Pathophysiology for Health Professions
Textbook Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Pathophysiology for Health Professions explores the physiological processes that underlie human disease, focusing on the mechanisms by which normal bodily functions are disrupted, altered, or fail. The course examines diseases and disorders affecting major organ systems, emphasizing the etiology, clinical manifestations, and progression of illness. Through case studies and real-world examples, students gain an understanding of how pathologic changes impact bodily function, providing a foundation for clinical decision-making and patient care in various health professions. The course bridges concepts of normal anatomy and physiology with common pathologic conditions, equipping learners to critically analyze and respond to various health scenarios.
Recommended Textbook
Understanding Pathophysiology 5th Edition by Sue E. Huether
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1443 Verified Questions
1443 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Cellular Biology
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Sample Questions
Q1) The ion transporter that moves Na? and Ca²? simultaneously in the same direction is an example of which of the following types of transport?
A) Biport
B) Uniport
C) Antiport
D) Symport
Answer: D
Q2) A nurse is instructing the staff about cellular functions.Which cellular function is the nurse describing when an isolated cell absorbs oxygen and uses it to transform nutrients to energy?
A) Metabolic absorption
B) Communication
C) Secretion
D) Respiration
Answer: D
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Genes and Genetic Diseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) When homologous chromosomes fail to separate during meiosis,which of the following occurs?
A) Neurofibromatosis
B) Nondisjunction
C) Polyploidy
D) Conjoined twins
Answer: B
Q2) A DNA strand has a region with the sequence ATCGGAT.Which of the following would be a complementary strand?
A) CGATACGT
B) TAGCCTAG
C) TUGCCTUG
D) UAGCCUAG
Answer: B
Q3) When discussing DNA replication,which enzyme is most important?
A) RNA polymerase
B) Transfer RNA
C) Messenger RNA
D) DNA polymerase
Answer: D
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Chapter 3: Altered Cellular and Tissue Biology
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Sample Questions
Q1) The early dilation (swelling)of the cell's endoplasmic reticulum results in:
A) Increased aerobic metabolism
B) Failure of DNA
C) Reduced protein synthesis
D) Decreased Na<sup>+</sup>-K<sup>+</sup> pump function
Answer: C
Q2) When a nurse observes muscle stiffening occurring within 6 to 14 hours after death,the nurse should document this finding as _____ present.
A) Livor mortis
B) Gangrene
C) Algor mortis
D) Rigor mortis
Answer: D
Q3) A 55-year-old male has swelling of the feet.Which of the following aided in development of swelling?
A) Increased ATP
B) Chloride movement out of the cell
C) Na+ movement into the cell
D) Decreased oncotic pressure
Answer: C
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Chapter 4: Fluids and Electrolytes, Acids and Bases
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 60-year-old female is diagnosed with hyperkalemia.Which assessment finding should the nurse expect to observe?
A) Weak pulse
B) Excessive thirst
C) Oliguria
D) Constipation
Q2) Which finding would support the diagnosis of respiratory acidosis?
A) Vomiting
B) Hyperventilation
C) Pneumonia
D) An increase in noncarbonic acids
Q3) Outcomes of laboratory tests include an elevated level of natriuretic peptides.Which organ is the priority assessment?
A) Lungs
B) Heart
C) Liver
D) Brain
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Chapter 5: Innate Immunity: Inflammation and Wound Healing
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which factor will help the nurse differentiate leukotrienes from histamine?
A) Site of production
B) Vascular effect
C) Chemotactic ability
D) Time of release
Q2) A 54-year-old male intravenous (IV)drug user is diagnosed with chronic hepatitis
C.Testing revealed that he is a candidate for treatment.Which of the following could be used to treat his condition?
