Pathophysiology for Allied Health
Midterm Exam
Course Introduction
Pathophysiology for Allied Health provides an in-depth exploration of the fundamental mechanisms of disease processes and their effects on normal body functions. The course guides students through the etiology, development, and clinical manifestations of common illnesses encountered in allied health professions. Emphasizing the relationship between pathophysiological changes and patient outcomes, the curriculum covers topics such as inflammation, infection, immunity, neoplasia, and organ system disorders. Through case studies, lectures, and interactive discussions, students develop the skills necessary to assess physiological abnormalities and apply pathophysiological concepts to inform clinical decision-making and patient care.
Recommended Textbook
Pathophysiology The Biologic Basis for Disease in Adults and Children 6th Edition by Kathryn L. McCance
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47 Chapters
2211 Verified Questions
2211 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Cellular Biology
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54 Verified Questions
54 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which component of the cell produces hydrogen peroxide (H O ) by using oxygen to remove hydrogen atoms from specific substrates in an oxidative reaction?
A)Lysosomes
B)Peroxisome
C)Ribosomes
D)Oxyhydrosomes
Answer: B
Q2) Synthesizes and transports lipids
A)Endoplasmic reticulum
B)Ribosome
C)Secretory vesicle
D)Lysosomes
Answer: A
Q3) What occurs during exocytosis?
A)Macromolecules can be secreted across eukaryotic cell membranes.
B)All substances are secreted into the cellular matrix.
C)No repairs in the plasma membrane can take place.
D)Solute molecules flow freely into and out of the cell.
Answer: A
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Altered Cellular and Tissue Biology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Noise, illumination, and prolonged vibrations can cause cellular injury.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) Which type of cell adaptation occurs when normal columnar ciliated epithelial cells of the bronchial lining have been replaced by stratified squamous epithelial cells?
A)Hyperplasia
B)Metaplasia
C)Dysplasia
D)Anaplasia
Answer: B
Q3) The most common cause of hypoxia is ischemia.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q4) Dysplasia is a common type of normal cellular adaptation.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Chapter 3: The Cellular Environment: Fluids and Electrolytes,
Acids and Bases
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient has a long history of smoking.He has blood studies done because he is very tired, is short of breath, and just does not feel well.His blood gases reveal the following findings: pH, 7.3; HCO 27 mEq/L; CO , 58 mmHg.What is the interpretation of these gases?
A)Respiratory alkalosis
B)Metabolic acidosis
C)Respiratory acidosis
D)Metabolic alkalosis
Answer: C
Q2) Depression, confusion, irritability, increased reflexes, tetany
A)Hyponatremia
B)Hypernatremia
C)Hypercalcemia
D)Hypokalemia
E)Hypomagnesemia
Answer: E
Q3) Hypokalemia as well as hyperkalemia can cause muscle weakness.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Page 5
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Chapter 4: Genes and Genetic Diseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) If a boy has hemophilia A, he inherited it from:
A)his father.
B)his mother.
C)both parents.
D)his maternal grandparents.
Q2) The purpose of a staining technique of chromosomes such as Giemsa is to:
A)allow the mitotic process to be followed and monitored for variations.
B)allow the numbering of chromosomes and identification of variations.
C)identify new somatic cells formed through mitosis and cytokinesis.
D)distinguish the sex chromosome from the homologous chromosomes.
Q3) Cystic fibrosis is caused by an __________________ gene.
A)X-linked dominant
B)X-linked recessive
C)autosomal dominant
D)autosomal recessive
Q4) Sickle cell disease
A)Autosomal dominant
B)Autosomal recessive
C)X-linked dominant
D)X-linked recessive
Page 6
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Chapter 5: Genes, Environment, and Common Diseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) Studies have identified several genes that play a role in the prevention of obesity by:
A)regulating appetite.
B)metabolizing fat.
C)absorbing fat.
D)altering satiety.
Q2) Environmental modification can reduce risk for developing diseases that have a genetic and environmental component.
A)True
B)False
Q3) If a woman has one first-degree relative with breast cancer, her risk of developing breast cancer is _____ times what it would otherwise be.
A)2
B)3
C)6
D)10
Q4) Breast cancer manifests in familial patterns.
A)True
B)False
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Page 7
Chapter 6: Innate Immunity: Inflammation
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Sample Questions
Q1) One purpose of the inflammatory process is to:
A)provide specific responses toward antigens.
B)lyse cell membranes of microorganisms.
