Pathophysiology for Health Professionals
Test Questions
Course Introduction
Pathophysiology for Health Professionals explores the foundational concepts of disease processes and how they alter normal body functions. This course examines the mechanisms underlying common disorders, focusing on the physiological, biochemical, and structural changes that occur in cells, tissues, and organ systems in response to illness or injury. Emphasis is placed on the clinical manifestations of diseases, diagnostic procedures, and the implications for patient care. By understanding the pathophysiological basis of diseases, students gain essential knowledge to interpret symptoms, support clinical reasoning, and participate effectively in health care teams.
Recommended Textbook
Understanding Pathophysiology 5th Edition by Sue E. Huether
Available Study Resources on Quizplus
40 Chapters
1443 Verified Questions
1443 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/594 Page 2
Chapter 1: Cellular Biology
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
38 Verified Questions
38 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/11169
Sample Questions
Q1) Why is potassium able to diffuse easily in and out of cells?
A) Because potassium has a greater concentration in the intracellular fluid (ICF)
B) Because sodium has a greater concentration in the extracellular fluid (ECF)
C) Because the resting plasma membrane is more permeable to potassium
D) Because there is an excess of anions inside the cell
Answer: C
Q2) Which phase of catabolism produces the most ATP?
A) Digestion
B) Glycolysis
C) Oxidation
D) Citric acid cycle
Answer: D
Q3) A runner has depleted all the oxygen available for muscle energy.Which of the following will facilitate his continued muscle performance?
A) Electron-transport chain
B) Aerobic glycolysis
C) Anaerobic glycolysis
D) Oxidative phosphorylation
Answer: C
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 3
Chapter 2: Genes and Genetic Diseases
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
35 Verified Questions
35 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/11170
Sample Questions
Q1) A 50-year-old male was recently diagnosed with Huntington disease.Transmission of this disease is associated with:
A) Penetrance
B) Recurrence risk
C) Expressivity
D) Delayed age of onset
Answer: D
Q2) The regions of the heterogeneous nuclear RNA that must be spliced out to form functional RNA are called:
A) Promoter sites
B) Introns
C) Exons
D) Anticodon
Answer: B
Q3) To express a polygenic trait:
A) Genes must interact with the environment.
B) Several genes must act together.
C) Multiple mutations must occur in the same family.
D) Penetrance must occur.
Answer: B
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 4
Chapter 3: Altered Cellular and Tissue Biology
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
36 Verified Questions
36 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/11171
Sample Questions
Q1) A 55-year-old male with a 30-year history of smoking is examined for respiratory disturbance.Examination of his airway (bronchial)reveals that stratified squamous epithelial cells have replaced the normal columnar ciliated cells.This type of cellular adaptation is called:
A) Anaplasia
B) Hyperplasia
C) Metaplasia
D) Dysplasia
Answer: C
Q2) A 2-year-old swallowed watch batteries.Following ingestion,kidney function was impaired,and the heart began to fail.Which of the following was the most likely cause?
A) Karyorrhexis
B) Coagulative necrosis
C) Ammonia accumulation
D) Caseous necrosis
Answer: B
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
5
Chapter 4: Fluids and Electrolytes, Acids and Bases
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
38 Verified Questions
38 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/11172
Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse recalls regulation of acid-base balance through removal or retention of volatile acids is accomplished by the:
A) Buffer systems
B) Kidneys
C) Lungs
D) Liver
Q2) A 52-year-old diabetic male presents to the ER with lethargy,confusion,and depressed reflexes.His wife indicates that he does not follow the prescribed diet and takes his medication sporadically.Lab results indicate hyperglycemia.Which assessment finding is most likely to occur?
A) Clammy skin
B) Decreased sodium
C) Decreased urine formation
D) Metabolic alkalosis
Q3) Water movement between the ICF and ECF compartments is determined by:
A) Osmotic forces
B) Plasma oncotic pressure
C) Antidiuretic hormone
D) Buffer systems
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 6
Chapter 5: Innate Immunity: Inflammation and Wound Healing
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
40 Verified Questions
40 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/11173
Sample Questions
Q1) A 25-year-old male is in a car accident and sustains a fracture to his left femur with extensive soft tissue injury.The pain associated with the injury is related to:
A) Histamine and serotonin
B) Kinins and prostaglandins
C) Vasoconstriction
D) Immune complex formation
Q2) The predominant phagocyte of early inflammation is the:
A) Eosinophil
B) Neutrophil
C) Lymphocyte
D) Macrophage
Q3) When an aide asks the nurse what is a purpose of the inflammatory process,how should the nurse respond?
