Pathophysiology for Allied Health Question
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Course Introduction
Pathophysiology for Allied Health explores the physiological processes underlying common diseases and disorders that affect the human body. The course focuses on how organ systems respond to injury, infection, and other pathological conditions, emphasizing alterations from normal biological function. Students will gain an understanding of the mechanisms of disease development, progression, and manifestations, preparing them to recognize signs and symptoms in clinical settings. Through case studies and real-world scenarios, the course builds foundational knowledge essential for allied health professionals in diagnostics, patient care, and therapeutic interventions.
Recommended Textbook
Understanding Pathophysiology 6th Edition by Huether
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42 Chapters
1238 Verified Questions
1238 Flashcards
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Cellular Biology
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31 Verified Questions
31 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Some cancer drugs work during the cell cycle phase where nuclear and cytoplasmic divisions occur.What is this cell cycle phase called?
A) G<sub>1</sub>
B) S
C) M
D) G<sub>2</sub>
Answer: C
Q2) A student is observing a cell under the microscope.It is observed to have supercoiled DNA with histones.Which of the following would also be observed by the student?
A) A single circular chromosome
B) A nucleus
C) Free-floating nuclear material
D) No organelles.
Answer: B
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3
Chapter 2: Genes and Genetic Diseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) When the nurse is teaching the staff about X-linked recessive disorders, which information should the nurse include? (select all that apply)
A) The trait is seen much more often in females than in males.
B) The trait is never transmitted from father to son.
C) The gene can be transmitted through a series of carrier females.
D) The gene is passed from an affected father to all his daughters.
E) The trait never skips generations.
Answer: B, C, D
Q2) A patient, age 9, is admitted to a pediatric unit with Duchenne muscular dystrophy.When planning care the nurse recalls the patient inherited this condition through a trait that is:
A) X-linked dominant.
B) X-influenced.
C) X-limited.
D) X-linked recessive.
Answer: D
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4
Chapter 3: Epigenetics and Disease
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Sample Questions
Q1) What characteristic of Prader-Willi syndrome is not a characteristic of Angelman syndrome?
A) It is inherited from the father.
B) Mental retardation is observable.
C) Imprinting of an abnormal chromosome 15.
D) Seizure disorder is present.
Answer: A
Q2) Research has demonstrated that neural stem cells have an impaired ability to differentiate into functional neurons when subjected to:
A) ethanol.
B) marijuana.
C) insufficient nutrients.
D) poor oxygenation.
Answer: A
Q3) Which embryonic stem cell characteristic is referred to as totipotent?
A) Ability to differentiate into any type of somatic cell.
B) Ability to repair its own damaged DNA.
C) Ability to determine which parental chromosome copy it will imprint.
D) Ability to minimize the impact of poor in utero nutrition.
Answer: A
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Chapter 4: Altered Cellular and Tissue Biology
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 55-year-old male has swelling of the feet.Which of the following aided in the development of swelling?
A) Increased ATP
B) Chloride movement out of the cell
C) Na+ movement into the cell
D) Decreased oncotic pressure
Q2) A 35-year-old female is diagnosed with multiple myeloma.Biopsy of the tumor reveals Russell bodies, and laboratory testing reveals kidney dysfunction.Which substance should the nurse monitor as it is accumulating in the patient's body?
A) Glycogen
B) Protein
C) Pigment
D) Melanin
Q3) Sodium and water accumulation in an injured cell are a direct result of:
A) decreased ATP production.
B) karyorrhexis.
C) ribosome detachment.
D) dehydration.
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6
Chapter 5: Fluids and Electrolytes, Acids and Bases
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following buffer pairs is considered the major plasma buffering system?
A) Protein/fat
B) Carbonic acid/bicarbonate
C) Sodium/potassium
D) Amylase/albumin
Q2) Which of the following patients should the nurse assess for decreased oncotic pressure in the capillaries? A patient with:
A) a high-protein diet.
B) liver failure.
C) low blood pressure.
D) low blood glucose.
Q3) Which organ system should the nurse monitor when the patient has long-term potassium deficits?