C)prevent infection of the injured tissue.
D)create immunity against subsequent tissue injury.
Q2) Neutrophils are involved in activation of the adaptive immune system.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Sebaceous glands
A)Secrete antibacterial and antifungal fatty acids and lactic acid
B)Attack cell walls of gram-positive bacteria
Q4) Microorganisms are killed and digested
A)Opsonization
B)Engulfment
C)Phagosome
D)Fusion
E)Destruction
Q5) Tears
A)Secrete antibacterial and antifungal fatty acids and lactic acid
B)Attack cell walls of gram-positive bacteria
8
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Chapter 7: Adaptive Immunity
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Sample Questions
Q1) Th2 cells produce IL-4 that suppresses:
A)B lymphocytes.
B)cytotoxic T lymphocytes.
C)Th1.
D)memory T lymphocytes.
Q2) Major histocompatibility complex (MHC) molecules are located on the surface of all body cells except erythrocytes.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The most important determinant of immunogenicity is the antigen's:
A)size.
B)foreignness.
C)complexity.
D)quantity.
Q4) Antibodies cannot protect a host against viral infections.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Recognize antigens presented by exogenous protein molecules
A)CD 4 cells
B)CD 8 cells
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Chapter 8: Alterations in Immunity and Inflammation
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Sample Questions
Q1) During an IgE-mediated hypersensitivity reaction, which leukocyte is activated?
A)Neutrophils
B)Monocytes
C)Eosinophils
D)T lymphocytes
Q2) Atopic individuals tend to produce higher levels of IgM.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The class of antibody involved in type I hypersensitivity reactions is:
A)IgA.
B)IgE.
C)IgG.
D)IgM.
Q4) Deficiencies in which element can produce depression of both B- and T-cell function?
A)Iron
B)Zinc
C)Iodine
D)Magnesium
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Chapter 9: Infection
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Sample Questions
Q1) An important factor in determining a pathogen's ability to produce disease by production of a soluble toxin
A)Toxigenicity
B)Infectivity
C)Pathogenicity
D)Virulence
Q2) What is the role of reverse transcriptase in HIV infection?
A)It converts single DNA into double-stranded DNA.
B)It is needed to produce integrase.
C)It transports the RNA into the cell nucleus.
D)It converts RNA into double-stranded DNA.
Q3) Which statement about vaccines is true?
A)Most bacterial vaccines contain attenuated organisms.
B)Most viral vaccines are made by using dead organisms.
C)Vaccines require booster injections to maintain lifelong protection.
D)Vaccines provide effective protection for all people against viruses, bacteria, and fungal infections.
Q4) Immunoglobulins are important in controlling fungi.
A)True
B)False
11
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Chapter 10: Stress and Disease
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Sample Questions
Q1) The effect epinephrine has on the immune system during stress response is to increase:
A)NK cells.
B)immunoglobulins.
C)cytokines.
D)helper T cells.
Q2) Although stress generally inhibits the female reproductive system, it increases the production of testosterone.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The decrease in insulin during a stress response prevents glucose from being taken up by peripheral tissue so that more glucose will be available for the CNS.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What effect do androgens have on lymphocytes?
A)Suppression of B cells and enhancement of T cells
B)Suppression of T cells and enhancement of B cells
C)Suppression of B cells and T cells
D)Enhancement of B cells and T cells
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Chapter 11: Biology, Clinical Manifestations, and Treatment of Cancer
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Sample Questions
Q1) What are characteristics of cancer in situ?
A)Cells have broken through the local basement membrane.
B)Cells have invaded immediate surrounding tissue.
C)Cells remain localized in the glandular or squamous cells.
D)Cellular and tissue changes indicate dysplasia.
Q2) For the function of tumor suppressor genes to be lost, only one chromosome (allele) of the gene must be inactivated.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Cells from a muscle tumor show a reduced ability to form new muscle and appear highly disorganized.This is an example of:
A)dysplasia.
B)hyperplasia.
C)myoplasia.
D)anaplasia.
Q4) The Papanicolaou (Pap) test is used to screen for which cancer?
A)Ovarian
B)Uterine
C)Cervical
D)Vaginal
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Chapter 12: Cancer Epidemiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following diagnostic tests provides the greatest exposure to ionizing radiation?
A)A four-view mammogram
B)A whole body DEXA scan
C)A CT scan of the abdomen
D)A PET scan of the brain
Q2) Tobacco smoking is associated with cancers of all of the following except: A)lung.
