Pathophysiology for Allied Health Study Guide Questions
Course Introduction
Pathophysiology for Allied Health explores the physiological processes underlying common diseases and disorders, emphasizing how altered body functions affect health across the lifespan. Students will examine the mechanisms that disrupt normal cell, tissue, and organ activity, integrating foundational knowledge of human anatomy and physiology with the study of disease etiology, progression, and clinical manifestations. The course prepares allied health students to understand diagnostic findings and therapeutic interventions, fostering critical thinking skills essential for effective patient care.
Recommended Textbook
Understanding Pathophysiology 6th Edition by Huether
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42 Chapters
1238 Verified Questions
1238 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Cellular Biology
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31 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The ion transporter that moves Na<sup>+</sup> and Ca²<sup>+</sup> simultaneously in the same direction is an example of which of the following types of transport?
A) Biport
B) Uniport
C) Antiport
D) Symport
Answer: D
Q2) A biopsy of the lung bronchi revealed ciliated epithelial cells that are capable of secretion and absorption.These cells are called _____ columnar epithelium.
A) simple
B) ciliated simple
C) stratified
D) pseudostratified ciliated
Answer: B
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Chapter 2: Genes and Genetic Diseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) What type of mutation does not change the amino acid sequence and thus has no observable consequence?
A) Frameshift
B) Spontaneous
C) Silent
D) Missense
Answer: C
Q2) A cell that does not contain a multiple of 23 chromosomes is called a _____ cell.
A) diploid
B) euploid
C) polyploid
D) haploid
Answer: C
Q3) When discussing DNA replication, which enzyme is most important?
A) RNA polymerase
B) Transfer RNA
C) Messenger RNA
D) DNA polymerase
Answer: D
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Epigenetics and Disease
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Sample Questions
Q1) Mutations in the encoding of histone-modifying proteins have been shown to influence the development of what congenial condition?
A) Cleft palate
B) Acephalous
C) Heart disease
D) Webbed digits
Answer: C
Q2) During which stage of human development does the role of epigenetics have the greatest impact on the development of epigenetic abnormalities?
A) Infancy
B) Puberty
C) In utero
D) Middle age
Answer: C
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Altered Cellular and Tissue Biology
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 40-year-old female's Pap smear indicates abnormal changes in the shape and organization of cervical cells.Which term would be used to identify this type of change?
A) Metaplasia
B) Atrophy
C) Hypertrophy
D) Dysplasia
Q2) A 55-year-old male with a 30-year history of smoking is examined for respiratory disturbance.Examination of his airway (bronchial)reveals that stratified squamous epithelial cells have replaced the normal columnar ciliated cells.This type of cellular adaptation is called:
A) anaplasia.
B) hyperplasia.
C) metaplasia.
D) dysplasia.
Q3) Sodium and water accumulation in an injured cell are a direct result of:
A) decreased ATP production.
B) karyorrhexis.
C) ribosome detachment.
D) dehydration.
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Chapter 5: Fluids and Electrolytes, Acids and Bases
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Sample Questions
Q1) When planning care for a dehydrated patient, the nurse remembers that the principle of water balance is closely related to the balance of:
A) potassium.
B) chloride.
C) bicarbonate.
D) sodium.
Q2) A nurse recalls that regulation of acid-base balance through removal or retention of volatile acids is accomplished by the:
A) buffer systems.
B) skin.
C) lungs.
D) liver.
Q3) A 70-year-old male with chronic renal failure presents with edema.Which of the following is the most likely cause of this condition?
A) Increased capillary oncotic pressure.
B) Decreased interstitial oncotic pressure.
C) Increased capillary hydrostatic pressure.
D) Increased interstitial hydrostatic pressure.
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7
Chapter 6: Innate Immunity: Inflammation and Wound Healing
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 20-year-old male shoots his hand with a nail gun while replacing roofing shingles.Which of the following cell types would be the first to aid in killing bacteria to prevent infection in his hand?