A) To provide specific responses toward antigens
B) To lyse cell membranes of microorganisms
C) To prevent infection of the injured tissue
D) To create immunity against subsequent tissue injury
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 7
Chapter 6: Adaptive Immunity
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/11174
Sample Questions
Q1) While planning care for an elderly patient,the nurse remembers that increased age is associated with (select all that apply):
A) Increased T cell function
B) Decreased immune function
C) Increased production of antibodies
D) Decreased numbers of circulating immune complexes
E) Decreased ability to fight infection
Q2) Direct effects of antibodies include (select all that apply):
A) Neutralization
B) Agglutination
C) Precipitation
D) Phagocytosis
E) Division
Q3) A macrophage was isolated and analyzed for major histocompatibility complex.Which of the following would be expected?
A) MHC I only
B) MHC II only
C) MHC I and II
D) Neither MHC I or MHC II
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 8
Chapter 7: Infection and Defects in Mechanisms of Defense
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
45 Verified Questions
45 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/11175
Sample Questions
Q1) While planning care,a nurse recalls seasonal allergic rhinitis is expressed through:
A) IgE-mediated reactions
B) Tissue-specific reactions
C) Antigen-antibody complexes
D) Type II hypersensitivity reactions
Q2) The microorganisms that make up the normal human flora are important for:
A) Regulating inflammation
B) Secreting bacteriostatic substances
C) Activating white blood cells
D) Preventing the colonization and multiplication of pathogens
Q3) A nurse recalls an example of an immune-complex-mediated disease is:
A) Bronchial asthma
B) Contact dermatitis
C) Serum sickness
D) Rheumatoid arthritis
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
9
Chapter 8: Stress and Disease
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
18 Verified Questions
18 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/11176
Sample Questions
Q1) A female student is driving to school when another driver nearly hits her.Her heart begins beating harder and faster as she becomes aroused and scared.Which of the following stages of the general adaptation syndrome is she experiencing?
A) Alarm stage
B) Stage of resistance
C) Adaptation
D) Exhaustion
Q2) Which of the following hormones activates adrenergic receptors?
A) Oxytocin
B) Prolactin
C) Epinephrine
D) Somatotropin
Q3) A nurse recalls stress-induced stimulation of the adrenal cortex causes it to secrete:
A) Estrogen
B) Cortisol
C) Parathyroid hormone
D) Adrenocorticotropin hormone (ACTH)
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 10
Chapter 9: Biology, Clinical Manifestations, and Treatment of Cancer
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
19 Verified Questions
19 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/11177
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient has been researching telomere caps on the Internet.Which statement indicates the patient has a good understanding? Presence of telomere caps gives cancer cells:
A) The ability to divide over and over again
B) Clonal distinction
C) Limited mitosis
D) Mutation abilities
Q2) A 52-year-old male with hepatitis C recently developed hepatic cancer.Which of the following markers should be increased?
A) Alpha-fetoprotein (AFP)
B) Catecholamines
C) Prostate-specific antigen
D) Homovanillic acid
Q3) A 45-year-old female was recently diagnosed with cervical cancer.She reports a sexual history that includes 43 partners.Which of the following is the most likely cause of her cancer?
A) Herpes virus
B) Rubella virus
C) Human papillomavirus (HPV)
D) Hepatitis B virus
Page 11
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 10: Cancer Epidemiology
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
16 Verified Questions
16 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/11178
Sample Questions
Q1) A 25-year-old male nursing student recently learned how diet can alter the chances of developing cancer.He tries to minimize his risks of developing the disease by ordering his steak:
A) Rare
B) Medium
C) Medium-well
D) Well done
Q2) Which of the following patients would be at greatest risk for basal cell carcinoma?
A) Dark complexion, light eyes, underweight
B) Light complexion, dark eyes, overweight
C) Medium complexion, light eyes, smoker
D) Light complexion, light eyes, fair hair
Q3) When an oncologist is teaching about how radiation induces genomic instability,which of the following should the oncologist discuss?