A) Central nervous system (CNS)
B) Lungs
C) Kidneys
D) Gastrointestinal tract
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Chapter 6: Innate Immunity: Inflammation and Wound Healing
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 35-year-old male is diagnosed with lobar pneumonia (lung infection).Which of the following exudates would be present in highest concentration at the site of this advanced inflammatory response?
A) Serous
B) Purulent
C) Hemorrhagic
D) Fibrinous
Q2) An 8-year-old female presents with edema of the cutaneous and mucosal tissue layers.Her mother reports that the condition is recurrent and seems to occur more often during stressful situations.The child is diagnosed with hereditary angioedema.Which of the following is deficient in this child?
A) C1 esterase inhibitor
B) Carboxypeptidase
C) Neutrophils
D) Plasmin
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Chapter 7: Adaptive Immunity
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 23-year-old pregnant female visits her primary care provider for her final prenatal checkup.The primary care provider determines that the fetus has developed an infection in utero.Which of the following would be increased in the fetus at birth?
A) IgG
B) IgA
C) IgM
D) IgD
Q2) A macrophage was isolated and analyzed for major histocompatibility complex.Which of the following would be expected?
A) MHC I only
B) MHC II only
C) MHC I and II
D) Neither MHC I nor MHC II
Q3) Direct effects of antibodies include: (select all that apply)
A) neutralization.
B) agglutination.
C) precipitation.
D) phagocytosis.
E) division.
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Page 9
Chapter 8: Infection and Defects in Mechanisms of Defense
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 30-year-old male was diagnosed with HIV.Which of the following treatments would be most effective?
A) Reverse transcriptase inhibitors
B) Protease inhibitors
C) Entrance inhibitors
D) Antiretroviral therapy (ART)
Q2) A 15-year-old male suffers from severe hemorrhage following a motor vehicle accident.He is given a blood transfusion, but shortly afterward the red blood cells are destroyed by agglutination and lysis.Which of the following blood type transfusion type matches would cause this?
A) A-A
B) B-O
C) AB-O
D) A-AB
Q3) A nurse recalls that an example of an immune-complex-mediated disease is:
A) bronchial asthma.
B) contact dermatitis.
C) serum sickness.
D) rheumatoid arthritis.
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10
Chapter 9: Stress and Disease
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Sample Questions
Q1) After teaching about coping, which information indicates a correct understanding? Coping is best defined as the process of:
A) adjusting to disease.
B) preventing psychological distress.
C) mediating anger.
D) managing stressful challenges.
Q2) When teaching about the stress-age syndrome, what information should the nurse include? (select all that apply)
A) Decreased cortisol secretion
B) Decreased thyroxine
C) Immunodepression
D) Increased catecholamine secretion
E) Hypercoagulation of the blood
F) Free-radical damage
Q3) Exhaustion occurs if stress continues and _____ is not successful.
A) flight or fight response
B) alarm
C) adaptation
D) arousal
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Page 11
Chapter 10: Biology, Clinical Manifestations, and Treatment of Cancer
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 30-year-old female is diagnosed with cancer.Testing reveals that the cancer cells have spread to local lymph nodes.A nurse realizes this cancer would be documented as stage:
A) 1.
B) 2.
C) 3.
D) 4.
Q2) An oncologist is discussing when a cancer cell loses differentiation.Which of the following is the oncologist describing?
A) Autonomy
B) Anaplasia
C) Pleomorphic
D) Metastasis
Q3) Which information indicates a nurse understands characteristics of malignant tumors?
A) Grows slowly
B) Has a well-defined capsule
C) Cells vary in size and shape
D) Is well differentiated
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Chapter 11: Cancer Epidemiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient asks why indoor pollution is worse than outdoor pollution.How should the nurse respond? Indoor pollution is considered worse than outdoor pollution because of cigarette smoke and:
A) fireplace wood smoke.
B) radon.
C) benzene.
D) chlorine.
Q2) Chromosome aberrations and mutations in cells that were not directly irradiated are referred to as:
A) bystander effects.
