Pathophysiology for Allied Health Exam
Materials
Course Introduction
Pathophysiology for Allied Health explores the physiological processes and mechanisms underlying common diseases and disorders as they relate to patient care in allied health professions. This course examines how alterations in normal body functions lead to health complications, focusing on the relationship between disease, symptoms, and diagnostic findings. Students learn to analyze pathophysiological changes across bodily systems, including cardiovascular, respiratory, neurological, renal, endocrine, and immune systems. Special emphasis is placed on clinical manifestations, risk factors, and the implications of pathophysiology in treatment planning and patient education, preparing students to apply this knowledge in a variety of healthcare settings.
Recommended Textbook
Pathophysiology for the Health Professions 4th Edition by Barbara Gould
Available Study Resources on Quizplus
28 Chapters
1172 Verified Questions
1172 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/2155 Page 2
Chapter 1: Introduction to Pathophysiology
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
34 Verified Questions
34 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42943
Sample Questions
Q1) A short-term illness that develops very quickly with perhaps a high fever or severe pain is called:
A)acute
B)latent
C)chronic
D)manifestation
Answer: A
Q2) What is an acute episode of a chronic disease called?
A)an exacerbation
B)a prodromal period
C)a complication
D)a sequel
Answer: A
Q3) Lack of exercise during an illness may cause skeletal muscle to undergo:
A)hypertrophy
B)dysplasia
C)atrophy
D)regeneration
Answer: C
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 3
Chapter 2: Inflammation and Healing
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
62 Verified Questions
62 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42944
Sample Questions
Q1) A specific defense for the body is:
A)phagocytosis
B)sensitized T-lymphocytes
C)the inflammatory response
D)intact skin and mucous membranes
Answer: B
Q2) Systemic manifestations of an inflammatory response include:
A)edema and erythema
B)area of necrosis and loss of function
C)pain and tenderness
D)elevated C-reactive protein and leukocytosis
Answer: D
Q3) All of the following are correct statements regarding wound healing EXCEPT:
A)Resolution occurs where there is minimal tissue damage and the cells can recover.
B)Granulation tissue forms a permanent replacement for damaged tissue.
C)Regeneration occurs where the cells are capable of mitosis.
D)Scar tissue forms where the surrounding cells are incapable of mitosis.
Answer: B
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
4
Chapter 3: Immunity and Abnormal Responses
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
34 Verified Questions
34 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42945
Sample Questions
Q1) Which statement is TRUE regarding infants born to HIV infected mothers?
A)Infants usually test negative for HIV after birth.
B)There is little risk of infected mothers passing the virus to their infants during delivery.
C)Breast milk does not contain HIV or antibodies.
D)Infants test positive for HIV due to presence of maternal antibodies.
Answer: D
Q2) Systemic lupus erythematosus is caused by:
A)a chronic allergic condition
B)development of an immune-deficient state
C)a deficiency of T-lymphocytes
D)immune complex deposits of antinuclear antibodies
Answer: D
Q3) A diagnosis of HIV positive means that:
A)the number of T-lymphocytes in the circulating blood is decreased
B)significant opportunistic infection is present in the body
C)the individual has AIDS
D)the virus and its antibodies are in the blood
Answer: D
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
5
Chapter 4: Infection
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
48 Verified Questions
48 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42946
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a characteristic of rickettsia?
A)It is a very small gram-negative intracellular microbe.
B)It exists in three forms.
C)It causes sexually transmitted disease.
D)It reproduces by budding.
Q2) Which statement applies to yeasts? They:
A)are usually considered to be pathogenic
B)consist of clusters of cells
C)may cause opportunistic infection in the body
D)are normally not found in resident flora
Q3) Microbial mutation means that:
A)genetic information and some microbial characteristics have changed
B)pathogens become nonpathogens
C)the microbe survives adverse conditions but can no longer replicate
D)the immune response to that microbe is strengthened
Q4) Inflamed tissue is likely to become infected because:
A)the immune system is not effective in inflamed tissue
B)the increased fluid and protein in the inflamed area supports microbial growth
C)phagocytes cannot penetrate the inflamed areas
D)capillaries are less permeable in the affected area
Page 6
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 5: Neoplasms
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
31 Verified Questions
31 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42947
Sample Questions
Q1) Vomiting frequently follows a chemotherapy treatment because:
A)the gastrointestinal tract is irritated
B)the chemicals stimulate the emetic center
C)the drugs have an unpleasant odor
D)a,b
E)a,c
Q2) Which of the following does paraneoplastic syndrome refer to?