A) Increasing hypersensitivity
B) Facilitating new mutations
C) Promoting cell death
D) Enhancing mitosis
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 12
Chapter 11: Cancer in Children
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/11179
Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is preparing to teach the most common malignancy in children.Which malignancy should the nurse discuss?
A) Leukemia
B) Neuroblastoma
C) Wilms tumor
D) Retinoblastoma
Q2) While planning care for children with cancer,which information should the nurse remember? Most childhood cancers originate from the:
A) Placenta
B) Environment
C) Mesodermal germ layer
D) Neural tube
Q3) A newborn male is born with heart failure.Three weeks later he receives a heart transplant.Which of the following is he at the highest risk for developing?
A) Leukemia
B) Liver cancer
C) Pancreatic cancer
D) Burkitt lymphoma
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
13
Chapter 12: Structure and Function of the Neurologic System
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
42 Verified Questions
42 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/11180
Sample Questions
Q1) When a nurse is teaching about the transverse fiber tract that connects the two cerebral hemispheres,what term should the nurse use?
A) Peduncle
B) Corpus callosum
C) Basal ganglia
D) Pons
Q2) A neurologist is teaching the staff about motor neurons.Which information should be included? Motor neurons are structurally classified as _____ neurons.
A) Unipolar
B) Pseudounipolar
C) Bipolar
D) Multipolar
Q3) Which action will occur when a patient's â-1 receptors are stimulated?
A) Dilation of the coronary arteries
B) Vasoconstriction of arteries
C) Increase in the strength of myocardial contraction
D) Decrease in the rate of myocardial contraction
Q4) When a patient wants to know how many vertebrae make up the vertebral column,the nurse responds with _____.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 14
Chapter 13: Pain, Temperature, Sleep, and Sensory Function
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
40 Verified Questions
40 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/11181
Sample Questions
Q1) Which finding indicates the patient is having complications from heat stroke?
A) Mild elevation of core body temperatures
B) Cerebral edema and degeneration of the CNS
C) Spasmodic cramping in the abdomen and extremities
D) Alterations in calcium uptake
Q2) A patient asks when most dreams occur.What is the nurse's best response? Most dreams occur during _____ sleep.
A) Non-REM
B) Alpha wave
C) REM
D) Delta wave
Q3) When a patient has a fever,which of the following thermoregulatory mechanisms is activated?
A) The body's thermostat is adjusted to a lower temperature.
B) Temperature is raised above the set point.
C) Bacteria directly stimulate peripheral thermogenesis.
D) The body's thermostat is reset to a higher level.
Q4) Fever of unknown origin (FUO)is characterized by a fever of ____° F or greater
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 15
Chapter 14: Alterations in Cognitive Systems, Cerebral
Hemodynamics and Motor Function
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
37 Verified Questions
37 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/11182
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is explaining clinical manifestations of alterations in the extrapyramidal system.The nurse would correctly include (select all that apply):
A) Little or no paralysis of voluntary movement
B) Normal or slightly increased tendon reflexes
C) Positive (present) Babinski
D) Presence of tremor
E) Rigidity in muscle tone
Q2) A 50-year-old male suffers a severe head injury when his motorcycle hits a tree.His breathing becomes deep and rapid but with normal pattern.What term should the nurse use for this condition?
A) Gasping
B) Ataxic breathing
C) Apneusis
D) Central neurogenic hyperventilation
Q3) A neurologists explains that arousal is mediated by the:
A) Cerebral cortex
B) Medulla oblongata
C) Reticular activating system
D) Cingulate gyrus
16
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 15: Disorders of the Central and Peripheral Nervous
Systems and the Neuromuscular Junction
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
48 Verified Questions
48 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/11183
Sample Questions
Q1) A 33-year-old male is brought to the ER for treatment of injuries received in a motor vehicle accident.An MRI reveals an injury of the cervical cord.Cord swelling in this region may be life threatening because:
A) Increased ICP may occur.
B) Reflexes will be disrupted.
C) Diaphragm function may be impaired.
D) Bladder emptying will not occur.
Q2) A patient is admitted with amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS).Which classic assessment findings will support the diagnosis of ALS?
