Pathophysiology Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Pathophysiology is the study of the physiological processes and mechanisms that lead to the development and progression of disease within the human body. This course explores the functional changes associated with various illnesses, focusing on how disruptions in normal biological systems contribute to the symptoms and signs of disease. Students will learn to apply foundational knowledge of anatomy, physiology, and biochemistry to critically analyze the cause, development, and effects of common disorders affecting different organ systems. Emphasis is placed on understanding the pathogenesis of diseases, the bodys compensatory mechanisms, and the implications for diagnosis and treatment.
Recommended Textbook
Pathology for the Health Professions 4th Edition by Ivan Damjanov MD PhD
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23 Chapters
495 Verified Questions
495 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Cell Pathology
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Sample Questions
Q1) When irritated by chronic exposure to cigarette smoke,columnar bronchial epithelium changes into stratified squamous epithelium.This change is an example of:
A) Hypertrophy
B) Hyperplasia
C) Atrophy
D) Metaplasia
E) Degeneration
Answer: D
Q2) Metastatic calcification is associated with the:
A) Heart
B) Liver
C) Brain
D) Pancreas
E) Kidney
Answer: E
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Inflammation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Granulomas consist of all of the following except:
A) Lymphocytes
B) Macrophages
C) Epithelioid cells
D) Giant cells
E) Polymorphonuclear leukocytes
Answer: E
Q2) The permeability of the capillary walls and postcapillary venules changes in response to inflammation in all of the following situations except:
A) Decreased pressure inside the congested blood vessel
B) Increased pressure outside the congested blood vessel
C) Increase in the circulation of oxygen and nutrients
D) Lysis of leukocytes and platelets
E) Uptake of soluble mediators
Answer: B
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Chapter 3: Immunopathology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which immunoglobulin is secreted by sensitized cells and mediates anaphylactic reactions when exposed to a substance?
A) IgM
B) IgG
C) IgA
D) IgE
E) IgD
Answer: D
Q2) Definitive diagnosis for amyloidosis is determined by performing which of the following?
A) CT scan
B) Ultrasound
C) MRI
D) Biopsy
E) Cytology
Answer: D
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Chapter 4: Neoplasia
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Sample Questions
Q1) The incidence of which cancer has been rising in the United States during the past 20 years?
A) Carcinoma of the lung
B) Carcinoma of the liver
C) Carcinoma of the stomach
D) Carcinoma of the thyroid
E) Malignant brain tumors
Q2) Alpha-fetoprotein is a tumor marker for malignant tumors originating in the:
A) Brain
B) Lung
C) Liver
D) Uterus
E) Thyroid
Q3) Malignant tumors composed of embryonic cells are often called:
A) Malignant islet cell tumors
B) Gliomas
C) Lymphomas
D) Blastomas
E) Teratomas
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Page 6
Chapter 5: Genetic and Developmental Diseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following are considered possible causes of TORCH syndrome except:
A) Toxoplasma
B) Rubella virus
C) Cytomegalovirus
D) Herpesvirus
E) Alcohol
Q2) Which of the following is a basic feature of autosomal dominant traits?
A) The trait is apparent in homozygotes
B) The affected heterozygote has a 75% chance of transmitting the gene to each child
C) The trait is expressed in every other generation
D) The unaffected children of a symptomatic carrier do not transmit the trait
E) The gene accounting for the trait can be located on any of the 46 chromosomes
Q3) Which of the following defects associated with TORCH can cause problems in the third trimester?
A) Microcephaly
B) Microphthalmia
C) Congenital heart disease
D) Central nervous system defects
E) Macrocalcifications of the basal ganglia
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Chapter 6: Fluid and Hemodynamic Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a feature of an exudate but is not typical of a transudate?