A) Interleukin-1
B) Interleukin-6
C) Interleukin-10
D) INFs
Q3) Healing by secondary intention would occur in which of the following patients? A patient with a:
A) Sutured surgical wound
B) Stage IV pressure ulcer
C) Paper cut
D) Sunburn
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Chapter 6: Adaptive Immunity
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Sample Questions
Q1) While planning care for an elderly patient,the nurse remembers that increased age is associated with (select all that apply):
A) Increased T cell function
B) Decreased immune function
C) Increased production of antibodies
D) Decreased numbers of circulating immune complexes
E) Decreased ability to fight infection
Q2) After teaching the students about B cells,which statement indicates teaching was successful? B cells are originally derived from cells of the:
A) Bone marrow
B) Lymph nodes
C) Gut-associated lymphoid tissue
D) Thymus
Q3) A cell that is produced in the thymus and interacts with MHC class II molecules would have which of the following surface proteins?
A) CD4
B) CD8
C) Th1
D) Superantigen
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Page 8
Chapter 7: Infection and Defects in Mechanisms of Defense
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 5-year-old male becomes ill with a severe cough.Histologic examination reveals a bacterial infection,and further laboratory testing reveals cell membrane damage and decreased protein synthesis.Which of the following is the most likely cause of this illness?
A) Endotoxin
B) Exotoxin
C) Hemolysis
D) Septicemia
Q2) A 50-year-old female experiences decreased blood pressure,decreased oxygen delivery,cardiovascular shock,and subsequent death.A complication of endotoxic shock is suspected.Which of the following is the most likely cause?
A) Gram-positive bacteria
B) Fungi
C) Gram-negative bacteria
D) Virus
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Chapter 8: Stress and Disease
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Sample Questions
Q1) When assessing the effects of elevated â-endorphins in a patient,which of the following should the nurse monitor?
A) Peripheral vasoconstriction
B) Hyperglycemia
C) Pain inhibition
D) Decreased immune cell activity
Q2) After teaching about stress,which information indicates a correct understanding of stress?
A) It worsens but does not cause disease.
B) It can be viewed as transactional.
C) It is a psychologic, rather than biologic, event.
D) It is a passive event.
Q3) Stress induces sympathetic stimulation of the adrenal medulla.This causes the secretion of catecholamines,which include:
A) Epinephrine and aldosterone
B) Norepinephrine and cortisol
C) Epinephrine and norepinephrine
D) Cortisol and aldosterone
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Chapter 9: Biology, Clinical Manifestations, and Treatment of Cancer
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient has a tissue growth that was diagnosed as cancer.Which of the following terms best describes this growth?
A) Neoplasm
B) Lipoma
C) Meningioma
D) Hypertrophy
Q2) Which statement indicates the patient has a correct understanding of metastasis? The most common route of metastasis is through the blood vessels and:
A) Lung tissue
B) Body cavities
C) Lymphatics
D) Connective tissues
Q3) A 30-year-old male with HIV is diagnosed with Epstein-Barr virus.After 2 months,the virus is still active.Based upon the Epstein-Barr virus,which of the following cancers is most likely to develop in this patient?
A) B cell lymphoma
B) Kaposi sarcoma
C) T cell leukemia
D) T cell lipoma
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Chapter 10: Cancer Epidemiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 65-year-old male was recently diagnosed with cancer.He is retired from construction work.Which of the following cancers is he likely to develop secondary to occupational hazards?
A) Mesothelioma
B) Bladder cancer
C) Prostate cancer
D) Bone cancer
Q2) A 50-year-old female confirms chronic alcohol intake.This practice places the patient at risk for cancer in which organs? (Select all that apply.)
A) Larynx
B) Esophagus
C) Liver
D) Lung
E) Brain
F) Breast
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Chapter 11: Cancer in Children
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 40-year-old female developed adenocarcinoma of the vagina.Which of the following is the most likely cause of her cancer?