B)skin.
C)bladder.
D)kidney.
E)pancreas.
Q3) Which of the following has been shown to increase the risk of cancer when used in combination with tobacco smoking?
A)Alcohol
B)Steroids
C)Antihistamines
D)Antidepressants
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Chapter 13: Cancer in Children
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Sample Questions
Q1) Most childhood cancers arise from the:
A)epithelium.
B)mesodermal germ layer.
C)embryologic ectodermal layer.
D)viscera.
Q2) What congenital malformation is commonly linked to acute leukemia in children?
A)Down syndrome
B)Wilms tumor
C)Retinoblastoma
D)Neuroblastoma
Q3) Leukemia is the most common malignancy in children.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Chronic myelogenous leukemia, retinoblastoma, and osteosarcoma are associated with which genetic factors in childhood cancers?
A)Chromosome aberrations or single gene defects
B)Mutation of proto-oncogenes to oncogenes
C)Tumor-suppressor genes that have lost their suppressor function
D)Congenital malformations
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Chapter 14: Structure and Function of the Neurologic System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The brain receives approximately ____% of the cardiac output.
A)80
B)40
C)20
D)10
Q2) Which of the following transmit a nerve impulse at the highest rate?
A)Large nonmyelinated axons
B)Large myelinated axons
C)Small nonmyelinated axons
D)Small myelinated axons
Q3) From which part of the midbrain do cranial nerves V to VIII emerge?
A)Midbrain
B)Pons
C)Medulla oblongata
D)Lateral colliculi
Q4) Cholinergic effects increase heart rate, increase contractility, and cause release of renin from the kidneys.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 15: Pain, Temperature Regulation, Sleep, and
Sensory Function
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69 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Pain that is the result of muscle spasms, tenderness, and stiffness and leads to muscle guarding that limits muscle motion
A)Myofascial pain syndrome
B)Neuropathic pain
C)Deafferentation pain
D)Sympathetically maintained pain (SMP)
Q2) Pain _____ is the duration of time or the intensity of pain that a person will endure before outwardly responding.
A)tolerance
B)perception
C)threshold
D)dominance
Q3) The nociceptors are at the ends of the large myelinated efferent neurons.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Early treatment of fever is important because fever has no therapeutic benefit.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 16: Alterations in Cognitive Systems, Cerebral
Hemodynamics and Motor Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is a description of Cheyne-Stokes respirations?
A)A sustained deep rapid, but regular pattern of breathing
B)A smooth increase in rate and depth followed by a gradual smooth decrease in rate and depth
C)A prolonged inspiratory period followed gradually by a short expiratory period
D)A completely irregular breathing pattern with random shallow, deep breaths and irregular pauses
Q2) Vomiting is associated with CNS injuries that compress which anatomic location(s)?
A)Vestibular nuclei in the lower pons and medulla oblongata
B)Floor of the third ventricle
C)Vestibular nuclei in the midbrain
D)Diencephalon
Q3) Upper motor neuron disorders
A)Paroxysmal dyskinesia
B)Flaccidity
C)Wernicke aphasia
D)Spasticity
E)Akinesia
F)Broca dysphasia
Page 18
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Chapter 17: Disorders of the Central and Peripheral Nervous
Systems and the Neuromuscular Junction
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Sample Questions
Q1) Microinfarcts resulting in pure motor or pure sensory deficits are the result of which type of stroke?
A)Embolic
B)Hemorrhagic
C)Lacunar
D)Thrombotic
Q2) Spinal cord injuries are most likely to occur in which of the following regions?
A)Cervical and thoracic
B)Thoracic and lumbar
C)Lumbar and sacral
D)Cervical and lumbar
Q3) Atheromatous plaques are most commonly found:
A)in the larger veins.
B)near capillary sphincters.
C)at branches of arteries.
D)on the venous sinuses.
Q4) Caused most commonly by motor vehicle accidents
A)Contusion
B)Extradural hematoma
C)Subdural hematoma
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Chapter 18: Neurobiology of Schizophrenia, Mood Disorders, and Anxiety Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) From 20% to 30% of individuals with depression have dysregulated:
A)sleep cycles.
B)pituitary function.
C)eating patterns.
D)thyroid function.
Q2) Alterations in which part of the brain are linked to hallucinations, delusions, and thought disorders associated with schizophrenia?