A) Eosinophils
B) Neutrophils
C) Leukotrienes
D) Monocytes
Q2) A nurse is preparing to teach on the subject of opsonins.Which information should the nurse include? Opsonins are molecules that:
A) are composed of fatty acids.
B) regulate inflammation.
C) degranulate mast cells.
D) enhance phagocytosis.
Q3) When an aide asks the nurse about the purpose of the inflammatory process, how should the nurse respond?
A) To provide specific responses toward antigens.
B) To lyse cell membranes of microorganisms.
C) To prevent infection of the injured tissue.
D) To create immunity against subsequent tissue injury.
Page 8
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Chapter 7: Adaptive Immunity
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 6-year-old female is diagnosed with a bacterial infection of the respiratory system.Which of the following will most likely try to fight the antigen?
A) Antibodies
B) Cytotoxic T cells
C) Self-antigens
D) Helper T cells
Q2) When a patient asks about secondary lymph organs, how should the nurse respond?
Secondary lymph organs include: (select all that apply)
A) the spleen.
B) Peyer patches.
C) adenoids.
D) the liver.
E) bone marrow.
F) the appendix.
Q3) The predominant antibody of a typical primary immune response is:
A) IgG.
B) IgM.
C) IgA.
D) IgE.
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Page 9
Chapter 8: Infection and Defects in Mechanisms of Defense
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 30-year-old female complains of fatigue, arthritis, rash, and changes in urine color.Laboratory testing reveals anemia, lymphopenia, and kidney inflammation.Assuming a diagnosis of SLE, which of the following is also likely to be present?
A) Anti-LE antibodies
B) Autoantibodies
C) Antiherpes antibodies
D) Anti-CMV antibodies
Q2) A 30-year-old female is diagnosed with systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE).Which symptoms are a result of a type II hypersensitivity?
A) Anemia
B) Seizures
C) Lymphopenia
D) Facial rash
E) Photosensitivity
Q3) A nurse recalls bacteria become resistant to antimicrobials by:
A) proliferation.
B) attenuation.
C) specialization.
D) mutation.
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Chapter 9: Stress and Disease
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Sample Questions
Q1) After teaching about coping, which information indicates a correct understanding? Coping is best defined as the process of:
A) adjusting to disease.
B) preventing psychological distress.
C) mediating anger.
D) managing stressful challenges.
Q2) When a patient uses repression to deal with psychological stress, which of the following assessment findings should the nurse monitor for? (select all that apply)
A) Decreased monocyte counts
B) Increased eosinophil counts
C) Decreased serum glucose
D) Increased pulse rates
E) Increased medication reactions
Q3) Exhaustion occurs if stress continues and _____ is not successful.
A) flight or fight response
B) alarm
C) adaptation
D) arousal
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Chapter 10: Biology, Clinical Manifestations, and Treatment of Cancer
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 30-year-old male with HIV is diagnosed with Epstein-Barr virus.After 2 months, the virus is still active.Based upon the Epstein-Barr virus, which of the following cancers is most likely to develop in this patient?
A) B-cell lymphoma
B) Kaposi sarcoma
C) T-cell leukemia
D) T-cell lipoma
Q2) Which information should the nurse include when teaching about angiogenic factors? In cancer, angiogenic factors stimulate:
A) release of growth factors.
B) tumor regression.
C) apoptosis.
D) new blood vessel growth.
Q3) A patient has a tissue growth that was diagnosed as cancer.Which of the following terms best describes this growth?
A) Malignant tumor
B) Lipoma
C) Meningioma
D) Hypertrophy
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Chapter 11: Cancer Epidemiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) A water test recently revealed arsenic levels above 200 mcg/L.Which of the following cancers would be most likely to develop in those who consistently drank the water?
A) Liver
B) Skin
C) Colon
D) Kidney
Q2) A patient develops skin cancer on the head and neck following years of sunbathing.Which of the following cancers is most likely?