A) Accumulation of fluid in a body cavity
B) Accumulation of fluid in the alveoli of the lung
C) Accumulation of fluid in the tissue, with subsequent swelling of the tissue ("tumor")
D) Accumulation of protein in extracellular spaces
E) Accumulation of numerous polymorphonuclear leukocytes in extracellular spaces
Q2) Iron deficiency anemia develops most often as a result of:
A) Hematemesis
B) Hematuria
C) Metrorrhagia
D) Hemothorax
E) Hemopericardium
Q3) White or pale infarcts are typically found in:
A) Solid organs
B) Venous circulation
C) Arterial circulation
D) Only the brain
E) Only the heart
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Chapter 7: The Cardiovascular System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The medical term for chest pain is:
A) Infarct
B) Ischemia
C) Myocardial infarct
D) Hypertension
E) Angina pectoris
Q2) Intermittent claudication is caused by atherosclerosis of the:
A) Carotid artery
B) Subclavian artery
C) Splenic artery
D) Renal artery
E) Popliteal artery
Q3) The most common complication of rheumatic endocarditis is:
A) Bacterial endocarditis
B) Viral endocarditis
C) Fungal myocarditis
D) Parasitic endocarditis
E) Pulmonary embolism
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Chapter 8: The Respiratory System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The most common of all the infections of the respiratory tract is:
A) Upper respiratory infection
B) Laryngitis
C) Tracheitis
D) Pneumonia
E) Pleuritis
Q2) Which of the following is the primary cause of atelectasis in premature neonates?
A) Pneumothorax
B) Deficiency of surfactant
C) Compression of the lungs from outside
D) Resorption of air distal to bronchial obstruction
E) Empyema
Q3) Miliary tuberculosis is characterized by:
A) Granuloma formation
B) Abscess formation
C) Lobar pneumonia
D) Acute bronchitis
E) Acute bronchiolitis
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Chapter 9: The Hematopoietic and Lymphoid System
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following findings are typical of secondary polycythemia except:
A) Increased number of red blood cells in circulation
B) Hyperviscosity of the blood
C) Increased number of erythroid precursors in the bone marrow
D) Increased incidence of thrombi
E) Association with myelodysplastic syndromes
Q2) The most common symptom of lymphomas is:
A) Lymph node enlargement
B) Infection
C) Fever
D) Pruritus
E) Sweating
Q3) Epstein-Barr virus,a possible cause of Burkitt's lymphoma,has a predilection for infecting:
A) T-suppressor/cytotoxic lymphocytes
B) T-helper lymphocytes
C) Plasma cells
D) B lymphocytes
E) Eosinophils
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Page 11
Chapter 10: The Gastrointestinal System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Carcinoma of the oral cavity presenting as a white,slightly elevated plaque is clinically described as:
A) Leukoplakia
B) Erythroplakia
C) Ulcer
D) Crater
E) Nodule
Q2) Dental caries begin with the formation of:
A) Pockets of periodontal inflammation
B) Bacterial plaques on the surface of the tooth
C) Periapical granuloma
D) Periapical abscess
E) Radicular cyst
Q3) Diverticula of the intestine are most often located in the:
A) Jejunum
B) Ileum
C) Cecum
D) Transverse colon
E) Sigmoid colon
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Page 12
Chapter 11: The Liver and Biliary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Unconjugated bilirubin circulates in the blood bound to:
A) Immunoglobulin G
B) Albumin
C) Haptoglobin
D) Transferrin
E) Ceruloplasmin
Q2) Nutrients reach the liver from the intestine through the:
A) Splenic vein
B) Vena cava inferior
C) Vena cava superior
D) Portal vein
E) Hepatic vein
Q3) All of the following are major functions of the liver except:
A) Excretory
B) Metabolic
C) Storage
D) Neuroendocrine
E) Synthetic
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13
Chapter 12: The Pancreas
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Sample Questions
Q1) Peritoneal rigidity signals the onset of peritonitis,which is usually accompanied by:
A) Edema of the head of the pancreas
B) Hemorrhage into the peripancreatic tissue
C) Necrosis of peripancreatic fat tissue
D) Foci of saponification around the pancreas
E) Paralytic ileus
Q2) Functionally,most pancreatic carcinomas are characterized by:
A) Hyperinsulinism
B) Excess of glucagon
C) Hypergastrinemia
D) Excess of amylase
E) No hormonal symptoms
Q3) Chronic pancreatitis is:
A) More common than acute pancreatitis
B) More common in males than in females
C) Associated with higher mortality than acute pancreatitis
D) Associated with higher levels of amylase in blood than acute pancreatitis
E) More common in children than in adults
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Chapter 13: The Urinary Tract
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Sample Questions
Q1) Biopsy specimens used to confirm bladder cancer are obtained by:
A) Urine specimen
B) Blood urea nitrogen
C) KUB x-ray examination
D) Cystoscopy
E) Abdominal surgery
Q2) Which of the following is the most prevalent metabolic disease that affects the kidneys?