A) Progressive dementia
B) Muscle weakness and atrophy
C) Severe paresthesias
D) Autonomic dysfunctions
Q3) Patients with myasthenia gravis often have tumors or pathologic changes in the:
A) Brain
B) Pancreas
C) Thymus
D) Lungs
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 17
Chapter 16: Alterations of Neurologic Function in Children
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
31 Verified Questions
31 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/11184
Sample Questions
Q1) The percent of retinoblastomas that are inherited as an autosomal dominant trait is ____%.
Q2) To prevent Reye syndrome in infants,which of the following instructions should the nurse give to parents?
A) Breast-feed infants as long as possible.
B) Treat fevers with acetaminophen, not aspirin.
C) Lock up hazardous cleaning agents.
D) Remove lead paint from the home.
Q3) When a nurse is asked where the most common location of brain tumors in children is found,how should the nurse respond?
A) In the area always above the cerebellum
B) In the posterior fossa
C) In the cerebrum
D) In the ventricular lining
Q4) A nurse recalls the most frequent location of a neuroblastoma is:
A) Retroperitoneal region
B) Mediastinum
C) Cervical ganglion
D) Lung
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 18
Chapter 17: Mechanisms of Hormonal Regulation
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
36 Verified Questions
36 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/11185
Sample Questions
Q1) If a patient had a problem with the adrenal medulla,which of the following hormones should the nurse monitor?
A) Cortisol
B) Epinephrine
C) Androgens
D) Estrogens
Q2) When insulin binds to its receptors on muscle cells,an increase in glucose uptake by the muscle cells occurs.This is an example of a _____ effect by a hormone.
A) Pharmacologic
B) Permissive
C) Biphasic
D) Direct
Q3) A nurse is teaching staff about protein hormones.Which information should the nurse include? One of the protein hormones is:
A) Thyroxine (T<sub>4</sub>)
B) Aldosterone
C) Testosterone
D) Insulin
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
19
Chapter 18: Alterations of Hormonal Regulation
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
51 Verified Questions
51 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/11186
Sample Questions
Q1) A 45-year-old female with Graves disease underwent surgical removal of her thyroid gland.During the postoperative period,her serum calcium was low.The most probable reason for her low serum calcium is:
A) Hyperparathyroidism secondary to Graves disease
B) Myxedema secondary to surgery
C) Hypoparathyroidism caused by surgical injury to the parathyroid glands
D) Hypothyroidism resulting from lack of thyroid replacement
Q2) What problem should the nurse assess for in a patient with chronic hyperparathyroidism?
A) Seizure disorders
B) Vitamin D malabsorption
C) Hyponatremia
D) Osteoporosis and pathologic fractures
Q3) A 50-year-old male patient presents with polyuria and extreme thirst.He was given exogenous ADH.For which of the following conditions would this treatment be effective?
A) Neurogenic diabetes insipidus
B) Psychogenic diabetes insipidus
C) Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus
D) SIADH
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 20
Chapter 19: Structure and Function of the Hematologic System
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/11187
Sample Questions
Q1) An unstable type of hemoglobin that cannot bind with oxygen is termed:
A) Deoxyhemoglobin
B) Oxyhemoglobin
C) Methemoglobin
D) Glycosylated hemoglobin
Q2) When an aide asks a nurse how many oxygen molecules can hemoglobin carry,what is the nurse's best response? Hemoglobin molecules carry _____ oxygen molecules.
Q3) A nurse is discussing a cell that can differentiate into any tissue type.Which term is the nurse describing?
A) Hematopoietic
B) Pluripotent
C) Blastocyst
D) Progenitor
Q4) While reviewing lab results,the nurse recalls the most abundant cells in the blood are:
A) Leukocytes
B) Lymphocytes
C) Erythrocytes
D) Thrombocytes
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 21
Chapter 20: Alterations of Hematologic Function
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
63 Verified Questions
63 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/11188
Sample Questions
Q1) A 35-year-old male has enlarged lymph nodes in the neck and a mediastinal mass.He was diagnosed with Hodgkin lymphoma.Which of the following abnormal cells would the nurse expect to find with this disease?
