Course Introduction
Pathophysiology Exam Questions
Pathophysiology explores the functional changes that accompany disease processes within the body, building on a foundational understanding of normal human anatomy and physiology. This course delves into the mechanisms by which illnesses disturb the bodys internal balance, focusing on cellular injury, inflammation, immune responses, and the progression of major diseases affecting different organ systems. Through a combination of theoretical knowledge and case studies, students learn to analyze the underlying causes and systemic effects of various pathological conditions, preparing them for clinical application in health-related fields.
Recommended Textbook
Clinical Hematology and Fundamentals of Hemostasis 5th Edition by Denise M. Harmening
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36 Chapters
1596 Verified Questions
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Morphology of Human Blood and Marrow Cells:
Hematopoiesis
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is meant by medullary hematopoiesis?
A) Hematopoiesis in the spleen
B) Hematopoiesis in marrow
C) Hematopoiesis in liver
D) Hematopoiesis in thymus
E) None of the above
Answer: B
Q2) Evaluate the clinical use of interleukins:
A) Wound healing
B) Activating lymphocytes
C) Assisting in growth of bone marrow
D) B and C
E) All are correct
Answer: E
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Chapter 2: Bone Marrow
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the site of erythropoietin production?
A) Spleen
B) Kidney
C) Liver
D) Bone marrow
E) None of the above
Answer: B
Q2) Why is the bone biopsy the most reliable assessment of cellularity?
A) A large amount of tissue is evaluated.
B) A small amount of tissue is evaluated.
C) It offers a more sterile procedure.
D) Marrow iron can be demonstrated with appropriate stain.
E) None of the above
Answer: A
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Chapter 3: The Red Blood Cell: Structure and Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following RBC metabolic pathways is responsible for the production of the organic phosphate 2,3-DPG, which is important in delivering oxygen to the tissues?
A) Embden-Meyerhof
B) Hexose monophosphate (phosphogluconate)
C) Methemoglobin reductase
D) Luebering-Rapaport
E) None of the above
Answer: D
Q2) At what level of increased circulating carboxyhemoglobin may cyanosis, anemia, and death occur due to a tissue oxygen deficit related to the increased concentration of this abnormal hemoglobin?
A) 5.0 g/dL
B) 1.5 g/dL
C) 0.5 g/dL
D) 0.1 g/dL
Answer: A
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5
Chapter 4: Anemia: Diagnosis and Clinical Considerations
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the normal range for MCH?
A) 27-31 pg
B) 20-25 pg
C) 27-32%
D) 32-36%
E) 32-36 pg
Q2) Calculate the MCHC given the following: Hb = 9.0 g/dL, Hct = 27.4%:
A) 36%
B) 33%
C) 40%
D) 31%
E) 27%
Q3) What is the mean corpuscular hemoglobin (MCH) used to measure?
A) Packed cell volume
B) Average size of RBC
C) Iron content
D) Hemoglobin content
E) None of the above
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6
Chapter 5: Evaluation of Red Blood Cell Morphology and
Introduction to Platelet and White Blood Cell Morphology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Heinz bodies are a result of:
A) Denatured hemoglobin
B) Residual RNA
C) Residual DNA
D) Hemoglobin H
E) None of the above
Q2) What is the primary function of hemoglobin?
A) To maintain cell shape
B) To store iron
C) To maintain cell deformity
D) To carry oxygen
E) None of the above
Q3) A patient diagnosed with anemia of chronic disorder would demonstrate:
A) Macrocytosis
B) Microcytosis
C) Normocytosis
D) Sickled cells
E) None of the above
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Chapter 6: Iron Metabolism and Hypochromic Anemias
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Sample Questions
Q1) How many milligrams of iron are needed to produce 1 mL of red blood cells (RBCs)?
A) 1 mg
B) 10 mg
C) 20 mg
D) 3 mg
E) 0.5 mg
Q2) Iron absorption is influenced by which of the following?
A) Amount and type of iron accessible from food
B) Functional state of the gastrointestinal mucosa and pancreas
C) Current iron stores
D) Erythropoietic needs
E) All of the above
Q3) Which of the following laboratory results characterize(s) iron-deficiency anemia?