A)the effects of substances such as hormones secreted by the tumor cells
B)severe weight loss and cachexia associated with advanced cancer
C)the decreased resistance to infection resulting from malignant tumors
D)the effects of multiple metastatic tumors
Q3) A classification process that applies to a specific malignant tumor and describes the extent of the disease at a given time is called:
A)seeding
B)mutation
C)staging
D)grading
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 6: Fluid, Electrolyte and Acid-Base Imbalances
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
46 Verified Questions
46 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42948
Sample Questions
Q1) Choose the correct proportion of water to body weight to be expected in a healthy male adult's body:
A)30%
B)45%
C)60%
D)70%
Q2) Which condition is likely to cause metabolic acidosis?
A)slow,shallow respirations
B)prolonged diarrhea
C)mild vomiting
D)excessive fluid in the body
Q3) Which of the following is a common cause of hyponatremia?
A)loss of the thirst mechanism
B)excessive sweating
C)excessive aldosterone secretion
D)prolonged period of rapid,deep respirations
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
8
Chapter 7: Congenital and Genetic Disorders
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
31 Verified Questions
31 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42949
Sample Questions
Q1) The laboratory practice of changing DNA sequences in microorganisms is called:
A)the genotype
B)gene mutation
C)genetic engineering
D)gene therapy
Q2) A spontaneous alteration in genetic material that may result from exposure to harmful substances is termed:
A)autosome
B)genotype
C)meiosis
D)mutation
E)allele
Q3) When genetic influences combine with environmental factors to cause an abnormality,the result is called a:
A)chromosomal disorder
B)developmental disorder
C)multifactorial disorder
D)single-gene disorder
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
9
Chapter 8: Diseases Associated With Adolescence
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42950
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following would confirm reduced normal linear growth during adolescence?
A)levels of androgens
B)abnormally thin epiphyseal plate in X-ray
C)lack of a broader pelvis in males
D)development of kyphosis
Q2) What is/are common local signs of osteomyelitis?
A)joint swelling,limited movement
B)deformity of a limb,pain at rest
C)fever,leukocytosis,and malaise
D)a red,swollen area,pain increasing with movement
Q3) Bulimia nervosa is characterized by:
A)a refusal to eat
B)extreme weight loss
C)alternating binge-eating and purging
D)chronic diarrhea
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 9: Potential Complications of Pregnancy
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
14 Verified Questions
14 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42951
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a serious potential complication of abruptio placentae indicated by low serum levels of clotting factors?
A)severe hypertension
B)disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)
C)jaundice
D)thromboembolism
Q2) Place the following statements regarding Rh incompatibility in the correct sequence.Not all choices are included in each answer.
1)Hemolysis of fetal erythrocytes and anemia occur.
2)Maternal Rh-negative cells enter fetal blood.
3)Fetal Rh-positive cells enter maternal blood.
4)Elevated serum bilirubin levels develop in the fetus.
5)Antibodies to Rh-positive cells form in maternal blood.
6)Maternal Rh antibodies enter the fetal circulation.
A)3,1,4,6,5
B)6,2,4,3,5,1
C)3,5,6,1,4
D)2,3,6,1,4
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 11
Chapter 10: Aging and Disease Processes
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
14 Verified Questions
14 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42952
Sample Questions
Q1) Vision in the elderly may be impaired when the lens of the eye becomes larger and less elastic,resulting in:
A)presbyopia
B)cataracts
C)glaucoma
D)damage to the retina
Q2) Theories about the causes of aging include:
A)apoptosis
B)wear and tear
C)altered protein (amyloid)accumulation
D)degenerative changes in collagen or elastic fibers
E)all the above
Q3) All of the following changes are associated with aging EXCEPT:
A)loss of elastic fibers
B)decreased metabolic rate
C)decreased secretion of all hormones
D)degenerative vascular changes
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 12
Chapter 11: Effects of Immobility
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
13 Verified Questions
13 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42953
Sample Questions
Q1) Prolonged immobility may predispose to ___________ in the kidneys.
A)urinary stasis
B)renal calculi
C)infection
D)any of the above
Q2) What is a major factor predisposing to pulmonary infection in immobilized patients?
A)decreased activity and demand for oxygen
B)increased retention of CO
C)inability to sneeze forcefully
D)stasis of secretions in the lungs
Q3) The major problem associated with immobility and the gastrointestinal tract is:
A)constipation
B)diarrhea
C)nausea
D)increased rate of peristalsis
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
13
Chapter 12: The Influence of Stress
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
11 Verified Questions
11 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42954
Sample Questions
Q1) A serious consequence of a major disaster,first recognized in war veterans is:
A)stress ulcers
B)delayed tissue healing
C)posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD)
D)cancer
Q2) Possible complications caused by prolonged,severe stress include all EXCEPT:
A)hypertension
B)tension headache
C)diabetes mellitus
D)infection
E)blindness
Q3) Which of the following may alter a person's perception of a stressor?