A) Rb gene mutation
B) Prenatal exposure to diethylstilbestrol (DES)
C) Prenatal exposure to solvents
D) Prenatal exposure to radiation
Q2) The most common tissue type of cancer occurring after adolescence is:
A) Sarcoma
B) Squamous cell
C) Carcinoma
D) Neuromas
Q3) A child was recently diagnosed with cancer.The diagnosis suggests it is an embryonic tumor.Which of the following characterizes this type of cancer?
A) Commonly occurring
B) Often seen in adults
C) Composed of mature, differentiated cells
D) Usually manifested around age 5
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Chapter 12: Structure and Function of the Neurologic System
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient presents with altered respiratory patterns following head trauma.Based upon the symptoms,which of the following areas does the nurse suspect is injured?
A) Cerebrum
B) Cerebellum
C) Midbrain
D) Reticular formation
Q2) A 45-year-old male was previously diagnosed with Parkinson disease.He has impaired fine repetitive motor movements.Which of the following areas does the nurse suspect is most likely damaged?
A) Basal ganglia
B) Prefrontal area
C) Hippocampus
D) Temporal lobe
Q3) Which of the following is a neuroglial cell? (Select all that apply.)
A) Astrocyte
B) Oligodendrocyte
C) Neuron
D) Ependymal cell
E) Melanocyte
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Chapter 13: Pain, Temperature, Sleep, and Sensory Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient asks the nurse where nociceptors can be found.How should the nurse respond? One location in which nociceptors can be found is the:
A) Skin
B) Spinal cord
C) Efferent pathways
D) Hypothalamus
Q2) A 50-year-old diabetic patient experiences visual disturbances and decides to visit his primary care provider.After examination,the primary care provider tells the patient that the cells that allow him to see are degenerated.Which of the following structures is most likely damaged?
A) Lens
B) Pupil
C) Cornea
D) Retina
Q3) Which system modulates a patient's perception of pain?
A) Sensory-discriminative system
B) Affective-motivational system
C) Cognitive-evaluative system
D) Reticular-activating system
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Chapter 14: Alterations in Cognitive Systems, Cerebral
Hemodynamics and Motor Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is explaining clinical manifestations of alterations in the extrapyramidal system.The nurse would correctly include (select all that apply):
A) Little or no paralysis of voluntary movement
B) Normal or slightly increased tendon reflexes
C) Positive (present) Babinski
D) Presence of tremor
E) Rigidity in muscle tone
Q2) A compensatory alteration in the diameter of cerebral blood vessels in response to increased intracranial pressure is called:
A) Herniation
B) Vasodilation
C) Autoregulation
D) Amyotrophy
Q3) A neurologists explains that arousal is mediated by the:
A) Cerebral cortex
B) Medulla oblongata
C) Reticular activating system
D) Cingulate gyrus
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Chapter 15: Disorders of the Central and Peripheral Nervous
Systems and the Neuromuscular Junction
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 39-year-old male suffers a severe brain injury when he falls off a building while working.CT scan reveals that he has a basilar skull fracture.Based upon his injuries,what major complication should the nurse observe for in this patient?
A) Hematoma formation
B) Meningeal infection
C) Increased intracranial pressure (ICP)
D) Cognitive deficits
Q2) A 20-year-old male is brought to the emergency room (ER)for treatment of injuries received in a motor vehicle accident.A spinal cord injury is suspected.What two regions should the nurse assess as they are most likely to be damaged?
A) Cervical and thoracic regions
B) Thoracic and lumbar regions
C) Lumbar and sacral regions
D) Cervical and lumbar regions
Q3) _____ are most at risk of spinal cord injury from minor trauma.
A) Infants
B) Men
C) Women
D) The elderly
Page 17
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Chapter 16: Alterations of Neurologic Function in Children
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Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is preparing to teach about brain tumors.Which information should the nurse include? The most common type of brain tumor in children is:
A) Neuroblastoma
B) Astrocytoma
C) Meningioma
D) Glioma
Q2) A 10-year-old male presents with headache and seizures.CT scan reveals a tumor that is located near the optic chiasm.Which of the following is the most likely tumor type?