B) lethal mutation.
C) delayed reproductive death.
D) genetic instability.
Q3) When an oncologist is teaching about how radiation induces genomic instability, which topic should the oncologist discuss?
A) Increasing hypersensitivity
B) Facilitating new mutations
C) Promoting cell death
D) Enhancing mitosis
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Page 13
Chapter 12: Cancer in Children
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 3-year-old female was diagnosed with Wilms tumor.This disease is a tumor of the:
A) kidney.
B) brain.
C) bone marrow.
D) liver.
Q2) A 16-year-old with aspirations of becoming a bodybuilder spends 3 hours a day in the gym.Five years later a hepatocellular carcinoma is discovered.Which of the following is the most likely cause of the cancer?
A) Immunosuppressive agents
B) Cytotoxic agents
C) Anabolic steroids
D) A viral infection
Q3) The nurse explains to a parent that young children diagnosed with Down syndrome are at higher risk for developing:
A) nephroblastoma.
B) rhabdomyosarcoma.
C) leukemia.
D) retinoblastoma.
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14
Chapter 13: Structure and Function of the Neurologic System
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Sample Questions
Q1) What type of cell supports the forming of the blood-brain barrier (BBB)?
A) Endothelial
B) Schwann
C) Oligodendrocyte
D) Astrocyte
Q2) A cell was isolated from the CNS.A researcher revealed that its main function was to clear cellular debris.What type of cell is the researcher studying?
A) Astrocyte
B) Ependymal cell
C) Microglia
D) Schwann cell
Q3) A nurse is preparing to teach about functions to maintain homeostasis and instinctive behavioral patterns.Which area of the brain is the nurse discussing?
A) Thalamus
B) Medulla
C) Cerebellum
D) Hypothalamus
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Page 15
Chapter 14: Pain, Temperature, Sleep, and Sensory Function
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37 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) When the nurse is discussing the patient's cyclical temperature fluctuation occurring on a daily basis, what term should the nurse use?
A) Thermogenesis cycle
B) Thermoconductive phases
C) Adaptive pattern
D) Circadian rhythm
Q2) A 52-year-old male enters a sleep study to gather information about his sleep disturbances.He reports that his wife will not let him sleep in the bed with her until he stops snoring so loudly.He also reports feeling tired a lot through the day.When the nurse checks the chart, what is the most likely diagnosis?
A) Insomnia
B) Obstructive sleep apnea syndrome (OSAS)
C) Somnambulism
D) Jet-lag syndrome
Q3) The most common form of sensorineural hearing loss in the elderly is:
A) conductive hearing loss.
B) acute otitis media.
C) presbycusis.
D) Ménière disease.
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Page 16
Chapter 15: Alterations in Cognitive Systems, Cerebral
Hemodynamics, and Motor Function
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32 Verified Questions
32 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient reports tiring easily, having difficulty rising from a sitting position, and the inability to stand on toes.The nurse would expect a diagnosis of:
A) Parkinson disease.
B) hypotonia.
C) Huntington disease.
D) paresis.
Q2) A patient with an addiction to alcohol checked into a rehabilitation center as a result of experiencing delirium, inability to concentrate, and being easily distracted.What term would be used to document this state?
A) Acute confusional state
B) Echolalia
C) Dementia
D) Dysphagia
Q3) Spinal shock is characterized by:
A) loss of voluntary motor function with preservation of reflexes.
B) cessation of spinal cord function below the lesion.
C) loss of spinal cord function at the level of the lesion only.
D) temporary loss of spinal cord function above the lesion.
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Chapter 16: Disorders of the Central and Peripheral Nervous
Systems and the Neuromuscular Junction
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37 Verified Questions
37 Flashcards
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Sample
Questions
Q1) A patient diagnosed with a spinal cord injury experienced spinal shock lasting 15 days.The patient is now experiencing an uncompensated cardiovascular response to sympathetic stimulation.What does the nurse suspect caused this condition?