A) Merkel cell
B) Schwann cell
C) Reed-Sternberg cell
D) Kupffer cell
Q2) A 70-year-old male is brought to the emergency department,where he dies shortly thereafter.Autopsy reveals polycythemia vera (PV).His death was most likely the result of:
A) Acute renal failure
B) Cerebral thrombosis
C) Sepsis
D) Acute leukemia
Q3) How should the nurse prepare a patient who is to receive a Schilling test for pernicious anemia?
A) Administer radioactive cobalamin and measure its excretion in the urine.
B) Measure antigen-antibody immune complexes.
C) Measure serum ferritin and total iron-binding capacity.
D) Administer folate and evaluate folate content in a blood serum sample.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 22
Chapter 21: Alterations of Hematologic Function in Children
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
33 Verified Questions
33 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/11189
Sample Questions
Q1) A 1-year-old is diagnosed with idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP).The nurse assesses for the most serious concern,which is development of:
A) Respiratory infection
B) Asymmetric bruising
C) Intracranial bleeding
D) Immunosuppression
Q2) A 16-month-old female presents with tachycardia,pallor,anorexia,and systolic murmur.The nurse is checking the lab results,and the hemoglobin determination indicates a level below _____ g/dL.
A) 5
B) 7
C) 10
D) 14
Q3) If an infant has hydrops fetalis,which type of thalassemia does the nurse suspect?
A) Beta minor
B) Beta major
C) Alpha minor
D) Alpha major
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
23
Chapter 22: Structure and Function of the Cardiovascular and Lymphatic Systems
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
50 Verified Questions
50 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/11190
Sample Questions
Q1) The thoracic lymphatic duct drains into the:
A) Left subclavian artery
B) Right atrium
C) Right subclavian vein
D) Left subclavian vein
Q2) A nurse recalls the chamber that receives blood from the systemic circulation is the:
A) Right atrium
B) Right ventricle
C) Left atrium
D) Left ventricle
Q3) While viewing the electrocardiogram,the nurse recalls the _____ conducts action potentials down the atrioventricular septum.
A) Bachmann bundle
B) Bundle of His
C) Sinoatrial node
D) Atrioventricular node
Q4) The nurse is measuring cardiac output in a resting patient.the normal baseline for cardiac output in this patient is _____ L/min.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 24
Chapter 23: Alterations of Cardiovascular Function
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
78 Verified Questions
78 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/11191
Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse monitors the patient for _____ when rapid onset of malignant hypertension results.
A) Atherosclerosis
B) Encephalopathy
C) Pulmonary edema
D) Acute renal failure
Q2) Which of the following lab tests will the nurse check to help diagnose heart failure and provide insight into its severity?
A) Renin level
B) Brain natriuretic
C) Potassium
D) Troponin
Q3) A 32-year-old female presents with lower leg pain,with swelling and redness.While obtaining the patient's history,which finding could have caused her condition?
A) Venous thrombus
B) Heart valve damage
C) Bacterial infection
D) Atherosclerosis
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
25
Chapter 24: Alterations of Cardiovascular Function in Children
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
24 Verified Questions
24 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/11192
Sample Questions
Q1) A 5-year-old female is found to have hypertension during three separate visits to her primary care provider.The nurse would expect tests to suggest that the hypertension is secondary to:
A) Renal disease
B) Brain tumor
C) Hypocalcemia
D) Hyponatremia
Q2) A 2-week-old infant presents with poor feeding,fatigue,dyspnea,and a murmur.She is diagnosed with a patent ductus arteriosus (PDA).A nurse recalls this condition results in a(n):
A) Decreased pulmonary blood flow
B) Right-to-left shunt
C) Left-to-right shunt
D) Increased systemic blood flow
Q3) Which is the most common type of congenital heart defect the nurse should assess for in infants?
A) Atrial septal defect (ASD)
B) Ventricular septal defect (VSD)
C) Tetralogy of Fallot
D) Atrioventricular canal defect
Page 26
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 25: Structure and Function of the Pulmonary System
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
35 Verified Questions
35 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/11193
Sample Questions
Q1) The pressure required to inflate an alveolus is inversely related to:
A) Wall thickness
B) Surface tension
C) Minute volume
D) Alveolar radius
Q2) The nurse is describing the movement of blood into and out of the capillary beds of the lungs to the body organs and tissues.What term should the nurse use to describe this process?