A)the presence of several stressors at the same time
B)past experiences
C)lack of effective coping mechanisms
D)b,c
E)a,b,c
Q4) The basic physiologic response to stress is the same in all individuals.
A)True
B)False
Page 14
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 13: Pain
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42955
Sample Questions
Q1) The impulses related to acute pain are usually transmitted by:
A)nociceptors
B)myelinated A delta fibers
C)unmyelinated C fibers
D)any sensory fiber with a low pain threshold
Q2) What is the role of nociceptors? They are:
A)pain receptors that are stimulated by thermal,chemical,or physical means
B)spinal nerves that conduct impulses from specific areas of the skin
C)responsible for the state of arousal with pain
D)useful in localizing pain to a specific area of the body
Q3) Pain perceived in the left arm during the course of a heart attack is an example of:
A)referred pain
B)phantom pain
C)chronic pain
D)subjective pain response
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
15
Chapter 14: Substance Abuse
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
14 Verified Questions
14 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42956
Sample Questions
Q1) Chronic alcoholism is likely to cause all EXCEPT:
A)cirrhosis
B)mental confusion
C)loss of motor coordination
D)altered personality and amnesia
E)respiratory failure
Q2) What is/are the typical effect(s)of psychedelic substances?
A)drowsiness and euphoria
B)marked stimulation of the CNS
C)lethargy and decreased metabolic rate
D)altered perception and awareness as well as hallucinations
Q3) Which of the following statements is characteristic of alcohol? It:
A)is primarily a CNS stimulant
B)may cause congenital defects in infants born to alcoholic mothers
C)does not interact with other drugs in the CNS
D)usually causes severe kidney damage
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 16
Chapter 15: Environmental Hazards
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
19 Verified Questions
19 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42957
Sample Questions
Q1) A common illness for tourists in developing countries is "traveler's diarrhea," often caused by:
A)Salmonella
B)Shigella
C)E.coli
D)Listeria
Q2) Choose the correct effects of exposure of the ears to very cold temperatures:
A)loss of sensation
B)lethargy and confusion
C)vascular occlusions
D)a,b
E)a,c
Q3) Which of the following is likely to result from lead poisoning?
A)damage to the brain and peripheral nerves
B)inflammation and fibrosis in the lungs
C)various cancers
D)displacement of oxygen from hemoglobin
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
17
Chapter 16: Introduction to Basic Pharmacology and Selected Therapies
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42958
Sample Questions
Q1) Most drugs are metabolized in the ____ and excreted through the ____.
A)blood;intestines
B)lymph nodes;lungs
C)liver;kidneys
D)body cells;kidneys
Q2) The full course of a prescribed antimicrobial drug should be completed so as to prevent:
A)undesirable side effects
B)development of resistant microbes
C)an allergic response
D)any recurrence of infection in the distant future
Q3) Ingesting a drug with a large meal would likely:
A)immediately increase the blood level of the drug
B)delay the absorption of the drug into the blood
C)ensure that the total dose is absorbed into the blood
D)cause more rapid excretion of the drug
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 17: Blood and Lymphatic Disorders
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
50 Verified Questions
50 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42959
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following applies to sickle-cell trait?
A)Most hemoglobin is in the form of Hgb S.
B)Sickling of erythrocytes occurs with severe hypoxia.
C)Painful sickling crises with multiple infarctions occur frequently.
D)A child's skeletal growth is delayed.
Q2) Chronic blood loss causes anemia because of the:
A)shortened life span of the erythrocytes
B)lower metabolic rate
C)loss of protein and electrolytes
D)smaller amount of recycled iron available
Q3) Multiple opportunistic infections develop with acute leukemia primarily because:
A)the number of white blood cells is decreased
B)many circulating leukocytes are immature
C)severe anemia interferes with the immune response
D)decreased appetite and nutritional intake reduce natural defenses
Q4) Secondary polycythemia may be associated with:
A)frequent angina attacks
B)certain types of anemia
C)severe chronic bronchitis
D)renal disease
Page 19
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 18: Cardiovascular Disorders
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
104 Verified Questions
104 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42960
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following are significant signs of right-sided congestive heart failure?