A) Toxic accumulation of free radicals below the level of the injury
B) Pain stimulation above the level of the spinal cord lesion
C) A distended bladder or rectum
D) An abnormal vagal response
Q2) Patients diagnosed with myasthenia gravis often have tumors or pathologic changes in the:
A) brain.
B) pancreas.
C) thymus.
D) lungs.
Q3) A patient is newly diagnosed with multiple sclerosis (MS).What physiological change is causing the patient's symptoms?
A) Depletion of dopamine in the central nervous system (CNS)
B) Demyelination of nerve fibers in the CNS
C) The development of neurofibril webs in the CNS
D) Reduced amounts of acetylcholine at the neuromuscular junction
Page 18
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Chapter 17: Alterations of Neurologic Function in Children
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which reflex of infancy will disappear first?
A) Stepping
B) Rooting
C) Palmar grasp
D) Moro reflex
Q2) Which of the following diseases does the nurse screen for in all newborns?
A) Epilepsy
B) Tay-Sachs disease
C) Pica
D) Phenylketonuria (PKU)
Q3) A baby is stillborn after 6 hours of labor.Autopsy reveals hydrocephalus caused by cystic dilation of the fourth ventricle and aqueductal compression.Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A) Congenital hydrocephalus
B) Microcephaly
C) Dandy-Walker deformity
D) Macewen sign
Q4) The percent of retinoblastomas that are inherited as an autosomal dominant trait is ____%.
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Chapter 18: Mechanisms of Hormonal Regulation
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 40-year-old patient undergoes surgery for a PTH-secreting tumor in which the parathyroid is removed.Which physiological alteration would the nurse expect following surgery?
A) Increased serum calcium
B) Decreased bone formation
C) Decreased calcium reabsorption in the kidney
D) Increased calcitonin
Q2) Which assessment finding would the nurse expect to be increased in a patient with deficient ADH production?
A) Blood volume
B) Urine osmolality
C) Urine volume
D) Arterial vasoconstriction
Q3) Insulin is primarily regulated by:
A) metabolic rate.
B) serum glucose levels.
C) prostaglandins.
D) enzyme activation.
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Chapter 19: Alterations of Hormonal Regulation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Diabetes insipidus, diabetes mellitus (DM), and SIADH share which of the following assessment manifestations?
A) Polyuria
B) Edema
C) Vomiting
D) Thirst
Q2) A patient presents reporting visual disturbances.When CT reveals a pituitary tumor and lab tests reveal elevated prolactin, the diagnosis of prolactinoma is made.Which intervention is the treatment of choice for this condition?
A) Dopaminergic agonists
B) Calcium
C) Insulin
D) Radiation
Q3) What is the most common cause of hypoparathyroidism?
A) Pituitary hyposecretion
B) Parathyroid adenoma
C) Parathyroid gland injury
D) Hypothalamic inactivity
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21
Chapter 20: Structure and Function of the Hematologic System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which cytokines participate in hematopoiesis?
A) Stimulating factors (CSFs)
B) Eosinophils
C) Basophils
D) Neutrophils
Q2) Which type of white blood cell contains preformed granules of vasoactive amines?
A) Neutrophil
B) Eosinophil
C) Monocyte
D) Basophil
Q3) After birth, red blood cells are normally made only in the:
A) liver.
B) spleen.
C) bone marrow.
D) kidney.
Q4) The predominant phagocyte of early inflammation is the:
A) eosinophil.
B) lymphocyte.
C) macrophage.
D) neutrophil.
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Chapter 21: Alterations of Hematologic Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 35-year-old male has enlarged lymph nodes in the neck and a mediastinal mass.He was diagnosed with Hodgkin lymphoma.Which of the following abnormal cells would the nurse expect to find with this disease?
A) Merkel cell
B) Schwann cell
C) Reed-Sternberg cell
D) Kupffer cell
Q2) Thrombocytopenia may be:
A) transient or consistent.
B) normal or abnormal.
C) congenital or acquired.
D) active or inactive.
Q3) A 15-year-old male with infectious mononucleosis is being given instructions on how to prevent the spread of this infection to others.Which statement represents a correct instruction?