A) Decreased hemoglobin
B) Decreased MCV (mean corpuscular volume)
C) Decreased MCH (mean corpuscular hemoglobin)
D) Decreased MCHC (mean corpuscular hemoglobin concentration)
E) All of the above
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Chapter 7: Megaloblastic Anemias
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Sample Questions
Q1) What findings distinguishes megaloblastic anemia due to vitamin B<sub>12 </sub>deficiency from that due to folate deficiency?
A) Severe neurologic manifestation
B) Jaundice
C) Abnormal epithelial cells
D) High reticulocyte count
E) None of the above
Q2) All of the following are initial diagnostic tests performed simultaneously in determining the cause of macrocytosis except:
A) Reticulocyte count
B) Serum and red cell folate
C) Schilling test
D) Serum vitamin B<sub>12</sub>
E) None of the above
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Chapter 8: Aplastic Anemia Including
Pure Red Cell
and Congenital Dyserythropoietic Anemia and Paroxysmal
Nocturnal Hemoglobinuria
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Sample Questions
Q1) One of the major complications of PNH is:
A) Iron overload
B) Venous thrombosis
C) Splenomegaly
D) Hepatomegaly
E) None of the above
Q2) In differentiating PNH red cells from normal red cells in the sugar water test, PNH red cells will be _________________.
A) Unaffected
B) Lysed
C) Fragmented
D) Sickled
E) None of the above
Q3) What is the most common cause of aplastic anemia?
A) X-ray exposure
B) Benzene exposure
C) Gamma-ray exposure
D) Arsenic exposure
E) Idiopathic
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Chapter 9: Introduction to Hemolytic Anemias:
Intracorpuscular Defects: I Hereditary Defects of the Red
Cell Membrane
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following tests reflect an increase in red cell destruction?
A) Bilirubinemia
B) Hemoglobinemia
C) Hemoglobinuria
D) Hemosiderinuria
E) All of the above
Q2) Which of the following represents hereditary intracorpuscular defects?
A) Red blood cell (RBC) membrane defects
B) Enzyme deficiencies
C) Hemoglobinopathies
D) Thalassemia
E) All of the above
Q3) The morphologic hallmark of HS hereditary spherocytosis on the peripheral blood smear is:
A) Polychromasia
B) Ovalocytes
C) Spherocytes
D) Poikilocytes
E) Sickle cells
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Chapter 10: Hemolytic Anemias: Intracorpuscular Defects: II
Hereditary Enzyme Deficiencies
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is characteristic of PK deficiency?
A) The severity of the hemolytic anemia varies widely
B) Varying degrees of polychromasia and poikilocytosis may be found on the peripheral smear and nucleated red cells may be seen
C) Clinical manifestations commonly found include splenomegaly and cholelithiasis
D) Onset may be during infancy or early childhood and mild cases may not be detected until adulthood
E) All of the above
Q2) Which of the following forms of G6PD enzymes is the product of a mutant gene located on the X chromosome resulting in a G6PD deficiency that occurs in 10-15% of American blacks?
A) Gd A+
B) Gd A-
C) Gd Med
D) Gd B
E) Gd Canton
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Chapter 11: Hemolytic Anemias: Intracorpuscular Defects: III
the Hemoglobinopathies
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following hematological results will suggest an individual with sickle cell trait?
A) Peripheral blood smear is normal with the exception of target cells
B) Solubility screening tests are positive
C) Hemoglobin electrophoresis demonstrates hemoglobin A, hemoglobin S, and usually slightly elevated hemoglobin A<sub>2</sub>
D) Sickle cells present on the peripheral smear
E) A, B, and C
Q2) Which of the following is characteristic of hemoglobin E disease?
A) Red cell indices indicate a microcytic hypochromic anemia.
B) Target cells are found on the peripheral smear.
C) 95-97% HbE on the alkaline hemoglobin electrophoresis
D) No HbA
E) All of the above
Q3) Which of the following represents clinical manifestations of sickle cell anemia?
A) Leg ulcers
B) Cardiomegaly
C) Joint and skeletal problems
D) Infarcts that can occur anywhere in the bone
E) All of the above
Page 13
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Chapter 12: Hemolytic Anemias: Intracorpuscular Defects:
Thalassemia
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Sample Questions
Q1) What thalassemia-associated variant will result in sickling crisis in severe hypoxic conditions?