A) Lymphoma
B) Adenoma
C) Basal cell carcinoma
D) Leukemia
Q3) The most important environmental risk factor for cancer is exposure to:
A) ultraviolet (UV) radiation.
B) radon.
C) estrogen.
D) cigarette smoke.
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Page 13
Chapter 12: Cancer in Children
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Sample Questions
Q1) When an aide asks why carcinomas rarely occur in childhood, how should the nurse respond? (select all that apply)
A) Carcinomas cannot develop in an immunosuppressed environment.
B) Carcinomas need a long time from exposure to occurrence.
C) Carcinomas are due to environmental exposures.
D) Carcinomas occur primarily in secondary sexual organs.
E) Carcinomas are mesodermal.
Q2) A 16-year-old with aspirations of becoming a bodybuilder spends 3 hours a day in the gym.Five years later a hepatocellular carcinoma is discovered.Which of the following is the most likely cause of the cancer?
A) Immunosuppressive agents
B) Cytotoxic agents
C) Anabolic steroids
D) A viral infection
Q3) What is the origin of most childhood cancers?
A) Placenta
B) Environment
C) Mesodermal germ layer
D) Neural tube
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Page 14
Chapter 13: Structure and Function of the Neurologic System
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39 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A neurologist is teaching about sensory pathways.Which information should the neurologist include? Sensory pathways in the spinal cord to the thalamus are included in the:
A) corticospinal tract.
B) pyramids.
C) spinothalamic tract.
D) anterior column.
Q2) A nurse is teaching about the area of the spinal cord that contains cell bodies involved in the autonomic nervous system.Which of the following areas is the nurse discussing?
A) Anterior horn
B) Ventral horn
C) Lateral horn
D) Dorsal horn
Q3) Where is the primary visual cortex of the brain located?
A) Frontal lobe
B) Temporal lobe
C) Occipital lobe
D) Parietal lobe
Page 15
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Chapter 14: Pain, Temperature, Sleep, and Sensory Function
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37 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) For evaporation to function effectively as a means of dissipating excess body heat, which one of the following conditions must be present?
A) Moisture
B) Fever
C) Pyrogens
D) Trauma
Q2) Which group of people is most prone to color blindness?
A) Males
B) Females
C) Elderly persons
D) Children
Q3) A young child presents to the ophthalmologist for visual difficulties secondary to eye deviation.One of the child's eyes deviates inward, thereby decreasing the visual field.Which of the following diagnoses is most likely?
A) Entropia
B) Extropia
C) Diplopia
D) Nystagmus
Q4) Fever of unknown origin (FUO)is characterized by a fever of ____° F or greater.
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Chapter 15: Alterations in Cognitive Systems, Cerebral
Hemodynamics, and Motor Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is explaining clinical manifestations of alterations in the extrapyramidal system.The nurse would correctly include: (select all that apply)
A) little or no paralysis of voluntary movement.
B) normal or slightly increased tendon reflexes.
C) positive (present) Babinski.
D) presence of tremor.
E) rigidity in muscle tone.
Q2) A 16-year-old male fell off the bed of a pickup truck and hit his forehead on the road.He now has resistance to passive movement that varies proportionally with the force applied.He is most likely suffering from:
A) spasticity.
B) paratonia.
C) rigidity.
D) dystonia.
Q3) A neurologist explains that arousal is mediated by the:
A) cerebral cortex.
B) medulla oblongata.
C) reticular activating system.
D) cingulate gyrus.
Page 17
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Chapter 16: Disorders of the Central and Peripheral Nervous
Systems and the Neuromuscular Junction
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is newly diagnosed with multiple sclerosis (MS).What physiological change is causing the patient's symptoms?
A) Depletion of dopamine in the central nervous system (CNS)
B) Demyelination of nerve fibers in the CNS
C) The development of neurofibril webs in the CNS
D) Reduced amounts of acetylcholine at the neuromuscular junction
Q2) Which information is basic to the assessment findings associated with a patient diagnosed with an aneurysm?