A) Wear a surgical mask when others are in the room.
B) Do not share drinking glasses or eating utensils.
C) Avoid all contact with other people.
D) No precautions are necessary.
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Page 23
Chapter 22: Alterations of Hematologic Function in Children
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Sample Questions
Q1) Testing reveals that a child has hemophilia A.This bleeding disorder results from a deficiency in factor:
A) IX.
B) XII.
C) XIII.
D) VIII.
Q2) A 3-year-old child presents with bruising on the legs and trunk and a petechial rash.The mother also reports frequent nosebleeds.Lab tests reveal a decreased platelet count.This symptomology supports which medical diagnosis?
A) Immune thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP)
B) Leukemia
C) Thalassemia
D) Hemophilia
Q3) A 1-year-old female is diagnosed with anemia secondary to insufficient erythropoiesis.The most likely cause is:
A) genetic factors.
B) an iron deficiency.
C) a hemoglobin abnormality.
D) an erythrocyte structural abnormality.
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Page 24
Chapter 23: Structure and Function of the Cardiovascular and Lymphatic Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 13-year-old took a weight loss drug that activated the sympathetic nervous system.Which of the following assessment findings would the nurse expect?
A) Decreased myocardial contraction
B) Decreased heart rate
C) Increased cardiac conduction
D) Increased intranodal conduction time
Q2) Which structures would not receive an electrical impulse when the patient is experiencing a left bundle branch block?
A) Atrioventricular (AV) node
B) Sinoatrial (SA) node
C) Bundle of His
D) The left ventricle
Q3) Muscle contractions occur when there is a decreased:
A) distance between Z lines.
B) A band length.
C) Z line length.
D) H zone distance.
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Page 25
Chapter 24: Alterations of Cardiovascular Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) When a nurse checks the patient for orthostatic hypotension, what activity did the nurse have the patient engage in?
A) Physical exertion
B) Eating
C) Standing up
D) Lying down
Q2) A 62-year-old male presents to his primary care provider reporting chest pain at rest and with exertion.He does not have a history of coronary artery disease and reports that the pain often occurs at night.He is most likely experiencing which type of angina?
A) Unstable
B) Stable
C) Prinzmetal
D) Silent
Q3) During shock states, glucose uptake is usually:
A) enhanced.
B) normal.
C) impaired.
D) energy intensive.
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Chapter 25: Alterations of Cardiovascular Function in Children
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Sample Questions
Q1) Intrauterine exposure to which factor could be responsible for a diagnosis of congenital heart disease?
A) Diabetes
B) Alcohol exposure
C) Viral infection
D) Dextroamphetamine
Q2) A newborn is severely cyanotic.An echocardiogram reveals transposition of the great arteries.What is the characteristic defect associated with this condition?
A) The pulmonary artery leaving the right ventricle
B) The aorta leaving the right ventricle
C) Ventricular septal defect (VSD)
D) Atrial septal defect (ASD)
Q3) A newborn develops a murmur and cyanosis shortly after birth.A diagnosis of pulmonic stenosis (PS)is made after an echocardiogram revealed narrowing of the pulmonary:
A) tree.
B) artery.
C) valve.
D) vein.
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Chapter 26: Structure and Function of the Pulmonary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Pulmonary function tests reveal that an 80-year-old dyspneic patient has an increase in residual volume.A nurse suspects the most likely cause of the increased residual volume is _____ in lung compliance.
A) an increase
B) a decrease
C) no change
D) an absence
Q2) The pressure required to inflate an alveolus is inversely related to: A) wall thickness.
B) surface tension.
C) minute volume.
D) alveolar radius.
Q3) At sea level, the partial pressure of oxygen is approximately ___% (round to the nearest whole number).
Q4) _____ seconds is required for oxygen (O<sub>2</sub>)concentration to equilibrate (equalize)across the alveolocapillary membrane.
Q5) ____% of oxygen (O<sub>2</sub>)enters the bloodstream bound to hemoglobin.