A) Diabetes insipidus
B) Lupus
C) Hypertension
D) Heart disease
E) Diabetes mellitus
Q3) A solid renal tumor in a 4-year-old child is histologically composed of immature cells reminiscent of fetal tubules.This tumor represents a(n):
A) Renal cell adenoma
B) Renal cell carcinoma
C) Wilms' tumor
D) Interstitial cell fibroma
E) Teratoma
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Chapter 14: The Male Reproductive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a typical feature of secondary syphilis?
A) Penile ulcer
B) Chancre on the prepuce
C) Condyloma latum
D) Aortic aneurysm
E) Tabes dorsalis
Q2) Liam lives in Paraguay,where circumcision is not practiced and genital hygiene is poor.Liam is at greater risk for what condition?
A) Prostatitis
B) Benign prostatic hyperplasia
C) Carcinoma of the prostate
D) Invasive carcinoma of the prostate that has spread to the urinary bladder
E) Carcinoma of the penis
Q3) Which one of the following statements about infertility is true?
A) One in seven couples in the United States is infertile.
B) Infertility is more common among males than it is among females.
C) Treatment of infertility costs society thousands of dollars per year.
D) Major advances have been made in the treatment of male infertility.
E) Minor advances have been made in the treatment of female infertility by in vitro fertilization.
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Chapter 15: The Female Reproductive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) A cystic tumor that is lined from inside by skin and contains teeth in its wall is best classified as a:
A) Granulosa cell tumor
B) Thecoma
C) Sertoli-Leydig cell tumor
D) Teratoma
E) Pseudomyxoma peritonei
Q2) More than 50% of all cases of cervical intraepithelial neoplasia (CIN)contain intranuclear inclusions of:
A) Gardnerella vaginalis
B) Herpes simplex virus type 1
C) Herpes simplex virus type 2
D) Human papillomavirus
E) Treponema pallidum
Q3) Most tumors of the endometrium are:
A) Benign
B) Premalignant
C) Composed of striated muscle cells
D) Found in postmenopausal women
E) Found in prepubertal girls
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Chapter 16: The Breast
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Sample Questions
Q1) In contrast to nonfunctioning breasts,breasts of late pregnancy and the postpartum period contain:
A) Periareolar ducts
B) Hyperplastic subareolar ducts
C) More connective tissue stroma
D) More epithelial buds
E) Acinar cells
Q2) Approximately 75% of all the lymph draining from the breast flows into the:
A) Axillary lymph nodes
B) Internal mammary lymph nodes
C) External mammary lymph nodes
D) Substernal lymph nodes
E) Cervical lymph nodes
Q3) Breast cancer tends to metastasize via the:
A) Spleen
B) Tonsil lymph nodes
C) Axillary lymph nodes
D) Systemic circulatory system
E) Liver
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Page 18
Chapter 17: The Endocrine System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The C cells of the thyroid secrete:
A) Thyroglobulin
B) Thyroxin
C) Triiodothyronine
D) Calcitonin
E) Thyroid-stimulating hormone
Q2) ACTH,which is normally produced by pituitary cells,can also be produced by cells of a(n):
A) Brain tumor
B) Adrenal tumor
C) Carcinoma of the thyroid
D) Small-cell carcinoma of the lung
E) Ovarian carcinoma
Q3) Amenorrhea and galactorrhea are typically produced by tumors that are classified as:
A) Pituitary carcinoma
B) Somatostatinoma
C) Glucagonoma
D) Prolactinoma
E) Corticotropic adenoma
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Chapter 18: The Skin
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Sample Questions
Q1) In what condition does the skin best act as a barrier against infection?