A) Astrocytoma
B) Craniopharyngioma
C) Ependymoma
D) Medulloblastoma
Q3) A 3-year-old has bacterial meningitis.What should the nurse expect to find on the lab report for the most common cause of this bacterial meningitis?
A) Haemophilus influenzae
B) Neisseria meningitidis
C) Streptococcus pneumonia
D) Escherichia coli
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Chapter 17: Mechanisms of Hormonal Regulation
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Sample Questions
Q1) An endocrinologist isolated a new hormone and found it to be a water-soluble amine.Which of the following is most like this new hormone?
A) Growth hormone (GH)
B) Luteinizing hormone (LH)
C) Antidiuretic hormone (ADH)
D) Epinephrine
Q2) A nurse is teaching a patient about insulin.Which information should the nurse include? Insulin is primarily regulated by:
A) Metabolic rate
B) Serum glucose levels
C) Prostaglandins
D) Enzyme activation
Q3) An aide asks the nurse what activates tyrosine.What is the nurse's best response?
A) GH
B) PRL
C) Insulin
D) Estrogen
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Chapter 18: Alterations of Hormonal Regulation
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Sample Questions
Q1) When a patient wants to know what most commonly causes hypoparathyroidism,how should the nurse reply? It is most commonly caused by:
A) Pituitary hyposecretion
B) Parathyroid adenoma
C) Parathyroid gland injury
D) Hypothalamic inactivity
Q2) A 35-year-old female with Graves disease is admitted to a medical-surgical unit.While the nurse is reviewing the lab tests,which results would the nurse expect to find?
A) High levels of circulating thyroid-stimulating antibodies
B) Ectopic secretion of thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)
C) Low circulating levels of thyroid hormones
D) Increased circulation of iodine
Q3) While planning care for a patient from general anesthesia,which principle should the nurse remember? A side effect of some general anesthetic agents is _____ diabetes insipidus.
A) Neurogenic
B) Nephrogenic
C) Psychogenic
D) Allogenic
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Chapter 19: Structure and Function of the Hematologic System
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Sample Questions
Q1) While reviewing lab results,the nurse recalls the most abundant cells in the blood are:
A) Leukocytes
B) Lymphocytes
C) Erythrocytes
D) Thrombocytes
Q2) Which condition will cause a patient to secrete erythropoietin?
A) Low blood pressure
B) Hypercarbia
C) Inflammation
D) Hypoxia
Q3) Which of the following nutritional components will the nurse encourage a patient to consume as it is needed for erythropoiesis?
A) Cobalamin
B) Vitamin B<sub>1</sub>
C) Vitamin D
D) Zinc
Q4) When an aide asks a nurse how many oxygen molecules can hemoglobin carry,what is the nurse's best response? Hemoglobin molecules carry _____ oxygen molecules.
21
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Chapter 20: Alterations of Hematologic Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Thrombocytopenia may be:
A) Transient or consistent
B) Normal or abnormal
C) Congenital or acquired
D) Active or inactive
Q2) A 21-year-old female was recently diagnosed with iron deficiency anemia.In addition to fatigue and weakness,which of the following clinical signs and symptoms would she most likely exhibit?
A) Hyperactivity
B) Spoon-shaped nails
C) Gait problems
D) Petechiae
Q3) A 50-year-old female is diagnosed with primary thrombocythemia.A nurse would expect the blood smear to reveal _____ platelets.
A) Defective
B) Fragmented
C) Consumed
D) Overproduced
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Chapter 21: Alterations of Hematologic Function in Children
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Sample Questions
Q1) When should the nurse start closely monitoring the patient with sickle cell anemia? If:
A) Oxygen tension is low
B) pH is increased
C) Plasma osmolality is decreased
D) Fever develops
Q2) Which major symptom in a patient with sickle cell anemia indicates to the nurse,the patient is experiencing a vaso-occlusive crisis?