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Chapter 27: Alterations of Pulmonary Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 10-year-old is brought to the ER with prolonged bronchospasm and severe hypoxemia.The symptomology supports which diagnosis?
A) Exercise-induced asthma
B) Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)
C) Status asthmaticus
D) Bronchiectasis
Q2) A 60-year-old with a 25-year history of smoking is diagnosed with emphysema.Assessment shows an increased anterior-posterior chest diameter.The nurse attributes this finding to:
A) air trapping.
B) decreased inspiratory reserve volumes.
C) increased flow rates.
D) alveolar destruction.
Q3) A 15-year-old is diagnosed with restrictive lung disease caused by fibrosis.Which pulmonary function test finding is expected?
A) Increased compliance
B) Increased tidal volume
C) Decreased respiratory rate
D) Decreased functional residual capacity
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Chapter 28: Alterations of Pulmonary Function in Children
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Sample Questions
Q1) A newborn diagnosed with respiratory distress syndrome is monitored for atelectasis because of:
A) a lack of surfactant.
B) pulmonary edema.
C) airway obstruction.
D) pulmonary fibrosis.
Q2) Which pathology is characteristic of asthma?
A) Increased lung volumes
B) Expiratory wheezing
C) Air trapping
D) Dead space
Q3) A 6-month-old presents with rhinorrhea, cough, poor feeding, lethargy, and fever and is diagnosed with bronchiolitis.Which of the following will the nurse most likely observe on the culture report?
A) Parainfluenza virus
B) Haemophilus influenzae type B
C) Respiratory syncytial virus
D) Group A beta-hemolytic streptococcus
Q4) Asthma affects ____% of children between birth and 17 years of age.
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Chapter 29: Structure and Function of the Renal and Urologic Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which hormone is synthesized and secreted by the kidneys to stimulate bone marrow production of red blood cells?
A) Creatinine
B) Aldosterone
C) Erythropoietin
D) Renin
Q2) A 35-year-old hypertensive male begins taking a diuretic.Which of the following common side effects of this medication should the nurse monitor?
A) Hypokalemia
B) Hyponatremia
C) Increased uric acid secretion
D) Hypermagnesemia
Q3) The trigone is defined as:
A) the orifice of the ureter.
B) the inner area of the kidney.
C) a triangular area between the openings of the two ureters and the urethra.
D) the three divisions of the loop of Henle.
Q4) A nurse would chart that a patient is experiencing oliguria when a 24-hour urine output is less than ________ milliliters per day.
Page 31
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Chapter 30: Alterations of Renal and Urinary Tract Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) When a 42-year-old is diagnosed with chronic renal failure, which dietary restriction will the nurse discuss with the patient?
A) Fats
B) Complex carbohydrates
C) Proteins
D) Sugars
Q2) The most common condition associated with the development of acute pyelonephritis is:
A) cystitis.
B) renal cancer.
C) urinary tract obstruction.
D) nephrotic syndrome.
Q3) A 25-year-old female is diagnosed with a urinary tract infection.When the nurse checks the culture results, which of the following organisms is most likely infecting her urinary tract?
A) Streptococcus
B) Candida albicans
C) Chlamydia
D) Escherichia coli
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Chapter 31: Alterations of Renal and Urinary Tract Function in Children
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19 Verified Questions
19 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/11304
Sample Questions
Q1) Upon examination of a male infant, it is determined that the urethral meatus is located on the undersurface of the penis.The nurse will document this condition as:
A) hypospadias.
B) epispadias.
C) hydroureter.
D) cryptorchidism.
Q2) An infant male experiences a constant dribbling of urine.His urethral opening is located behind the glans.Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis the nurse will observe on the chart?
A) Anterior epispadias
B) Posterior epispadias
C) Exstrophy of the bladder
D) Bladder outlet obstruction
Q3) Which of the following clusters of symptoms would support a child's diagnosis of glomerulonephritis?
