Q3) Common effects of the expanding uterus during pregnancy include all of the following EXCEPT:
A) compression of the urinary bladder.
B) restricted inspiratory volume.
C) low blood pressure.
D) varicose veins.
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Chapter 23: Complications due to Adolescence
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Q1) Acne vulgaris can best be described as an infection involving the:
A) sweat glands of the upper body.
B) dermis and epidermis of the skin.
C) apocrine glands.
D) sebaceous glands and hair follicles.
Q2) How is scoliosis identified?
A) Bowed or hunched-over position of head and shoulders
B) Unevenly aligned hips and shoulders
C) A swayback posture
D) One arm and leg shorter than the other
Q3) The biological changes associated with adolescence are stimulated primarily by:
A) the peripheral nervous system.
B) the thalamus.
C) increased secretion of estrogen and progesterone.
D) the pituitary gland.
Q4) What is a lateral curvature of the spine called?
A) Lordosis
B) Kyphosis
C) Scoliosis
D) Kyphoscoliosis
25
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Chapter 24: Complications due to Aging
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Q1) Recommendations to reduce the risk factors and the progression of osteoporosis with aging include:
A) reducing vitamin D intake.
B) maintaining walking and weight-bearing exercise.
C) increasing bone resorption.
D) maintaining glucocorticoid therapy.
Q2) Vision in the elderly may be impaired when the eyeball becomes less elastic, thus preventing accommodation and resulting in:
A) presbyopia.
B) cataracts.
C) glaucoma.
D) damage to the retina.
Q3) Which of the following may develop in an elderly patient who has several medical problems and is markedly obese?
A) Osteoarthritis and cardiovascular complications
B) Decreased activity and diabetes mellitus
C) Undesirable interactions with multiple prescription drugs and over-the-counter (OTC) medications
D) A, B, and C
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Page 26
Chapter 25: Immobility and Associated Problems
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Q1) What do prolonged periods of immobility frequently lead to?
1) Orthostatic hypotension
2) Increased blood pressure and increased heart rate
3) Increased risk of both thrombi and emboli
4) Rapid, deep respirations
A) 1, 2
B) 1, 3
C) 2, 4
D) 3, 4
Q2) Inactive muscle quickly loses strength as it becomes _____________.
A) less elastic.
B) atrophied.
C) contracted.
D) spastic.
Q3) Which of the following is likely to develop when a leg is immobilized in a cast?
A) Contracture
B) Muscle hypertrophy
C) Muscle atrophy
D) Increased osteoblastic activity
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Chapter 26: Stress and Associated Problems
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Q1) In which of the following situations would the stress response be used to prevent blood pressure from dropping too low?
A) Increasing anger during an argument
B) Writing a final examination
C) Fear about a medical diagnosis
D) Internal hemorrhage from injuries in a car accident
Q2) Severe, prolonged stress may cause acute renal failure or stress ulcers to develop as a result of:
A) a deficit of glucose and oxygen in the body.
B) the development of decompensated acidosis.
C) prolonged vasoconstriction and ischemia.
D) the supply of hormones having been exhausted.
Q3) Possible complications caused by prolonged, severe stress include all of the following EXCEPT:
A) hypertension.
B) tension headache.
C) diabetes mellitus.
D) blindness.
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Chapter 27: Substance Abuse and Associated Problems
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Q1) Which of the following applies to abuse of anabolic steroids?
A) They cause CNS depression, deep sleep, and amnesia.
B) They often cause permanent damage to the cardiovascular system.
C) They help to relax skeletal muscle spasms.
D) They help to relieve the pain of athletic injuries.
Q2) What is/are the typical effect(s) of psychedelic substances?
A) Drowsiness and euphoria
B) Marked stimulation of the central nervous system (CNS)
C) Lethargy and decreased metabolic rate
D) Altered perception and awareness as well as hallucinations
Q3) What is physiological dependence?
A) An intense emotional need for a drug in order to function
B) Adaptation of the body to a drug, resulting in withdrawal signs after the drug is discontinued
C) The need for an ever-increasing dose to produce the same effect
D) Continuing to take a drug when it is not required medically
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Chapter 28: Environmental Hazards and Associated Problems
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Q1) Two types of eye damage that can be caused by a laser beam are:
A) chemical and structural.
B) thermal burn and photochemical damage.
C) tissue necrosis and vascular occlusions.
D) formation of deep lesions in the optic nerve and in the sclera.
Q2) Illness in institutions may be traced back to food handlers who:
A) are carriers of pathogens.
B) do not practice adequate hand-washing or sanitization.
C) bring in pathogens from home or the community.
D) A, B, and C
Q3) During the development of hyperthermia, the state of heat exhaustion is indicated when:
A) body core temperature is very high.
B) skeletal muscle spasms occur.
C) hypovolemia and fainting occur.
D) the cool-down process is too rapid.
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