A) Peripheral edema
B) Pain
C) Petechiae
D) An enlarged spleen
Q3) A 1-year-old female is diagnosed with anemia secondary to insufficient erythropoiesis.When the parents asked what caused this,how should the nurse respond? The most likely cause(s)is (are):
A) Genetic factors
B) An iron deficiency
C) A hemoglobin abnormality
D) An erythrocyte structural abnormality
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23
Chapter 22: Structure and Function of the Cardiovascular and Lymphatic Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 65-year-old male is transported to the ER for chest pain.An electrocardiogram reveals a prolonged QRS interval.What is the nurse monitoring when the nurse observes the QRS complex on the electrocardiogram? The QRS complex reflects:
A) Ventricular activity
B) Pulmonary artery closure
C) Mitral valve opening
D) Aortic valve closing
Q2) To help a nursing student differentiate cardiac muscle from skeletal muscle,which characteristic should the nurse use? One difference between cardiac muscle and skeletal muscle is that:
A) Cardiac muscle cells are arranged in branching networks.
B) Skeletal muscle cells have only one nucleus.
C) Cardiac muscle cells appear striped.
D) Skeletal muscle cells contain sarcomeres.
Q3) The nurse is measuring cardiac output in a resting patient.the normal baseline for cardiac output in this patient is _____ L/min.
Q4) A nurse is assessing the heart rate.The nurse obtains a normal heart rate.The average heart rate in a healthy adult is _____ beats per minute.
Page 24
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Chapter 23: Alterations of Cardiovascular Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Individuals with Raynaud disease need to be counseled to avoid which of the following conditions to prevent severe symptoms?
A) Allergic reactions
B) Cold exposure
C) Hot water immersion
D) Tissue injury
Q2) A staff member asks a nurse what foam cells are.What is the nurse's best response? Foam cells in a fatty streak are:
A) Deposited adipose cells
B) Injured neutrophils
C) Macrophages that engulf low-density lipoprotein (LDL)
D) Lipid-laden mast cells
Q3) A 52-year-old female is diagnosed with coronary artery disease.The nurse assesses for myocardial:
A) Hypertrophy
B) Ischemia
C) Necrosis
D) Inflammation
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25
Chapter 24: Alterations of Cardiovascular Function in Children
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Sample Questions
Q1) A newborn develops a murmur and cyanosis shortly after birth.She is diagnosed with pulmonic stenosis (PS)after an echocardiogram revealed narrowing of the pulmonary:
A) Tree
B) Artery
C) Valve orifice
D) Vein
Q2) A 1-month-old infant visits his primary care provider for a well-baby check.Physical exam reveals decreased cardiac output,hypotension,tachycardia,and a loud murmur suggestive of aortic stenosis.Which of the following would be expected with this diagnosis?
A) Atrial dilation
B) Ventricular hypertrophy
C) Atrial rigidity
D) Decreased contractility
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26
Chapter 25: Structure and Function of the Pulmonary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) A consequence of alveolar hypoxia is:
A) Reactive vasodilation
B) Local bronchoconstriction
C) Decreased respiratory rate
D) Pulmonary artery vasoconstriction
Q2) A 42-year-old male was involved in a motor vehicle accident during which he suffered a severe head injury.He died shortly after the accident from loss of respiration.The nurse suspects the area of the brain most likely involved is the:
A) Cerebral cortex
B) Thalamus
C) Basal ganglia
D) Brainstem
Q3) Which principle should the nurse remember while planning care for a patient with a respiratory problem? Under most circumstances,increased work of breathing results in:
A) Increased partial pressure of O<sub>2</sub> in the lungs
B) Increased oxygen consumption
C) Decreased PaCO<sub>2</sub>
D) Alterations in alveolar perfusion
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Chapter 26: Alterations of Pulmonary Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 20-year-old male is in acute pain.An arterial blood gas reveals decreased carbon dioxide (CO<sub>2</sub>)levels.Which of the following does the nurse suspect is the most likely cause?