A)Parietal lobe
B)Limbic system
C)Temporal lobe
D)Hypothalamus
Q3) The common property among the three types of medications used to treat depression is that they:
A)increase neurotransmitter levels within the synapse.
B)increase neurotransmitter levels in the presynapse.
C)decrease neurotransmitter levels in the postsynapse.
D)decrease neurotransmitter levels within the synapse.
Q4) Mania is the most common mood disorder.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 19: Alterations of Neurologic Function in Children
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following may indicate an underlying condition of spina bifida?
A)Abnormal growth of skin along the spine
B)A midline dimple with a sinus tract
C)A cutaneous port-wine angioma
D)A subcutaneous lipoma
E)Coarse growth of hair along the spine
Q2) Lead absorption in children causes anemia by impairing the:
A)lysing of erythrocytes.
B)absorption of vitamin B12.
C)absorption of folic acid.
D)absorption of iron.
Q3) Anterior midline defects of neural tube closure cause developmental defects in the: A)brain and skull.
B)spinal cord.
C)vertebrae.
D)peripheral nerves.
Q4) Spina bifida occulta occurs in 10% to 25% of infants.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 20: Mechanisms of Hormonal Regulation
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Sample Questions
Q1) When insulin binds its receptors on muscle cells, an increase in glucose uptake by the muscle cells is the result.This is an example of a _____ effect by a hormone.
A)pharmacologic
B)permissive
C)synergistic
D)direct
Q2) The releasing hormones that are made in the hypothalamus travel to the anterior pituitary via the:
A)vessels of the zona fasciculata.
B)infundibular stem.
C)hypophysial stalk.
D)portal hypophysial blood vessels.
Q3) Calcium is rigidly controlled within cells.It is highly regulated because it:
A)is controlled by the calcium negative-feedback loop.
B)is continuously synthesized.
C)acts as a second messenger.
D)carries lipid-soluble hormones in the bloodstream.
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22
Chapter 21: Alterations of Hormonal Regulation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following laboratory values is consistently low in a client with diabetes insipidus (DI)?
A)Urine specific gravity
B)Serum sodium
C)Urine protein
D)Serum total protein
Q2) Renal failure is the most common cause of which type of hyperparathyroidism?
A)Primary
B)Secondary
C)Exogenous
D)Inflammatory
Q3) What are clinical manifestations of hypothyroidism?
A)Intolerance to heat, tachycardia, and weight loss
B)Oligomenorrhea, fatigue, and warm skin
C)Restlessness, increased appetite, and metrorrhagia
D)Constipation, decreased heat rate, and lethargy
Q4) Thyroid carcinoma, although rare, is the most common endocrine malignancy.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 22: Structure and Function of the Reproductive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The Skene glands are located on either side of the:
A)introitus.
B)urinary meatus.
C)clitoris.
D)vestibule.
Q2) The major difference between male and female sex hormone production is that:
A)LH has no apparent action in a man.
B)in a man sex hormone production is relatively constant.
C)estradiol is not produced in a man.
D)in a man GnRH does not cause the release of FSH.
Q3) Acts on the Leydig cells to regulate testosterone secretion
A)Gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH)
B)Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)
C)Luteinizing hormone (LH)
D)Estrogen
E)Progesterone
Q4) The human zygote has a total of 23 chromosomes.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 23: Alterations of the Reproductive Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) Varicocele
A)Painless diverticulum of the epididymis located between the head of the epididymis and the testis
B)Collection of fluid in the tunica vaginalis
C)Rotation of a testis, which twists blood vessels of the spermatic cord
D)Abnormal dilation of the vein within the spermatic cord
Q2) The first sign of puberty in girls is:
A)thelarche.
B)growth of pubic hair.
C)menstruation.
D)vaginal discharge.
Q3) What are typical findings on breast palpation of a client with fibroadenoma?
A)Painful, round, movable, and fluid-filled mass
B)Painless, movable, hard, and irregular mass
C)Painless, firm, elastic, and well-circumscribed mass
D)Painful, nonmovable, irregular, and soft mass
Q4) In a woman with endometriosis, endometrial tissue that responds to hormonal changes of the menstrual cycle may be found in the lungs.