A) A headache is the most common symptom.
B) The majority are asymptomatic.
C) Nosebleeds are an early symptom.
D) Epidural hemorrhage occurs in over 80% of patients.
Q3) The majority of intervertebral disk herniations occur between which vertebral levels (cervical, C; thoracic, T; lumbar, L; sacral, S)?
A) C1-C3
B) T1-T4
C) T12-L3
D) L4-S1
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Chapter 17: Alterations of Neurologic Function in Children
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which reflex of infancy will disappear first?
A) Stepping
B) Rooting
C) Palmar grasp
D) Moro reflex
Q2) What is the most common location of brain tumors in children?
A) Above the cerebellum
B) In the posterior fossa
C) In the anterior cerebrum
D) In the ventricular lining
Q3) What is the most common type of cerebral palsy?
A) Ataxic
B) Dystonic
C) Spastic
D) Mixed
Q4) A nurse recalls that the most frequent location of a neuroblastoma is the:
A) retroperitoneal region.
B) mediastinum.
C) cervical ganglion.
D) lung.
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Chapter 18: Mechanisms of Hormonal Regulation
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Sample Questions
Q1) If a patient's posterior pituitary is removed, which hormone would the nurse expect to decrease?
A) PRF
B) ADH
C) ACTH
D) Growth hormone (GH)
Q2) Where are the target cells for oxytocin located?
A) Renal tubules
B) Thymus
C) Liver
D) Uterus
Q3) Insulin is primarily regulated by:
A) metabolic rate.
B) serum glucose levels.
C) prostaglandins.
D) enzyme activation.
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Chapter 19: Alterations of Hormonal Regulation
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the most common cause of elevated levels of antidiuretic hormone (ADH)secretion?
A) Autoimmune disease
B) Cancer
C) Pregnancy
D) Heart failure
Q2) What is the most common cause of Addison disease?
A) An autoimmune reaction
B) Dietary deficiency of sodium and potassium
C) Cancer
D) Viral infection of the pituitary gland
Q3) What causes the chronic microvascular and macrovascular complications of DM?
A) Pancreatic changes
B) Hyperglycemia
C) Ketone toxicity
D) Hyperinsulinemia
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21
Chapter 20: Structure and Function of the Hematologic System
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Sample Questions
Q1) While reviewing lab results, the nurse recalls that the most abundant cells in the blood are:
A) leukocytes.
B) lymphocytes.
C) erythrocytes.
D) thrombocytes.
Q2) While planning care for a newborn, the pediatric nurse recalls that the site of hematopoiesis in the fetus is the:
A) bone marrow.
B) kidney.
C) lymph nodes.
D) spleen.
Q3) Erythropoietin is produced in the:
A) liver.
B) bone marrow.
C) kidneys.
D) spleen.
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Page 22
Chapter 21: Alterations of Hematologic Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse realizes a patient has thrombocytopenia when the platelet count is below _____ platelets per cubic millimeter.
Q2) A 10-year-old is diagnosed with leukemia.The nurse assesses for which other condition that could be associated with his disease?
A) Down syndrome
B) Hemophilia
C) Hyperthyroidism
D) Pheochromocytoma
Q3) The nurse will check which of the following tests to directly measure iron stores?
A) Serum ferritin
B) Transferrin saturation
C) Bone marrow biopsy
D) Total iron-binding capacity
Q4) A 35-year-old male was diagnosed with hepatitis B.Further tests revealed neutropenia characterized by a neutrophil count less than _____ per milliliter.
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23
Chapter 22: Alterations of Hematologic Function in Children
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the most likely cause of death associated with sickle cell disease?
A) Decreased hemoglobin
B) Infection
C) An obstructive crisis
D) A hyperhemolytic crisis
Q2) A 6-year-old male presents with fatigue, jaundice, and irritability.A blood smear shows the presence of sickled cells.Erythropoiesis is compromised in this child; which crisis should the nurse monitor the patient for?