A) Moist skin with small open areas
B) Dry skin with small open areas
C) Dry intact skin
D) Moist intact skin
E) Peeling skin
Q2) Diabetes predisposes the skin to:
A) Tumors
B) Autoimmune diseases
C) Infections
D) Hyperplasia
E) Hyperpigmentation
Q3) Impetigo is typically caused by:
A) Herpesvirus
B) Human papillomavirus
C) Streptococci
D) Fungi
E) Scabies
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Chapter 19: Bones and Joints
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Sample Questions
Q1) Migratory arthritis caused by Borrelia burgdorferi is typical of:
A) Rocky Mountain spotted fever
B) Trench foot
C) Lyme disease
D) Legionnaire's disease
E) Osteoarthritis
Q2) What bone disease is characterized by irregular restructuring that leads to thickening and deformities of the bones?
A) Rheumatoid arthritis
B) Trench foot
C) Paget's disease
D) Legionnaire's disease
E) Osteoarthritis
Q3) Aseptic necrosis of bones is the result of:
A) Anemia
B) Achondroplasia
C) Osteomyelitis
D) Bone infarctions
E) Osteomalacia
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Page 21
Chapter 20: Muscles and Peripheral Nerves
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Sample Questions
Q1) After wallerian degeneration,the nerve function is restored by the:
A) Regeneration of dendrites from the perikaryon
B) Regeneration of the axon from the peripheral parts of the transected nerve
C) Regeneration of the axon from the proximal portion of the transected axon
D) Loss of the perikaryon
E) Loss of the Nissl substance
Q2) Muscle inflammation characterized by infiltrates of lymphocytes and plasma cells is most typical of:
A) Muscular dystrophy
B) Muscular atrophy
C) Trichinella spiralis infection
D) Polymyositis
E) Myasthenia gravis
Q3) What is the most common cause of muscle weakness and paralysis in infants and children?
A) Duchenne-type dystrophy
B) Becker's dystrophy
C) Cerebral palsy
D) Dermatomyositis
E) Infectious myositis
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Chapter 21: The Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) St.Louis encephalitis is transmitted by:
A) Dust inhalation
B) Living in close quarters
C) Mosquito and tick bites
D) Sexual contact
E) Kissing
Q2) Axons are cytoplasmic extensions of:
A) Astrocytes
B) Oligodendroglia cells
C) Microglia cells
D) Neurons
E) Ependymal cells
Q3) Which disease can be transmitted by corneal transplantation?
A) Huntington's disease
B) Alzheimer's disease
C) Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease
D) Meningococcal meningitis
E) Parkinson's disease
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23
Chapter 22: The Eye
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which part of the eye is usually affected by chemical injury from exogenous caustic substances?
A) Cornea
B) Iris
C) Posterior chamber
D) Optic nerve
E) Retina
Q2) An irregular surface of the cornea or the lens that results in an uneven refraction of light is known as:
A) Myopia
B) Hyperopia
C) Astigmatism
D) Presbyopia
E) Myosis
Q3) Which of the following is found in all patients with glaucoma?
A) Myopia
B) Mydriasis
C) Hypermetropia
D) Opacities of the lens
E) Increased intraocular pressure
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Chapter 23: The Ear
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Sample Questions
Q1) The most typical feature of Ménière's disease is:
A) Deafness
B) Vertigo
C) Strabismus
D) Otosclerosis
E) Acoustic hallucinations
Q2) Malleus,incus,and stapes are located in the:
A) Auricle
B) Auditory canal
C) Middle ear
D) Inner ear
E) Externally to the eardrum
Q3) Sensory hearing loss of unknown etiology that affects elderly persons is called:
A) Glaucoma
B) Otosclerosis
C) Presbycusis
D) Ménière's disease
E) Vertigo
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