A)True
B)False
Page 25
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Chapter 24: Sexually Transmitted Infections
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Q1) Haemophilus ducreyi
A)Trichomoniasis
B)Bacterial vaginosis
C)Amebiasis
D)Syphilis
E)Chancroid
Q2) T.pallidum cannot be cultured.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Treponema pallidum
A)Trichomoniasis
B)Bacterial vaginosis
C)Amebiasis
D)Syphilis
E)Chancroid
Q4) Epstein-Barr virus (EBV)
A)The most common serious viral infection among infants
B)Causes condylomata acuminata
C)May contribute to the development of genital cancer
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Chapter 25: Structure and Function of the Hematologic System
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Q1) Lung
A)Kupffer cells
B)Alveolar macrophages
C)Microglial cells
D)Mesangial cells
E)Langerhans cells
Q2) Which statement about plasma proteins is false?
A)Plasma proteins provide clotting factors.
B)Plasma proteins transport triglycerides and cholesterol.
C)Plasma proteins synthesize complement proteins.
D)Plasma proteins create hydrostatic pressure.
Q3) The role of thromboxane A (TXA ) in the secretion stage of hemostasis is to:
A)stimulate the synthesis of serotonin.
B)promote vasodilation.
C)stimulate platelet aggregation.
D)promote formation of cyclooxygenase.
Q4) Thrombocytes develop from megakaryocytes in response to granulocyte-macrophage colony- stimulating factor (GM-CSF).
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 26: Alterations of Erythrocyte Function
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Q1) Atrophy of gastric mucosal cells results in pernicious anemia because of:
A)erythrocyte destruction.
B)folic acid malabsorption.
C)vitamin B malabsorption.
D)poor nutritional intake.
Q2) The most common cause of iron deficiency anemia is:
A)decreased dietary intake.
B)chronic blood loss.
C)vitamin deficiency.
D)autoimmune disease.
Q3) The Schilling test is described as the:
A)administration of radioactive cobalamin and the measurement of its excretion in the urine to test for vitamin B deficiency.
B)measurement of antigen-antibody immune complexes in the blood to test for hemolytic anemia.
C)measurement of serum ferritin and total iron-binding capacity in the blood to test for iron deficiency anemia.
D)administration of folate and measurement in 2 hours of its level in a blood sample to test for folic acid deficiency anemia.
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Page 28
Chapter 27: Alterations of Leukocyte, Lymphoid, and Hemostatic Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) The most reliable and specific test for diagnosing DIC is:
A)prothrombin time (PT).
B)activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT).
C)fibrin degradation products (FDP).
D)D-dimer.
Q2) Which of the following is a description consistent with chronic myelogenous leukemia (CML)?
A)There are defects in the ras oncogene, TP53 tumor-suppressor gene, and INK4A, the gene encoding a cell-cycle regulatory protein.
B)The bone marrow and peripheral blood are characterized by leukocytosis and a predominance of blast cells. As the immature blasts increase, they replace normal myelocytic cells, megakaryocytes, and erythrocytes.
C)There is failure of B cells to mature into plasma cells that synthesize immunoglobulins.
D)The translocation of genetic material from genes 9 and 22 creates an abnormal, fused protein identified as BCR-ABL.
Q3) In the leukemias, a single progenitor cell undergoes malignant transformation.
A)True B)False
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Chapter 28: Alterations of Hematologic Function in Children
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Sample Questions
Q1) Between 4 years of age and the onset of puberty, dietary iron deficiency is common.
A)True
B)False
Q2) How does HDN cause acquired congenital hemolytic anemia?
A)HDN develops when hypoxia or dehydration cause the erythrocytes to change shapes, which are then recognized as foreign and removed from circulation.
B)HDN is an alloimmune disease in which the mother's immune system produces antibodies against fetal erythrocytes, which are recognized as foreign and removed from circulation.
C)HDN develops when the polycythemia present in fetal life continues after birth, causing the excessive number of erythrocytes to be removed from circulation.
D)HDN is an autoimmune disease in which the fetus's immune system produces antibodies against fetal erythrocytes, which are recognized as foreign and removed from circulation.
Q3) Hemoglobin in a fetus has less affinity for oxygen than hemoglobin in an adult.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 29: Structure and Function of the Cardiovascular and Lymphatic Systems
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Q1) Within a physiologic range, an increase in left ventricular end-diastolic volume (preload) leads to a(n):
A)increased force of contraction.
B)decrease in refractory time.
C)increase in afterload.
D)decrease in repolarization.
Q2) Cross-bridge theory
A)Relationship among blood flow, pressure, and resistance
B)Increased heart rate from increased volume
C)Relationship of wall tension intraventricular pressure, internal radius, and wall thickness
D)Cycles of attachment, movement, and dissociation of thin filaments during the attachments of actin to myosin
E)Length-tension relationship of cardiac muscle
Q3) Where are the receptors for neurotransmitters located in the heart?