A) Vaso-occlusive crisis
B) Sequestration crisis
C) Aplastic crisis
D) Hyperhemolytic crisis
Q3) A mother has a child that is diagnosed with sickle cell anemia.While the mother does not have the disease, which characteristic of her genetic makeup is responsible for the child's disease?
A) Hb S and Hb S
B) Hb S and Hb A
C) Hb S and Hb C
D) Hb A and Hb C
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Page 24
Chapter 23: Structure and Function of the Cardiovascular and Lymphatic Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 50-year-old received trauma to the chest that caused severe impairment of the primary pacemaker cells of the heart.Which of the following areas received the greatest damage?
A) Atrioventricular (AV) node
B) Sinoatrial (SA) node
C) Bundle of His
D) Ventricles
Q2) The thoracic lymphatic duct drains into the:
A) left subclavian artery.
B) right atrium.
C) right subclavian vein.
D) left subclavian vein.
Q3) Which chamber of the heart generates the highest pressure?
A) Right atrium
B) Left atrium
C) Left ventricle
D) Right ventricle
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Page 25
Chapter 24: Alterations of Cardiovascular Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Most cases of combined systolic and diastolic hypertension have no known cause and are documented on the chart as _____ hypertension.
A) primary
B) secondary
C) congenital
D) acquired
Q2) A 42-year-old is diagnosed with constrictive pericarditis.The nurse assesses the blood pressure for decreased cardiac output because of:
A) pericardial effusions.
B) fibrosis and calcification of the pericardial layers.
C) cardiomyopathy.
D) hemorrhage in the pericardial cavity.
Q3) A 56-year-old presents to his primary care provider for a checkup.Physical exam reveals edema, hepatomegaly, and muffled heart sounds.Which of the following is of greatest concern to the nurse?
A) Tamponade
B) Exudate
C) Aneurysm
D) Pulsus paradoxus
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Page 26
Chapter 25: Alterations of Cardiovascular Function in Children
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Q1) A 1-month-old infant was diagnosed with truncus arteriosus (TA)with a ventricular septal defect.This condition results in:
A) hypertrophy of the aorta and major arteries.
B) transposition of the aorta and the pulmonary trunk.
C) the aorta returning blood to the right atrium.
D) blood from both ventricles mixing in a common vessel.
Q2) A 5-year-old female is found to have hypertension during three separate visits to her primary care provider.The nurse would expect tests to suggest that the hypertension is secondary to:
A) renal disease.
B) brain tumor.
C) hypocalcemia.
D) hyponatremia.
Q3) A newborn develops a murmur and cyanosis shortly after birth.A diagnosis of pulmonic stenosis (PS)is made after an echocardiogram revealed narrowing of the pulmonary:
A) tree.
B) artery.
C) valve.
D) vein.
Page 27
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Chapter 26: Structure and Function of the Pulmonary System
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Q1) Carbon dioxide (CO<sub>2</sub>)is mainly transported in the blood:
A) attached to oxygen (O<sub>2</sub>).
B) dissolved in red blood cells.
C) combined with albumin.
D) in the form of bicarbonate.
Q2) What physiology is present at the base of the lungs?
A) Arterial perfusion pressure is less than that of alveolar gas pressure.
B) Arterial perfusion pressure and alveolar gas pressure are less than they are at the apex.
C) Arterial perfusion pressure exceeds alveolar gas pressure.
D) Arterial perfusion and alveolar gas pressure are equal.
Q3) The nurse is describing the receptors in the lung that decrease ventilatory rate and volume when stimulated.Which receptors is the nurse discussing?
A) Carbon dioxide receptors
B) Baroreceptors
C) Stretch receptors
D) Chemoreceptors
Q4) ____% of oxygen (O<sub>2</sub>)enters the bloodstream bound to hemoglobin.