A) Perfusion
B) Ventilation
C) Diffusion
D) Circulation
Q3) A nurse is teaching staff about the respiratory bronchi.Which information should the nurse include? __________ may be found in the walls of the respiratory bronchi?
(Select all that apply,)
A) Smooth muscle
B) Surfactant-producing glands
C) Goblet cells
D) Ciliated cells
E) Epithelial lining
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 27
Chapter 26: Alterations of Pulmonary Function
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
54 Verified Questions
54 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/11194
Sample Questions
Q1) A 50-year-old male is diagnosed with pulmonary embolism (PE).Which of the following symptoms most likely occurred before treatment?
A) Dry cough and inspiratory crackles
B) Shallow respirations and wheezing
C) Chest pain and shortness of breath
D) Kussmaul respirations and back pain
Q2) A 50-year-old male presents with hypotension,hypoxemia,and tracheal deviation to the left.Tests reveal that the air pressure in the pleural cavity exceeds barometric pressure in the atmosphere.Based upon these assessment findings,what does the nurse suspect the patient is experiencing?
A) Pleural effusion
B) Tension pneumothorax
C) Open pneumothorax
D) Transudative pneumothorax
Q3) A nurse recalls asthma is classified by:
A) Pathophysiologic differences
B) Clinical severity
C) Genetic traits
D) Treatment outcomes
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 28
Chapter 27: Alterations of Pulmonary Function in Children
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
29 Verified Questions
29 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/11195
Sample Questions
Q1) A newborn has respiratory distress syndrome (RDS).The nurse reports this condition appeared:
A) Within minutes of birth
B) 2 to 3 hours after birth
C) Within the first 12 to 24 hours after birth
D) 24 to 48 hours after exposure to an infectious organism
Q2) A 2-year-old female fell in a swimming pool and nearly drowned.She then developed acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS).Which of the following should the nurse assess the patient for?
A) Decreased heart rate
B) Increased lung compliance
C) Increased surfactant production
D) Hypoxemia
Q3) A newborn has respiratory distress syndrome.A nurse recalls cardiovascular alterations seen in respiratory distress syndrome include:
A) Left-to-right shunt
B) Left ventricular dilation
C) Pulmonary hypotension
D) Opening of fetal shunt pathways
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 29
Chapter 28: Structure and Function of the Renal and Urologic Systems
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
32 Verified Questions
32 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/11196
Sample Questions
Q1) When a staff member asks how the urine gets from the nephrons to the calyces,what is the nurse's best response? The renal structure that drains directly into the calyces is (are)the (select all that apply):
A) Distal tubule
B) Collecting duct
C) Pyramid
D) Renal pelvis
E) Loop of Henle
Q2) The urologist is teaching about the nephrons that determine the concentration of the urine.The urologist is discussing the _____ nephrons.
A) Juxtamedullary
B) Midcortical
C) Cortical
D) Medullary
Q3) On average the kidneys receive approximately _____ of the cardiac output.
A) 10% to 14%
B) 15% to 19%
C) 20% to 25%
D) 26% to 35%
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 29: Alterations of Renal and Urinary Tract Function
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/11197
Sample Questions
Q1) While turning a patient with chronic renal failure,which principle should the nurse recall? Bone fractures are a risk factor in chronic renal failure because:
A) Calcium is lost in the urine.
B) Osteoblast activity is excessive.
C) The kidneys fail to activate vitamin D.
D) Autoantibodies to calcium molecules develop.
Q2) A 54-year-old female is diagnosed with nephrotic syndrome.Which of the following is a common symptom of this disease?
A) Hematuria
B) Dysuria
C) Oliguria
D) Proteinuria
Q3) A 35-year-old female was severely burned and is hospitalized.She is now suffering from acute tubular necrosis (ATN).Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis the nurse will observe on the chart?
A) Prerenal
B) Intrarenal
C) Extrarenal
D) Postrenal
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 31
Chapter 30: Alterations of Renal and Urinary Tract Function in Children
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/11198
Sample Questions
Q1) A 4-year-old male is diagnosed with nephrotic syndrome.Which of the following assessment findings accompanies this condition?