A)Semilunar and atrioventricular valves
B)Endocardium and sinoatrial node
C)Myocardium and coronary vessels
D)Epicardium and atrioventricular node
Page 31
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Chapter 30: Alterations of Cardiovascular Function
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Q1) Biventricular dilation is the result of which form of cardiomyopathy?
A)Hypertrophic
B)Restrictive
C)Dilated
D)Inflammatory
Q2) Superior vena cava syndrome is a progressive _____ of the superior vena cava that leads to venous distention of the upper extremities and head.
A)inflammation
B)occlusion
C)distention
D)sclerosis
Q3) Many cases of mitral valve prolapse are completely asymptomatic.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Decreasing low-density lipoproteins (LDLs) can cause regression of atherosclerotic lesions and improve endothelial function.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 31: Alterations of Cardiovascular Function in Children
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Q1) Which heart defect produces a systolic ejection click at the upper left sternal border with a thrill palpated at the upper left sternal border?
A)Coarctation of the aorta
B)Pulmonic stenosis (PS)
C)Aortic stenosis
D)Hypoplastic left heart syndrome
Q2) Common clinical manifestations of right ventricular failure in infants include unexplained weight gain and periorbital edema.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The purpose of the foramen ovale is to allow a right-to-left shunt necessary for fetal circulation.
A)True
B)False
Q4) At birth which of the following statements is true?
A)Systemic resistance and pulmonary resistance fall.
B)There is a shift in gas exchange from the placenta to the lung.
C)Systemic resistance falls and pulmonary resistance rises.
D)Systemic resistance and pulmonary resistance rise.
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Chapter 32: Structure and Function of the Pulmonary System
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42 Verified Questions
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Q1) The sternocleidomastoid and scalene muscles are referred to as:
A)diaphragmatic muscles.
B)muscles of expiration.
C)intercostal muscles.
D)muscles of inspiration.
Q2) Air passage between alveoli is collateral and evenly distributed because of the: A)type I alveolar cells.
B)pores of Kohn.
C)acinus pores.
D)alveolar pores.
Q3) Normal physiologic changes in the aging pulmonary system include:
A)decreased flow resistance.
B)fewer alveoli.
C)stiffening of the chest wall.
D)improved elastic recoil.
Q4) Ventilation exceeds perfusion in the bases of the lungs, whereas perfusion exceeds ventilation in the apices of the lungs.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 33: Alterations of Pulmonary Function
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Q1) Alveolar dead space is a result of:
A)pulmonary edema.
B)pulmonary emboli.
C)atelectasis.
D)pneumonia.
Q2) Clinical manifestations of inspiratory crackles, increased tactile fremitus, egophony, and whispered pectoriloquy are indicative of:
A)chronic bronchitis.
B)emphysema.
C)pneumonia.
D)asthma.
Q3) Dyspnea is not a result of:
A)decreased pH, increased PaCO , and decreased PaO .
B)decreased blood flow to the medulla oblongata.
C)stimulation of stretch or J-receptors.
D)fatigue of the intercostal muscles and diaphragm.
Q4) The greatest single risk factor for reactivation of tuberculosis is infection with HIV.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 34: Alterations of Pulmonary Function in Children
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Q1) The release of fibroblast growth factors affects ARDS by causing:
A)atelectasis and decreased lung compliance.
B)disruption of alveolocapillary membrane.
C)pulmonary hypertension.
D)pulmonary fibrosis.
Q2) Sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS) occurs most often between _____ and _____ months of age.
A)1; 2
B)3; 4
C)5; 6
D)6; 7
Q3) Bronchial problems
A)Sonorous snoring
B)Muffled voice
C)High-pitched inspiratory sound, voice change, hoarse
D)Expiratory stridor or central wheeze
E)Expiratory wheezes
Q4) About 75% of aspirated foreign objects in children lodge in a bronchus.
A)True
B)False
36
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Chapter 35: Structure and Function of the Renal and Urologic Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) How high does the serum glucose have to be for the threshold for glucose to be achieved?
A)126 mg/dl
B)150 mg/dl
C)180 mg/dl
D)200 mg/dl
Q2) The concentration of the final urine is determined by antidiuretic hormone (ADH), which is secreted by the:
A)posterior pituitary.