A) Beta thalassemia/hemoglobin E
B) Beta thalassemia/hemoglobin C
C) Beta thalassemia/hemoglobin S
D) Alpha thalassemia/sickle cell
E) Hemoglobin SC
Q2) Hemoglobin electrophoresis of a 2-year-old patient showed migration of A<sub>2</sub> and F on cellulose acetate at pH 8.4. Quantitation studies showed 5% A<sub>2</sub> and 95% F. What thalassemia is most likely present?
A) Alpha thalassemia
B) Beta thalassemia
C) Beta-sickle thalassemia
D) Alpha-sickle thalassemia
E) None of the above
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Chapter 13: Hemolytic Anemias: Extracorpuscular Defects
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Sample Questions
Q1) What pathological cold antibody disease occurs in persons older than 50 years of age and demonstrates acrocyanosis of the hands and feet and the presence of a lymphoproliferative disorder?
A) Paroxysmal cold hemoglobinuria
B) Mycoplasma pneumoniae associated disease
C) Cold agglutinin syndrome
D) Secondary cold AIHA
E) Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria
Q2) To illustrate the presence of a malarial parasite in a blood smear, which stain is suggested?
A) Methylene blue
B) Giemsa
C) Prussian blue
D) Eosin
E) Crystal violet
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Chapter 14: Hypoproliferative Anemia: Anemia Associated With Systemic Diseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) The hematologic picture seen in HIV-positive patients reveals:
A) Reticulocytopenia
B) Increased bone marrow reticulin
C) Progressive aplasia
D) Normocytic hypoproliferative anemia
E) All of the above
Q2) __________ is very common in chronic alcoholics and is not accompanied by hypersegmented neutrophils.
A) Spherocytosis
B) Macrocytosis
C) Microcytosis
D) Reticulocytosis
E) Megaloblastosis
Q3) Electrolyte disturbances in patients with renal failure can lead to the formation of these cells on the peripheral blood smear:
A) Burr cells
B) Nucleated red blood cells
C) Macrocytes
D) Target cells
E) Spherocytes
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Chapter 15: Cell Biology, Disorders of Neutrophils, Infectious
Mononucleosis, and Reactive Lymphocytosis
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Sample Questions
Q1) During bacterial infection the granulocyte-to-erythroid ratio can increase due to __________ production.
A) Decreased granulocytes
B) Increased granulocytes
C) Increased erythrocytes
D) Decreased erythrocytes
E) Increased lymphocytes
Q2) Döhle bodies consist of __________.
A) Endoplasmic reticulin
B) Cytoplasmic granules
C) Mucopolysaccharide
D) RNA
E) DNA
Q3) Clinical manifestations of infectious mononucleosis include:
A) Sore throat
B) Fatigue
C) Lymphadenopathy
D) Joint pain dysphagia
E) All of the above
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Chapter 16: Introduction to Leukemia and the Acute Leukemias
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following indicators correlate to children with a poor prognosis for ALL?
A) Older age (>13 years)
B) L2 and L3 morphology
C) High WBC count
D) Chromosome abnormalities
E) All of the above
Q2) Which host factor(s) is/are associated with an increased risk of developing leukemia?
A) Chromosomal abnormalities
B) Immunodeficiency states
C) Chronic marrow dysfunction syndromes
D) Inherited predisposition
E) All of the above
Q3) The alpha-naphthyl butyrate stain is used to identify __________ cells.
A) Monocytic
B) Granulocytic
C) Megakaryocytic
D) B lymphocytes
E) None of the above
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Chapter 17: Chronic Myeloproliferative Disorders I: Chronic Myelogenous Leukemia
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which chromosomal abnormality is associated with CML?
A) Deletion 7
B) Chromosome 5
C) Trisomy 12
D) Philadelphia chromosome
E) None of the above
Q2) Which phase of CML carries the worst prognosis and is generally unresponsive to treatment?
A) Chronic phase
B) Accelerated phase
C) Blast crisis
D) Chemotherapy-resistant phase
E) None of the above
Q3) Patients with CML in blast crisis most commonly die of:
A) Therapy related to marrow aplasia
B) Exsanguination
C) Infection
D) Aplasia with myelofibrosis
E) All of the above
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Chapter
18: Chronic Myeloproliferative Disorders Ii: Polycythemia Vera, Essential Thrombocythemia, and
Idiopathic Myelofibrosis
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Sample Questions
Q1) In polycythemia vera, therapeutic phlebotomies reduce the total red cell mass by removing 350-500 mL over 2-3 days until the hematocrit is maintained at __________ percent.