A) Hyperventilation
B) Hypoventilation
C) Apnea
D) Cyanosis
Q2) A 20-year-old male presents to his primary care provider reporting difficulty breathing when lying down.What term should the nurse use to document this condition?
A) Dyspnea
B) Orthopnea
C) Apnea
D) Tachypnea
Q3) A 10-year-old male is brought to the ER with prolonged bronchospasm and severe hypoxemia.The most likely diagnosis on the chart is:
A) Exercise-induced asthma
B) Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)
C) Status asthmaticus
D) Bronchiectasis
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Chapter 27: Alterations of Pulmonary Function in Children
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 14-year-old male is experiencing an asthma exacerbation.When reviewing the lab results,which of the following cells in the submucosa promote this inflammatory response and will be elevated?
A) Neutrophils
B) Eosinophils
C) Macrophages
D) Lymphocytes
Q2) During a respiratory assessment of an infant with respiratory distress syndrome,a sinking in the supraclavicular and intercostal areas of the thorax was noted with inspiration.This observation is documented as:
A) Grunting
B) Tachypnea
C) Retractions
D) Nasal flaring
Q3) Asthma affects ____% of children between 5 and 17 years of age.
Q4) A nurse remembers bronchiolitis mainly occurs in children under the age of _____.
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Chapter 28: Structure and Function of the Renal and Urologic Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse would chart a patient is experiencing oliguria when a 24-hour urine output is less than ________.
Q2) A nurse is teaching the staff about the kidneys.Which information should the nurse include? The region of the kidneys that contains the glomeruli is the:
A) Medulla
B) Cortex
C) Pyramids
D) Columns
Q3) While planning care for a patient with urinary problems,the nurse recalls that the renin-angiotensin system will be activated by:
A) Increased blood volume
B) Elevated sodium concentrations
C) Decreased blood pressure in the afferent arterioles
D) Renal hypertension
Q4) A nurse recalls the blood vessels of the kidneys are innervated by the:
A) Vagus nerve
B) Sympathetic nervous system
C) Somatic nervous system
D) Parasympathetic nervous system
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Chapter 29: Alterations of Renal and Urinary Tract Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 27-year-old male has a severe kidney obstruction leading to removal of the affected kidney.Which of the following would the nurse expect to occur?
A) Atrophy of the remaining kidney
B) Compensatory hypertrophy of the remaining kidney
C) Dysplasia in the remaining kidney
D) Renal failure
Q2) A 56-year-old male presents with flank pain and polyuria.Tests reveal that he has an enlarged prostate.Which of the following types of renal failure should the nurse monitor for as it is the most likely to occur?
A) Prerenal
B) Intrarenal
C) Extrarenal
D) Postrenal
Q3) A 54-year-old female is diagnosed with nephrotic syndrome.Which of the following is a common symptom of this disease?
A) Hematuria
B) Dysuria
C) Oliguria
D) Proteinuria
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Page 31
Chapter 30: Alterations of Renal and Urinary Tract Function in Children
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Sample Questions
Q1) Upon examination of a male infant,it is determined that the urethral meatus is located on the undersurface of the penis.The nurse will document this condition as:
A) Hypospadias
B) Epispadias
C) Hydroureter
D) Cryptorchidism
Q2) When a newborn is admitted with urinary tract infections (UTIs),which type of infection will the nurse look for in the newborn?
A) Blood-borne infections
B) Infections caused by bacteria from the gastrointestinal (GI) tract
C) Yeast infections
D) Viral infections
Q3) A urologist is discussing nephritic syndrome.Which information should be included? If nephrotic syndrome is not caused initially by kidney disease,it is termed _____ nephrotic syndrome.