A)severe chest pain and tachycardia
B)edematous feet and legs with hepatomegaly
C)frequent cough with blood-streaked frothy sputum
D)orthopnea,fatigue,increased blood pressure
Q2) An echocardiogram is used to demonstrate any abnormal:
A)activity in the conduction system
B)movement of the heart valves
C)change in central venous pressure
D)blood flow in coronary arteries
Q3) Which of the following drugs decrease sodium and fluid retention in the body?
A)warfarin (Coumadin)
B)digoxin (Lanoxin)
C)nitroglycerin (Isordil)
D)hydrochlorothiazide (Hydro DIURIL)
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 19: Respiratory Disorders
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
103 Verified Questions
103 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42961
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following predisposes to postoperative aspiration?
A)reduced pressure of the abdominal organs on the diaphragm
B)depression of the vomiting center by anesthetics and analgesics
C)depression of the cough and swallow reflexes by drugs
D)lack of food intake for the previous 24 hours
Q2) Which manifestation(s)of atelectasis is/are associated with airway obstruction?
A)bradycardia and dyspnea
B)tracheal deviation toward the unaffected side
C)decreased breath sounds on the affected side
D)rales and rhonchi
Q3) All of the following are expected with infant respiratory distress syndrome EXCEPT:
A)severe hypoxia
B)respiratory alkalosis
C)pulmonary vasoconstriction
D)fluid and protein in the alveoli
Q4) Whenever PO levels decrease below normal,then PCO levels:
A)increase
B)decrease also
C)may or may not change
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 21
Chapter 20: Digestive System Disorders
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
110 Verified Questions
110 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42962
Sample Questions
Q1) Prolonged or severe stress predisposes to peptic ulcer disease because:
A)of reduced blood flow to the gastric wall and mucous glands
B)of reduced bicarbonate content in bile and pancreatic secretions
C)stress increases the number of acid/pepsinogen secreting cells
D)increased epinephrine increases motility
Q2) The early stage of vomiting causes:
A)metabolic alkalosis
B)metabolic acidosis
C)increased respirations
D)increased excretion of hydrogen ions
Q3) In peptic ulcer disease,which of the following does NOT decrease the resistance of the mucosal barrier?
A)prolonged vasoconstriction
B)excessive glucocorticoid intake
C)proteases and cytotoxins from H.pylori
D)decreased vagal stimulation
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 21: Urinary System Disorders
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
68 Verified Questions
68 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42963
Sample Questions
Q1) What is the first indicator in the arterial blood gases of acidosis caused by kidney disease?
A)increased carbonic acid
B)increased bicarbonate ion
C)pH less than 7.35
D)decreased bicarbonate ion
Q2) In a case of acute pyelonephritis,what is the cause of flank pain?
A)inflammation,causing ischemia in the tubules
B)inflammation,stretching the renal capsule
C)increasing glomerular permeability,creating an increased volume of filtrate in the kidney
D)microbes irritating the tissues
Q3) Why may acute pyelonephritis and cystitis follow untreated prostatitis?
A)Microbes spread through the circulation.
B)Antibodies have not yet formed.
C)There is no effective treatment.
D)There is a continuous mucosa along these structures.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 23
Chapter 22: Acute Neurological Disorders
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
62 Verified Questions
62 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42964
Sample Questions
Q1) With regard to meningitis,choose the correct combination of microbe and the age group commonly affected.
A)E.coli: elderly
B)H.influenza: neonate
C)N.meningitides: children and youth
D)S.pneumoniae: young children
Q2) In the weeks following CVA,why might some neurologic function return?
1)presence of collateral circulation
2)immediate therapy to dissolve thrombi and maintain perfusion
3)reduced inflammation in the area
4)development of alternative neuronal pathways
A)1 only
B)2 only
C)1,3
D)2,3,4
E)1,2,3,4
Q3) How does the heart rate change as intracranial pressure increases?
A)rate decreases
B)rate increases
C)no change in rate
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 24
Chapter 23: Chronic Neurologic Disorders
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
43 Verified Questions
43 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42965
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following are typical characteristics associated with schizophrenia?
A)disorganized thought processes,short attention span,delusions
B)lack of energy and motivation,poor concentration,insomnia
C)hyperventilation,tachycardia,intense anxiety
D)memory loss,mood swings,hostile behavior
Q2) The ataxic form of cerebral palsy results from damage to the:
A)cerebellum
B)motor cortex
C)basal nuclei
D)pyramidal tracts
Q3) What causes a herniated intervertebral disc?
A)a tear in the nucleus pulposus
B)a protrusion of the nucleus pulposus through the annulus fibrosis
C)displacement of the annulus fibrosis between the laminae
D)failure of the spinous processes to restrict movement of the intervertebral disc
Q4) The defective gene for Huntington's disease can be detected in carriers.