Page 28
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Chapter 27: Alterations of Pulmonary Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) An 80-year-old develops pneumonia in the hospital.An assessment identifies that the patient is cyanotic and tachycardic and has developed a fever and a cough.Chest x-ray reveals pus in the pleural space.This symptomology supports which medical diagnosis?
A) Empyema
B) Emphysema
C) Pleurisy
D) Chyle
Q2) A 50-year-old male is diagnosed with pulmonary embolism (PE).Which of the following symptoms most likely occurred before treatment is initiated?
A) Dry cough and inspiratory crackles
B) Shallow respirations and wheezing
C) Chest pain and shortness of breath
D) Kussmaul respirations and back pain
Q3) The patient generally acquires nosocomial pneumonia:
A) at daycare centers.
B) on airplanes.
C) during hospitalization.
D) in the winter season.
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Chapter 28: Alterations of Pulmonary Function in Children
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Sample Questions
Q1) Asthma affects ____% of children between birth and 17 years of age.
Q2) A 13-year-old female is diagnosed with asthma.Which of the following should the nurse teach the patient to recognize as a part of an asthmatic attack?
A) Headache
B) Chest pain
C) Wheezing
D) Low heart rate
Q3) A cardiovascular alteration seen in a newborn diagnosed with respiratory distress syndrome includes:
A) left-to-right shunt.
B) left ventricular dilation.
C) pulmonary hypotension.
D) opening of fetal shunt pathways.
Q4) Cystic fibrosis (CF)is an _____ disease.
A) autosomal recessive
B) autosomal dominant
C) X-linked recessive
D) X-linked dominant
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Chapter 29: Structure and Function of the Renal and Urologic Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) Where does the majority of sodium reabsorption take place?
A) Proximal tubule
B) Loop of Henle
C) Distal tubule
D) Collecting duct
Q2) On average, the kidneys receive approximately _____ of the cardiac output.
A) 10-14%
B) 15-19%
C) 20-25%
D) 26-35%
Q3) A nurse recalls that the glomerular filtration rate (GFR)and plasma creatinine (P<sub>cr</sub>)concentration are _____ related.
A) directly
B) indirectly
C) inversely
D) not
Q4) On average, _____% of renal plasma flow (RPF)to the glomerulus is filtered into the Bowman's capsule.
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Q5) A nurse recalls the superficial cortical nephrons account for ____% of all nephrons.
Chapter 30: Alterations of Renal and Urinary Tract Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) When a patient's CT scan reveals a lesion above the pontine micturition center, which condition would the nurse expect?
A) Dyssynergia
B) Detrusor hyperreflexia
C) Detrusor areflexia
D) Detrusor sphincter dyssynergia
Q2) The most common condition associated with the development of acute pyelonephritis is:
A) cystitis.
B) renal cancer.
C) urinary tract obstruction.
D) nephrotic syndrome.
Q3) An older male presents with flank pain and polyuria.Tests reveal that he has an enlarged prostate.Which type of renal failure is this patient at risk for?
A) Prerenal
B) Intrarenal
C) Extrarenal
D) Postrenal
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Chapter 31: Alterations of Renal and Urinary Tract Function in Children
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19 Verified Questions
19 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 2-year-old male is diagnosed with Wilms tumor.Which clinical condition is often associated with this disease?
A) Cystic disease of the liver
B) Aniridia
C) Anemia
D) Hypothyroidism
Q2) A 4-year-old male is diagnosed with nephrotic syndrome.Which of the following assessment findings accompanies this condition?
A) Proteinuria
B) Decreased blood urea nitrogen (BUN)
C) Hematuria
D) Sodium loss
Q3) A 7-year-old male presents to his primary care provider for incontinence.His mother indicates that he has never been continent before.This history supports which form of enuresis?