A) Primary
B) Secondary
C) Tertiary
D) Idiopathic
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Chapter 31: Structure and Function of the Reproductive Systems
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
37 Verified Questions
37 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/11199
Sample Questions
Q1) When a staff member asks the nurse what the thick middle layer of the uterine wall is called,what is the nurse's best response? The:
A) Epithelial layer
B) Endometrium
C) Myometrium
D) Perimetrium
Q2) When a staff member asks the nurse what is the most potent of the following estrogens,what is the nurse's best response? It is:
A) Estradiol
B) Testosterone
C) Estrone
D) Estriol
Q3) A nurse remembers the LH surge transforms granulosa cells into:
A) Theca cells
B) Corpus luteal cells
C) Ova
D) Fibroblasts
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Chapter 32: Alterations of the Reproductive Systems
Including Sexually Transmitted Infections
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
36 Verified Questions
36 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/11200
Sample Questions
Q1) The patient's medication has a side effect of gynecomastia.The patient asks the nurse to define this term.The nurse would respond that gynecomastia is:
A) Lack of breast development in women
B) Overdevelopment of breast tissue in males
C) A type of breast cancer
D) Inflammation of the mammary glands in lactating women
Q2) A 30-year-old female with newly diagnosed PCOS is being counseled by her OB-GYN.The physician indicates that this condition often results in:
A) Ovarian cancer
B) Infertility
C) Early menopause
D) Pelvic inflammatory disease
Q3) In the majority of cases delayed puberty is due to:
A) A disruption in the hypothalamus
B) A disruption of the pituitary
C) Slow maturation
D) Ambiguity in sex determination
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Chapter 33: Structure and Function of the Digestive System
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/11201
Sample Questions
Q1) The patient asks how the GI system works.The nurse would identify that autonomic and hormonal control are involved in GI motility and:
A) Defecation
B) Swallowing
C) Mastication
D) Digestive enzyme secretion
Q2) Which information indicates the nurse understands digestion? During the cephalic and gastric phases of digestion,gallbladder contraction is mediated by branches of the:
A) Sympathetic nervous system
B) Somatic nervous system
C) Vagus nerve
D) Glossopharyngeal nerve
Q3) For the patient experiencing esophageal reflux,the nurse would expect which sphincter to be malfunctioning?
A) Pyloric
B) Lower esophageal
C) Upper esophageal
D) Gastric
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Chapter 34: Alterations of Digestive Function
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
64 Verified Questions
64 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/11202
Sample Questions
Q1) The cardinal sign of pyloric stenosis caused by ulceration or tumors is:
A) Constipation
B) Diarrhea
C) Vomiting
D) Heartburn
Q2) Which of the following conditions is thought to contribute to the development of obesity?
A) Insulin excess
B) Leptin resistance
C) Adipocyte failure
D) Malabsorption
Q3) A 62-year-old male presents with difficulty swallowing.Tests reveal a loss of esophageal peristalsis and failure of the lower esophageal sphincter to relax.Functional dysphasia is the diagnosis.A history of which of the following could be the most likely cause? (Select all that apply.)
A) Parkinson disease
B) Cerebrovascular accident
C) Achalasia
D) Peptic ulcer disease
E) Pyloric stenosis
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Chapter 35: Alterations of Digestive Function in Children
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
32 Verified Questions
32 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/11203
Sample Questions
Q1) Marasmus is most common in children of which age group?
A) Younger than one
B) 1 to 2 years
C) 5 to 6 years
D) 12 to 15 years
Q2) The primary complication of enterocolitis associated with Hirschsprung disease is related to which finding?
A) Fecal impaction
B) Pancreatic insufficiency
C) Hyperactive peristalsis
D) Ileal atresia
Q3) A 27-year-old male presents with fever,GI bleeding,hepatomegaly,and transient joint pain.He reports that as a child he received blood transfusions following a motor vehicle accident.He also indicates he was vaccinated against hepatitis B.Which of the following types of hepatitis does the clinician think he most likely has?
A) A
B) B
C) C
D) D
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Chapter 36: Structure and Function of the Musculoskeletal System
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
34 Verified Questions
34 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/11204
Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is preparing to teach the staff about bones.Which information should the nurse include? After puberty,the epiphyseal plate calcifies,and the epiphysis and _____ merge.