A) Proteinuria
B) Decreased blood urea nitrogen (BUN)
C) Hematuria
D) Sodium loss
Q2) A 15-year-old female presents with flank pain,irritability,malaise,and fever.Tests reveal glomerulonephritis.When the parents ask what could have caused this,how should the nurse respond?
A) Poststreptococcal infection
B) Nephropathy
C) Nephrotic syndrome
D) Potter syndrome
Q3) A 7-year-old female is diagnosed with nephrotic syndrome.Which of the following should the nurse ask the parents if they or the child has noticed recently?
A) Sunken fontanelles
B) Vesicular skin rash
C) Frothy urine
D) Jaundice
Page 32
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 31: Structure and Function of the Reproductive Systems
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
37 Verified Questions
37 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/11199
Sample Questions
Q1) When discussing the difference between male and female sex hormones,which information should the nurse include? The major difference between male and female sex hormone production is that:
A) LH has no apparent action in the male.
B) Sex hormone production in the male is relatively constant.
C) Estrogen is not produced in the male.
D) In the male, GnRH does not cause the release of FSH.
Q2) A nurse is teaching about female hormones.Which information should the nurse include? Endometrial thickening during the proliferative phase is stimulated by increased levels of:
A) Estrogen
B) Progesterone
C) FSH
D) Inhibin
Q3) What term should the nurse use when discussing male sex hormones collectively?
A) Gonadotropins
B) Testosterones
C) Catabolic steroids
D) Androgens
33
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 32: Alterations of the Reproductive Systems
Including Sexually Transmitted Infections
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
36 Verified Questions
36 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/11200
Sample Questions
Q1) A 68-year-old male presents complaining of difficulty having sexual intercourse.He reports that his penis curves during erection.This condition is referred to as:
A) Phimosis
B) Cryptorchidism
C) Paraphimosis
D) Peyronie disease
Q2) A 20-year-old female presents with pelvic and back pain severe enough to miss work.She reports that the pain occurs with the onset of menses.Physical examination fails to find pelvic pathology.The most likely cause of her condition is:
A) Lack of estrogen
B) Stress
C) Elevated prostaglandins
D) Poor nutrition
Q3) The nurse would anticipate the treatment for pelvic organ prolapse to be:
A) Insertion of a urinary catheter
B) A pessary
C) Dietary fiber
D) Urinary antispasmodics
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 34
Chapter 33: Structure and Function of the Digestive System
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/11201
Sample Questions
Q1) Which sphincter,when it relaxes,allows bile to flow into the duodenum?
A) Pyloric sphincter
B) Sphincter of Oddi
C) Ampulla of Vater
D) Ileocecal valve
Q2) In the liver,free bilirubin moves from the plasma in the sinusoids into the hepatocytes,where it is converted into:
A) Unconjugated bilirubin
B) Biliverdin
C) Conjugated bilirubin
D) Urobilinogen
Q3) The pancreas produces which substance to prevent the premature activation of proteolytic enzymes in the pancreas?
A) Bicarbonate
B) Carboxypeptidase
C) Secretin
D) Trypsin inhibitor
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 34: Alterations of Digestive Function
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
64 Verified Questions
64 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/11202
Sample Questions
Q1) The most common clinical manifestation of portal hypertension is _____ bleeding.
A) Rectal
B) Duodenal
C) Esophageal
D) Intestinal
Q2) A 10-month-old is brought to the pediatrician by the mother who states the baby has been experiencing colicky pain followed by vomiting,sweating,nausea,and irritability.Testing reveals a condition in which one part of the intestine telescopes into another.From which type of intestinal obstruction is he suffering?
A) Hernia
B) Ileus
C) Torsion
D) Intussusception
Q3) A 40-year-old male develops an intestinal obstruction related to protrusion of the intestine through the inguinal ring.This condition is referred to as:
A) Intussusception
B) A volvulus
C) A hernia
D) Adhesions
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 36
Chapter 35: Alterations of Digestive Function in Children
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
32 Verified Questions
32 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/11203
Sample Questions
Q1) The family learns that a 3D ultrasound of a 9-week fetus shows incomplete fusion of the nasomedial or intermaxillary process.The family will be told that the child will be born with:
A) Cleft lip
B) Nasal passage atresia
C) Esophageal atresia
D) Lack of dentition
Q2) A newborn male is diagnosed with cleft palate.The pediatrician counsels the parents that complications of cleft palate include (select all that apply):
A) Tonsil hypertrophy
B) Recurrent paranasal infections
C) Difficulty breathing
D) Excessive dental decay
E) Hearing loss
Q3) Meconium ileus is associated with which of the following disorders?