A) Nocturnal
B) Diurnal
C) Primary
D) Secondary
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Chapter 32: Structure and Function of the Reproductive Systems
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34 Verified Questions
34 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which body structure contains the openings to the vagina and urinary meatus?
A) Vestibule
B) Mons pubis
C) Introitus
D) Perineal body
Q2) Progesterone is primarily secreted by the:
A) follicle.
B) corpus luteum.
C) granulosa cells.
D) anterior pituitary.
Q3) The hormone that promotes breast development during puberty is:
A) progesterone.
B) prolactin.
C) oxytocin.
D) estradiol.
Q4) Progesterone is referred to as "the hormone of pregnancy" because it:
A) stimulates lactation.
B) increases ciliary action in the fallopian tubes.
C) thins the endometrium.
D) prevents smooth muscle contraction of the uterus.
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Chapter 33: Alterations of the Female Reproductive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 20-year-old female presents with pelvic and back pain severe enough to miss work beginning with the onset of menses.Physical examination supports the diagnosis of primary dysmenorrhea.The most likely cause of her condition is:
A) lack of estrogen.
B) stress.
C) elevated prostaglandins.
D) poor nutrition.
Q2) A 35-year-old female is diagnosed with endometriosis.Suppressing which of the following would be the most appropriate medical treatment for this disease?
A) Infection
B) Ovulation
C) Prostaglandins
D) Fertilization
Q3) The most commonly occurring cancer of the female reproductive tract is _____ cancer.
A) cervical.
B) ovarian.
C) endometrial.
D) fallopian.
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Page 35
Chapter 34: Alterations of the Male Reproductive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The risk of testicular cancer is greater for which group? (select all that apply)
A) With a history of cryptorchidism
B) With a history of phimosis
C) Who are of white ethnicity
D) Who are of black descent
E) Between 15 and 35 years of age.
Q2) An example of a parasitic sexually transmitted infection (STI)that is transmitted through close skin-to-skin contact is:
A) Chlamydia.
B) syphilis.
C) scabies.
D) Gardnerella.
Q3) Which of the following are true regarding prostate cancer? (select all that apply)
A) It is responsible for the majority of cancer-related deaths in males.
B) It usually occurs before age 50.
C) It is the leading type of nonskin cancer in men in the United States.
D) It is more common in White men in the United States.
E) Prostate cancer death rates have been declining in the United States.
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36
Chapter 35: Structure and Function of the Digestive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which cells of the gastric glands secrete hydrochloric acid?
A) Chief
B) Parietal
C) Zymogenic
D) Surface epithelial
Q2) Absorption of nutrients from the intestine occurs initially through the:
A) mesentery.
B) villi.
C) lamina propria.
D) splenic veins.
Q3) The blood supply of the large intestine is derived from which vessel(s)?
A) Celiac
B) Superior and inferior mesenteric
C) Hepatic and portal
D) Omental
Q4) Food is moved down the esophagus via what process?
A) Peristalsis
B) Retropulsion
C) Haustral segmentation
D) Defecation
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Chapter 36: Alterations of Digestive Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 60-year-old male is diagnosed with adenocarcinoma of the esophagus.Which of the following factors most likely contributed to his disease?
A) Reflux esophagitis
B) Intestinal parasites
C) Ingestion of salty foods
D) Frequent use of antacids
Q2) Which of the following type(s)of hepatitis has an incubation period of up to 180 days? (select all that apply)
A) A
B) B
C) C
D) D
E) E
Q3) A serious complication of paraesophageal hiatal hernia is:
A) hemorrhage.
B) strangulation.
C) peritonitis.
D) ascites.
Q4) Obesity is defined as a body mass index (BMI)greater than _____.
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Chapter 37: Alterations of Digestive Function in Children
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28 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following are complications of gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD)? (select all that apply)
A) Esophagitis
B) Barrett esophagus (BE)
C) Cough
D) Recurrent otitis media (OM)
E) Bloody vomitus
Q2) A 2-month-old is diagnosed with Hirschsprung disease with the resulting development of a megacolon.What is the most likely cause of this condition?