A)true
B)false
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 25
Chapter 24: Disorders of the Eye and Ear
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
31 Verified Questions
31 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42966
Sample Questions
Q1) Trachoma is indicated by the presence of:
A)purulent exudate and red sclerae
B)corneal abrasions by the infected eyelids
C)diplopia and cloudy lens
D)ptosis and fixed dilation of the pupil
Q2) Why does vertigo occur with Ménière's syndrome?
A)Fluid is lost from the inner ear.
B)Increased blood pressure causes edema in the middle and inner ears.
C)Damage occurs to the vestibular branch of the auditory nerve.
D)Excessive endolymph impairs the function of hair cells in the labyrinth.
Q3) Which of the following statements is TRUE?
A)Conduction deafness results from inner ear damage.
B)Cochlear implants may restore hearing in cases of sensorineural loss.
C)Damage to the auditory area of the brain causes deafness in one ear.
D)Cochlear implants can replace the auditory pathway in all deaf individuals.
Q4) Which fluid is found surrounding the optic disc?
A)aqueous humor
B)vitreous humor
C)cerebrospinal fluid
D)tears
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 26
Chapter 25: Endocrine Disorders
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
68 Verified Questions
68 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42967
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following hormonal imbalances causes myxedema?
A)increased glucocorticoids
B)decreased glucocorticoids
C)deficit of ADH
D)deficit of T3 and T4
Q2) What is/are the effect(s)of thyrotoxic crisis?
A)hyperthermia and heart failure
B)hypotension and hypoglycemia
C)toxic goiter and hypometabolism
D)decreased stress response
Q3) Which of the following indicates compensated acidosis in the diabetic?
A)increased serum bicarbonate
B)serum pH of 7.35
C)increased serum carbonic acid
D)urine pH 8.0
Q4) What is the cause of diabetic ketoacidosis?
A)excess insulin in the body
B)loss of glucose in the urine
C)failure of the kidney to excrete sufficient acids
D)increased catabolism of fats and proteins
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 27
Chapter 26: Musculoskeletal Disorders
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
41 Verified Questions
41 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42968
Sample Questions
Q1) What is a sign of a dislocation?
A)crepitus
B)pain and tenderness
C)increased range of motion at a joint
D)deformity at a joint
Q2) Ewing's sarcoma metastasizes at an early stage to the:
A)brain
B)liver
C)lungs
D)other bones
Q3) Bones classified as "irregular" would include:
A)skull bones
B)the mandible
C)wrist bones
D)the femur
Q4) What is the likely immediate result of fat emboli from a broken femur?
A)additional ischemia in the broken bone
B)nonunion or malunion of the fracture
C)pulmonary inflammation and obstruction
D)abscess and infection at a distant site
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 28
Chapter 27: Skin Disorders
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
28 Verified Questions
28 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42969
Sample Questions
Q1) Which disease is manifested by large vesicles that coalesce and rupture?
A)pemphigus
B)discoid lupus erythematosus
C)lichen planus
D)scleroderma
Q2) Choose the best description of the typical lesion of impetigo:
A)large red painful nodule filled with purulent exudates
B)small vesicles that rupture to produce a crusty brown pruritic mass
C)red,swollen painful areas often with projecting red streaks
D)firm raised papules that may have a rough surface and may be painful
Q3) Which of the following statements apply to impetigo?
A)Lesions usually appear on the hands and arms.
B)The cause is usually a virus.
C)The infection is highly contagious.
D)Scar tissue is common following infection.
Q4) Tinea capitis is an infection involving the:
A)trunk
B)feet
C)scalp
D)nails
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 29
Chapter 28: Reproductive System Disorders
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
43 Verified Questions
43 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42970
Sample Questions
Q1) Which statement about the testes is TRUE?
A)Each testis contains the ductus deferens.
B)The testes are suspended by the spermatic cord.
C)Each testis has its own scrotal sac and seminal vesicle.
D)The testes must be kept at a temperature slightly above body temperature.
Q2) Why does frequency occur with benign prostatic hypertrophy?
A)increased volume of dilute urine
B)irritation of the bladder and urethra
C)impaired micturition reflex
D)incomplete emptying of the bladder
Q3) Which is considered to be the stage of carcinoma in situ in cervical cancer?
A)the invasive stage
B)the stage of mild dysplasia
C)the time before it can be detected by a Pap test
D)noninvasive severe dysplasia
Q4) How do testicular tumors usually present?
A)soft,tender mass
B)multiple firm nodules
C)hard,painless unilateral mass
D)small,fluid-filled cyst
Page 30
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.