A) Pyloric stenosis
B) Esophageal atresia
C) Cystic fibrosis
D) Esophagitis
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 36: Structure and Function of the Musculoskeletal System
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
34 Verified Questions
34 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/11204
Sample Questions
Q1) A clinician is preparing to teach about bone matrix.Which information should be included? The component of the bone matrix that gives bone tensile strength is:
A) Calcium
B) Phosphate
C) Collagen
D) Magnesium
Q2) Which of the following should the nurse include when discussing the different types of cartilaginous joints?
A) Sutures and gomphosis
B) Syndesmosis and gomphosis
C) Symphysis and synchondrosis
D) Gomphosis and synchondrosis
Q3) A nursing student wants to know during which stage actin binds to myosin.What is the nurse's best response? During:
A) Coupling
B) Relaxation
C) Discharging
D) Excitation
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 38
Chapter 37: Alterations of Musculoskeletal Function
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
40 Verified Questions
40 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/11205
Sample Questions
Q1) A 36-year-old male complains of pain and weakness in the elbow.He reports that he is a warehouse worker and lifts boxes daily.MRI reveals inflammation of the tendon where it attaches to bone.This condition is called:
A) Periostitis
B) Muscle strain
C) Bursitis
D) Epicondylopathy
Q2) A malignant tumor of striated muscle tissue origin is called:
A) Myelogenic tumor
B) Giant cell tumor
C) Rhabdomyosarcoma
D) Rhabdomyoma
Q3) A 76-year-old female was diagnosed with osteoporosis by radiologic exam.She is at high risk for:
A) Bone infections
B) Joint injuries
C) Pathologic bone fractures
D) Ssteomalacia
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 38: Alterations of Musculoskeletal Function in Children
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
22 Verified Questions
22 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/11206
Sample Questions
Q1) A 5-year-old female was diagnosed with seropositive juvenile rheumatoid arthritis (RA).The treatment option for this disease is termed:
A) Supportive
B) Curative
C) Antibacterial
D) Experimental
Q2) Polyarthritis is a type of juvenile arthritis in which more than _____ joints are affected
Q3) Children with OI suffer from frequent:
A) Bone fractures
B) Dislocations
C) Bone infections
D) Joint injuries
Q4) While performing an assessment of a 2-month-old,the nurse notes a positive Ortolani click.The nurse would suspect the child has:
A) A hip fracture
B) Hip dysplasia
C) Osteogenesis imperfecta
D) Osteomyelitis
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 39: Structure, Function, and Disorders of the Integument
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
42 Verified Questions
42 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/11207
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following burns is most painful?
A) First degree
B) Superficial partial-thickness
C) Deep partial-thickness
D) Third degree
Q2) A 25-year-old paralyzed male develops a dermal pressure ulcer.When assessing the patient's skin,which finding is the first indication of this ulcer?
A) Redness
B) Whiteness
C) Indurations
D) Ulceration
Q3) A 19-year-old female developed a circular,demarcated,and salmon-pink lesion.Two weeks later she developed more lesions over the trunk and upper part of the extremities.The diagnosis is pityriasis rosea,and the nurse knows the disorder is caused by a:
A) Parasite
B) Virus
C) Bacteria
D) Fungus
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 40: Alterations of the Integument in Children
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
18 Verified Questions
18 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/11208
Sample Questions
Q1) A 5-year-old female develops chickenpox after exposure at her day care center.This disease is caused by:
A) A pox virus
B) A herpes virus
C) An adenovirus
D) HPV
Q2) A 10-year-old female from east Africa presents with vesicles consistent with vesicular impetigo.Which of the following is the most likely cause of her condition?
A) Herpes virus
B) Candida albicans
C) Streptococcus pyogenes
D) Human papillomavirus (HPV)
Q3) Bullous impetigo is caused by a strain of:
A) Staphylococcus aureus
B) Molluscum contagiosum
C) Escherichia coli
D) Candida albicans
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
42