A) Pyuria, fever, and abdominal pain
B) Proteinuria, hypotension, and ascites
C) Dysuria, urinary frequency, and abdominal tenderness
D) Gross hematuria, edema, and hypertension
Page 33
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Chapter 32: Structure and Function of the Reproductive Systems
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34 Verified Questions
34 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/11305
Sample Questions
Q1) A 25-year-old female has a menstrual cycle of 28 days' duration and asks the nurse what day of the cycle will ovulation occur.The nurse responds that ovulation will most likely occur on day _____.
Q2) The ova are contained within the ovarian:
A) corpus luteum.
B) follicle.
C) stroma.
D) infundibulum.
Q3) Progesterone is referred to as "the hormone of pregnancy" because it:
A) stimulates lactation.
B) increases ciliary action in the fallopian tubes.
C) thins the endometrium.
D) prevents smooth muscle contraction of the uterus.
Q4) A nurse recalls the _____ is lined with columnar epithelial cells.
A) perimetrium
B) endocervical canal
C) myometrium
D) vagina
34
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Chapter 33: Alterations of the Female Reproductive System
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17 Verified Questions
17 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 35-year-old female is diagnosed with endometriosis.Suppressing which of the following would be the most appropriate medical treatment for this disease?
A) Infection
B) Ovulation
C) Prostaglandins
D) Fertilization
Q2) The most commonly occurring cancer of the female reproductive tract is _____ cancer.
A) cervical.
B) ovarian.
C) endometrial.
D) fallopian.
Q3) During a routine pelvic exam, a 34-year-old female is found to have an ovarian cyst containing skin, hair, cartilage, and bone.This cyst is classified as a _____ cyst.
A) follicular
B) dermoid
C) corpus luteal
D) micro
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35
Chapter 34: Alterations of the Male Reproductive System
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15 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The risk of testicular cancer is greater for which group? (select all that apply)
A) With a history of cryptorchidism
B) With a history of phimosis
C) Who are of white ethnicity
D) Who are of black descent
E) Between 15 and 35 years of age.
Q2) A 35-year-old presents with symptomology that is associated with syphilis.What organism is responsible for the development of syphilis?
A) Treponema pallidum
B) Chlamydia trachomatis
C) Neisseria gonorrhoeae
D) Haemophilus ducreyi
Q3) Symptoms of acute bacterial prostatitis are similar to symptoms of:
A) prostate cancer.
B) benign prostatic hypertrophy (BPH).
C) urinary tract infection (UTI).
D) epididymitis.
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Chapter 35: Structure and Function of the Digestive System
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25 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) The GI tract performs which of the following processes? (select all that apply)
A) Absorption of digested food
B) Chemical breakdown of food particles
C) Initiates erythropoiesis
D) Mechanical breakdown of food particles
E) Secretion of mucus
Q2) Which information indicates the nurse understands digestion? During the cephalic and gastric phases of digestion, gallbladder contraction is mediated by branches of the: A) sympathetic nervous system.
B) somatic nervous system.
C) vagus nerve.
D) glossopharyngeal nerve.
Q3) Digestion begins in the mouth with salivary a-amylase (ptyalin)that initiates the digestion of: A) proteins.
B) carbohydrates.
C) fats.
D) amino acids.
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Chapter 36: Alterations of Digestive Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following characteristics is associated with an acute occlusion of mesenteric blood flow to the small intestine?
A) Often precipitated by an embolism
B) Commonly associated with disease such as pancreatitis and gallstones
C) Caused by chronic malnutrition and mucosal atrophy
D) Often a complication of hypovolemic shock
Q2) A 45-year-old male complains of heartburn after eating and difficulty swallowing.These symptoms support which diagnosis?
A) Pyloric stenosis
B) Gastric cancer
C) Achalasia
D) Hiatal hernia
Q3) The primary causes of duodenal ulcers include: (select all that apply)
A) consumption of spicy foods.
B) nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs).
C) H. pylori infection.
D) trauma.
E) side effects of antibiotics.
Q4) Obesity is defined as a body mass index (BMI)greater than _____.
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Chapter 37: Alterations of Digestive Function in Children
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28 Verified Questions
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/11310
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse assessing the patient with biliary atresia would expect to find which primary clinical manifestation?