A) Epiphyseal line
B) Diaphyseal plate
C) Metaphysis
D) Articular cartilage
Q2) A staff member asks a nurse how blood gets to the bone.How should the nurse reply? Blood vessels penetrate to the inner structures of the bone via:
A) Volkmann canals
B) Canaliculi
C) Sharpey fibers
D) Lamellae
Q3) Which statement indicates the nurse has a good understanding of joints? The joints between the teeth and the maxilla or mandible are examples of a:
A) Symphysis
B) Diarthrosis
C) Gomphosis
D) Syndesmosis
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Chapter 37: Alterations of Musculoskeletal Function
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
40 Verified Questions
40 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/11205
Sample Questions
Q1) Researchers now believe that RA is:
A) Curable with antiviral agents
B) An autoimmune disease
C) A complication of rheumatic fever
D) Related superficial joint injury
Q2) To make a diagnosis of fibromyalgia,tenderness must be present in ____ of the 18 points necessary for diagnosis.
Q3) A 32-year-old male was injured in a motor vehicle accident and confined to bed for 3 weeks.During this time,the size and strength of muscle fibers decreased,a condition referred to as:
A) Myodysplasia
B) Ischemic atrophy
C) Disuse atrophy
D) Deconditioning hypoplasia
Q4) The cause of Paget disease is:
A) Fluoride deficiency
B) Unknown at present
C) Excess vitamin A
D) Osteogenic sarcoma
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Chapter 38: Alterations of Musculoskeletal Function in Children
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
22 Verified Questions
22 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/11206
Sample Questions
Q1) A 9-month-old male was diagnosed with OI following recurrent fractures and findings of osteopenia.This disease is caused by errors in the synthesis of:
A) Elastin
B) Glycoproteins
C) Collagen
D) Calcium salts
Q2) The treatment of Osgood-Schlatter disease includes:
A) Steroids
B) Restriction from physical activity
C) High doses of aspirin
D) Knee replacement
Q3) In reviewing the history of the patient with osteosarcoma,the nurse might also expect the patient to have:
A) Rhabdomyosarcoma
B) Ewing sarcoma
C) Fibroma
D) Retinoblastoma
Q4) Incidence of Legg-Calvé-Perthes (LCP)disease peaks at age______.
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Chapter 39: Structure, Function, and Disorders of the Integument
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42 Verified Questions
42 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/11207
Sample Questions
Q1) A 52-year-old female is diagnosed with scleroderma.Which complication leads to ulcer formation?
A) Cutaneous vasculitis
B) Raynaud phenomenon
C) Cellulitis
D) Infection
Q2) In burn injury patients,the rule of nines and the Lund and Browder chart are used to estimate:
A) Depth of burn injury
B) Possibility of infection
C) Degree of systemic involvement
D) Total body surface area burned
Q3) A 20-year-old female presents with vaginal itch and thin-walled pustular lesions.She is diagnosed with candidiasis.This condition is caused by a:
A) Yeast
B) Virus
C) Bacterium
D) Fungus
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Chapter 40: Alterations of the Integument in Children
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
18 Verified Questions
18 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/11208
Sample Questions
Q1) A 5-year-old male is diagnosed with tinea corporis following development of lesions on the non-hairy parts of his face,trunk,and limbs.A common source of this condition is a:
A) Kitten
B) Pet bird
C) Hamster
D) Horse
Q2) Bullous impetigo is caused by a strain of:
A) Staphylococcus aureus
B) Molluscum contagiosum
C) Escherichia coli
D) Candida albicans
Q3) A 4-month-old female develops white spots and shallow ulcers in her mouth.Her pediatrician diagnoses her with thrush.This condition is caused by:
A) Escherichia coli
B) Streptococcal bacteria
C) Candida albicans
D) Staphylococcal bacteria
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