B)right atrium.
C)left atrium.
D)anterior pituitary.
Q3) _____ is a hormone synthesized and secreted by the kidneys.
A)Antidiuretic hormone
B)Aldosterone
C)Erythropoietin
D)Angiotensinogen
Q4) The target tissue for angiotensin II is the blood vessels and adrenal medulla.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 36: Alterations of Renal and Urinary Tract Function
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Q1) Goodpasture syndrome is an example of:
A)antiglomerular basement membrane disease.
B)acute glomerulonephritis.
C)chronic glomerulonephritis.
D)immunoglobulin A (IgA) nephropathy.
Q2) Bladder cancer is associated with gene mutation of:
A)c-erbB2.
B)HER2.
C)TP53.
D)myc.
Q3) Acute tubular necrosis
A)Prerenal
B)Intrarenal
C)Postrenal
Q4) Considering the innervation of the circular muscles of the bladder neck, which classification of drug is used to treat bladder neck obstruction?
A)b-Adrenergic blocking medications
B)a-Adrenergic blocking medications
C)Parasympathomimetic medications
D)Anticholinesterase medications
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Chapter 37: Alterations of Renal and Urinary Tract Function in Children
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Q1) Fibrin rich thrombi can be found throughout the microcirculation
A)Hemolytic-uremic syndrome
B)Henoch-Schönlein purpura nephritis
C)Renal dysplasia
D)Ureteropelvic junction obstruction
E)Polycystic kidney disease
Q2) Chordee is a congenital defect of the genitourinary tract that results in a ventral curvature of the penis.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The total electrolyte concentration in extracellular fluids is greater in the newborn than in the adult.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What initiates inflammation in acute poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis (PSGN)?
A)Lysosomal enzymes
B)Endotoxins from the streptococcus
C)Immune complexes
D)Immunoglobulin E (IgE) mediated response
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Chapter 38: Structure and Function of the Digestive System
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Q1) The two requirements necessary in order for calcium at concentrations less than 5 mmol/L to be absorbed through the ileum are vitamin:
A)C and a receptor site on the surface of the ileum.
B)D and a carrier protein.
C)K and pepsin.
D)B and carboxypeptidase.
Q2) Which water-soluble vitamin is absorbed by passive diffusion?
A)Vitamin B
B)Vitamin B
C)Vitamin C
D)Folic acid
Q3) The ileogastric reflex inhibits gastric motility when the ileum becomes distended, but the gastroileal reflex stimulates ileal motility and relaxes the ileocecal sphincter.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Insulin is required for active absorption of carbohydrates by the small intestine. A)True
B)False
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Chapter 39: Alterations of Digestive Function
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Q1) Alterations in immunoglobulin G production have been found in individuals with this disorder.
A)Ulcerative colitis
B)Crohn disease
Q2) Reflux esophagitis may be defined as a(n):
A)immune response to gastroesophageal reflux.
B)inflammatory response to gastroesophageal reflux.
C)congenital anomaly.
D)secretory response to gastroesophageal reflux.
Q3) Which of the following is consistent with dumping syndrome?
A)Usually responds well to dietary management
B)Occurs 1 to 2 hours after eating
C)Is seen following intestinal surgery
D)Can result in alkaline reflux gastritis
Q4) The type of diarrhea that is a result of unhydrolyzed lactose is referred to as:
A)motility.
B)osmotic.
C)secretory.
D)small-volume.
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Chapter 40: Alterations of Digestive Function in Children
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Q1) Increased gastrin secretion by the mother in the last trimester of pregnancy may cause:
A)pyloric stenosis.
B)meconium ileus.
C)esophageal atresia.
D)galactosemia.
Q2) Meconium ileus is often associated with:
A)muscular dystrophy.
B)cerebral palsy.
C)cystic fibrosis.
D)congenital aganglionic megacolon.
Q3) The primary cause of intrahepatic portal hypertension in children is cirrhosis.
A)True
B)False
Q4) In most cases, cleft lip and cleft palate are caused by multiple factors-genetic and environmental-including maternal use of alcohol and tobacco.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 41: Structure and Function of the Musculoskeletal System
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Q1) The joint capsule is avascular.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Fibroblasts, capillary buds, and osteoblasts move into the wound to produce granulation tissue.
A)Callus replacement
B)Hematoma formation
C)Remodeling
D)Procallus formation
E)Callus formation
Q3) Which ion directly controls the contraction of muscles?