A) Anemia
B) Jaundice
C) Hypobilirubinemia
D) Ascites
Q2) Occurrence of gastroesophageal reflux (GER)is highest in which pediatric population?
A) Premature infants
B) Infants with Down syndrome
C) Children with cystic fibrosis
D) Children with esophageal atresia
Q3) The family learns that a 3D ultrasound of a 9-week fetus shows incomplete fusion of the nasomedial process.What is this defect commonly called?
A) Cleft lip
B) Nasal passage atresia
C) Esophageal atresia
D) Lack of dentition
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Chapter 38: Structure and Function of the Musculoskeletal System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which component of the bone matrix gives bone its tensile strength?
A) Calcium
B) Phosphate
C) Collagen
D) Magnesium
Q2) The structures present in compact bone include the: (select all that apply)
A) haversian canals.
B) trabeculae.
C) canaliculi.
D) lamellae.
E) lacunae.
Q3) The structure of the contractile subunit of the myofibril is called the:
A) sarcoplasmic reticulum.
B) actin.
C) motor end plate.
D) sarcomere.
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Chapter 39: Alterations of Musculoskeletal Function
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35 Verified Questions
35 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/11312
Sample Questions
Q1) Osteomalacia is a result of:
A) collagen breakdown in the bone matrix.
B) excessive bone resorption.
C) crowding of bone marrow by excessive bone growth.
D) inadequate bone mineralization.
Q2) What is the primary organism responsible for osteomyelitis?
A) Staphylococcus aureus
B) Salmonella
C) Mycobacterium
D) Haemophilus influenza
Q3) The chronic stage of gout, characterized by crystalline deposits in cartilage, synovial membranes, and soft tissue, is called:
A) monoarticular arthritis.
B) tophaceous gout.
C) asymptomatic hyperuricemia.
D) complicated gout.
Q4) To make a diagnosis of fibromyalgia, tenderness must be present in ____ of the 18 points necessary for diagnosis.
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Chapter 40: Alterations of Musculoskeletal Function in Children
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Sample Questions
Q1) Legg-Calvé-Perthes (LCP)disease affects which of the following joints?
A) Vertebral
B) Shoulder
C) Hip
D) Knee
Q2) Ewing sarcoma originates from:
A) osteoblasts.
B) epithelial cells.
C) the spleen.
D) the bone marrow.
Q3) Children with osteogenesis imperfecta (OI)are at high risk for frequent:
A) bone fractures.
B) shoulder dislocations.
C) bone infections.
D) joint injuries.
Q4) Osteosarcoma is most likely present in the _____ of long bones.
A) epiphyses
B) metaphyses
C) marrow
D) osteocytes
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Chapter 41: Structure, Function, and Disorders of the Integument
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33 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Of the sweat glands, the _____ glands are most abundant in the axillae and genital areas.
A) eccrine
B) apocrine
C) sebaceous
D) subcutaneous
Q2) An increase in _____ is associated with pruritus.
A) substance P
B) norepinephrine
C) dopamine
D) acetylcholine
Q3) A wound scar that is sharply elevated, irregularly shaped, and progressively enlarging is a result of excessive amounts of _____ accumulated during connective tissue repair.
A) elastin
B) collagen
C) keratin
D) calcification
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Chapter 42: Alterations of the Integument in Children
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18 Verified Questions
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/11315
Sample Questions
Q1) Acne vulgaris involves inflammation of the:
A) hair follicles.
B) sebaceous follicles.
C) eccrine glands.
D) apocrine glands.
Q2) The nurse would correctly identify the medical term for ringworm as:
A) impetigo.
B) tinea corporis.
C) thrush.
D) psoriasis.
Q3) A 4-month-old brought to his primary care provider for severe itching and skin lesions is diagnosed with atopic dermatitis.Which of the following would be elevated in this patient?
A) Immunoglobulin D (IgD)
B) Immunoglobulin M (IgM)
C) Immunoglobulin E (IgE)
D) Immunoglobulin G (IgG)
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