A) Absence of intrinsic ganglion cells resulting in impaired peristalsis
B) The use of cow's milk instead of formula
C) Excessive use of glycerin suppositories to promote bowel elimination
D) Additional ganglion cells throughout the length of the colon
Q3) What is the most common symptom of Meckel diverticulum observed in children?
A) Constipation
B) Vomiting
C) Rectal bleeding
D) Ascites
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Chapter 38: Structure and Function of the Musculoskeletal System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The shapes that represent bone classifications include: (select all that apply)
A) long.
B) flat.
C) short.
D) irregular.
E) round.
Q2) Hydroxyapatite found in bone matrix contains a combination of which molecules in its crystalline structure?
A) Calcium and magnesium
B) Calcium and phosphate
C) Phosphate and magnesium
D) Magnesium and hydrogen
Q3) What is the major difference between compact and spongy bone?
A) Organization of the structural elements
B) Location within the body
C) Activating chemicals in each
D) Types of minerals in the bone matrix
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Page 40
Chapter 39: Alterations of Musculoskeletal Function
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35 Verified Questions
35 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which clinical finding would be expected in the patient with rhabdomyolysis?
A) Sweating
B) Dark urine
C) Yellow color to the skin
D) Lower extremity swelling
Q2) A 34-year-old female was recently diagnosed with rheumatoid arthritis (RA).Physical examination revealed that inflammation is noted in various:
A) synovial membranes.
B) short bones.
C) subchondral bones.
D) bursae sacs.
Q3) A 70-year-old female presents with a hip fracture secondary to osteoporosis.This condition is caused by an increase in bone:
A) density.
B) formation.
C) resorption.
D) mineralization.
Q4) To make a diagnosis of fibromyalgia, tenderness must be present in ____ of the 18 points necessary for diagnosis.
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Chapter 40: Alterations of Musculoskeletal Function in Children
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Sample Questions
Q1) While performing an assessment of a 2-month-old, the nurse notes a positive Ortolani click.The nurse would suspect the child has:
A) a hip fracture.
B) hip dysplasia.
C) osteogenesis imperfecta.
D) osteomyelitis.
Q2) Which type of scoliosis accounts for the majority of the cases of scoliosis?
A) Idiopathic
B) Infectious
C) Iatrogenic
D) Secondary
Q3) A major predictor of poor prognosis for Ewing sarcoma is:
A) age of onset.
B) size of tumor.
C) presence of metastasis.
D) gender of child.
Q4) Polyarthritis is a type of juvenile arthritis in which more than _____ joints are affected.
Q5) Incidence of Legg-Calvé-Perthes (LCP)disease peaks at age______.
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Chapter 41: Structure, Function, and Disorders of the Integument
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Sample Questions
Q1) In burn injury patients, the rule of nines and the Lund and Browder chart are used to estimate:
A) depth of burn injury.
B) possibility of infection.
C) degree of systemic involvement.
D) total body surface area burned.
Q2) An increase in _____ is associated with pruritus.
A) substance P
B) norepinephrine
C) dopamine
D) acetylcholine
Q3) A client is burned through all the dermis with only a few epidermal appendages intact.This burn is classified as:
A) first degree.
B) superficial partial-thickness.
C) deep partial-thickness.
D) third degree.
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Page 43
Chapter 42: Alterations of the Integument in Children
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 14-year-old presents with severe acne.Which of the following promotes acne development?
A) Androgens
B) Estrogens
C) Gonadotropins
D) Glucocorticoids
Q2) Rubella, rubeola, and roseola are common communicable diseases caused by _____ infection.
A) viral
B) bacterial
C) yeast
D) fungal
Q3) A 2-month-old develops diaper dermatitis.A nurse will monitor this patient for which secondary infection?
A) Streptococcus
B) Proteus
C) Candida albicans
D) Staphylococcus aureus
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