A)Sodium
B)Potassium
C)Calcium
D)Magnesium
Q4) Diarthroses are the most movable and the most complex joints.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 42: Alterations of Musculoskeletal Function
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Q1) Myoadenylate deaminase deficiency
A)Caused by sedatives and narcotics, particularly street heroin
B)Caused by viruses, bacteria, and parasites
C)Exercise intolerance with normal production of lactic acid
D)Impairs the breakdown of glycogen and production of lactic acid
E)Autoimmune disease
Q2) _____ fractures usually occur in individuals who engage in a new activity that is strenuous and repetitive.
A)Stress
B)Greenstick
C)Insufficiency
D)Pathologic
Q3) _____ is the temporary displacement of two bones in which the bone surfaces partially lose contact.
A)Dislocation
B)Subluxation
C)Malunion
D)Nonunion
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Chapter 43: Alterations of Musculoskeletal Function in Children
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Sample Questions
Q1) Rhabdomyosarcoma can develop anywhere _____ muscle is located.
A)cardiac
B)smooth
C)involuntary
D)striated
Q2) Which protein, absent in muscle cells of Duchenne muscular dystrophy, mediates the anchoring of skeletal muscles fibers to the basement membrane?
A)Syntrophin
B)Laminin
C)Dystrophin
D)Troponin
Q3) In adult rheumatoid arthritis (AR) and juvenile rheumatoid arthritis (JRA), the large joints are predominantly affected.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Unlike adult-onset RA, JRA is not a syndrome that is often accompanied by systemic manifestations.
A)True
B)False
45
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Chapter 44: Structure, Function, and Disorders of the Integument
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Q1) _____ is a fungal infection of the nail plate.
A)Paronychia
B)Onychomycosis
C)Tinea corporis
D)Tinea capitis
Q2) Which malignancy is characterized by slow-growing lesions that usually have depressed centers and rolled borders and are frequently located on the face and neck?
A)Squamous cell carcinoma
B)Kaposi sarcoma
C)Malignant melanoma
D)Basal cell carcinoma
Q3) _____ is a benign proliferation of basal cells that produces smooth or warty elevated lesions on the chest, back, and face that are tan or waxy, yellow, flesh-colored, or dark brown-black.
A)Basalokeratosis
B)Seborrheic keratosis
C)Keratoacanthoma
D)Actinic keratosis
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Chapter 45: Alterations of the Integument in Children
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Q1) _____ is a contagious disease caused by the itch mite.
A)Miliaria
B)Tinea corporis
C)Pediculosis
D)Scabies
Q2) Pink-to-red coalescing maculopapular rash on the scalp or trunk
A)Rubella (German measles)
B)Rubeola (red measles)
C)Roseola (exanthema subitum)
D)Varicella (chickenpox)
E)Herpes zoster (shingles)
Q3) Acne lesions may be divided into inflammatory lesions (pustules, papules, and nodules) and noninflammatory lesions (closed and open comedones).
A)True
B)False
Q4) What is the cause of chickenpox?
A)Poxvirus
B)Varicella-zoster virus (VZV)
C)Adenovirus
D)Human papillomavirus
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Chapter 46: Shock, Multiple Organ Dysfunction Syndrome, and
Burns in Adult
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Q1) Second-degree burns can be full-thickness burns.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The gastrointestinal system is very sensitive to inflammatory injury resulting from mediators released by macrophages.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Follows major burns
A)Cardiogenic shock
B)Hypovolemic shock
C)Neurogenic shock
D)Anaphylactic shock
E)Septic shock
Q4) A clinical syndrome involving a systemic response to infection, which is manifested by two or more of the systemic inflammatory response syndrome (SIRS) criteria is the definition of:
A)bacteremia.
B)sepsis.
C)severe sepsis.
D)septic shock.
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Chapter 47: Shock, Multiple Organ Dysfunction Syndrome, and Burns in Children
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Q1) In children in shock, crystalloids and colloids are generally administered in boluses of ___ ml/kg.
A)5
B)10
C)15
D)20
Q2) Considering a normal capillary refill time for infants and children is 1.5 to 2 seconds, a refill time of 3 seconds is associated with a greater than ____% dehydration.
A)2
B)5
C)10
D)15
Q3) Children are at high risk for pulmonary complications because of:
A)immature lungs.
B)anatomic differences in their airways.
C)decreased immunity.
D)high incidences of pneumonia.
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