A) 50-60
B) 40-45
C) 30-40
D) >60
E) <30
Q2) Common physical findings in polycythemia vera include:
A) Facial plethora
B) Pruritus
C) Cerebral circulating disturbances
D) Thrombotic episodes
E) All of the above
Q3) What bone marrow findings are usually seen in essential thrombocythemia?
A) Trilineage hyperplasia
B) Large megakaryocytes
C) Stainable iron
D) Dysplastic megakaryocyte
E) All of the above
20
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Chapter 19: Myelodysplastic Syndromes
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following biological and/or genetic anomalies are important in the pathogenesis of MDS?
A) Chromosomal translocations
B) Chromosomal deletions
C) Hemolysis
D) Increased intramedullary apoptosis
E) B and D
Q2) Which type of MDS demonstrates a mild decreased white blood cell (WBC) count (3.9 \(\times\) 10/L), increased erythropoiesis and normal numbers of blast cells in the marrow, and <15% sideroblasts?
A) Refractory anemia with ringed sideroblasts (RARS)
B) Refractory anemia (RA)
C) Refractory anemia with excess blasts (RAEB)
D) Chronic myelomonocytic leukemia (CMML)
E) None of the above
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22
Chapter 20: Chronic Lymphocytic Leukemia and Related
Lymphoproliferative Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which may be used to differentiate CLL from ALL?
A) Age of patient
B) Nuclear chromatin pattern
C) Presence of nucleoli
D) All of the above
E) None of the above
Q2) The leukemia phase of cutaneous T-cell lymphoma, mycosis fungoides, is called
A) Hunter's syndrome
B) Hairy cell leukemia
C) Sézary syndrome
D) Idiopathic myelofibrosis
E) None of the above
Q3) Required hematologic findings for a diagnosis of CLL include:
A) 5000/µL lymphocytes in the peripheral blood
B) 30% lymphocytosis in bone marrow
C) Normocytic/hypochromic anemia
D) A and B
E) A and C
23
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Chapter 21: The Lymphomas
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Sample Questions
Q1) Small lymphocytic lymphoma is characterized by all of the following except:
A) Indolent but incurable
B) Usually CD19+, CD5+, CD23+, CD10-
C) Growth centers
D) t(14;18)
E) Trisomy 12
Q2) The morphologic hallmark of Hodgkin's lymphoma is a peculiar cell called the __________ cell.
A) Ann Arbor
B) Reed-Sternberg
C) Hairy cell
D) Rappaport
E) None of the above
Q3) The most widely used staging system for Hodgkin's lymphoma is the __________ classification.
A) Rye
B) Rappaport
C) Ann Arbor
D) Lukes and Butler
E) None of the above
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Chapter 22: Multiple Myeloma and Related Plasma Cell Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Extramedullary infiltration of plasmacytoid lymphs in Waldenström's macroglobulinemia occurs in the __________.
A) Liver
B) Spleen
C) Lymph nodes
D) All of the above
E) None of the above
Q2) Which test is the most useful predictor of tumor load and disease activity, and in predicting the prognosis of multiple myeloma patients?
A) Albumin
B) LDH
C) BUN
D) Calcium
E) Beta-2-microglobulin
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Chapter 23: Lipid Lysosomal Storage Diseases and Histiocytosis
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which sites are most frequently examined in patients with Gaucher's disease?
A) Peripheral blood
B) Bone marrow
C) Spleen
D) All of the above
E) None of the above
Q2) The mature histiocytes present in eosinophilic granuloma, Hand-Schüller-Christian disease, and Letterer-Siwe disease are called __________.
A) Eosinophils
B) Langerhans' cells
C) Plasma cells
D) Lymphocytes
E) Giant cells
Q3) Type I Gaucher's disease comprises the __________ form.
A) Adult or non-neuronopathic
B) Infantile acute neuronopathic
C) Infantile malignant neuronopathic
D) Juvenile neuronopathic
E) None of the above
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Chapter 24: Introduction to Hemostasis
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the function of tissue plasminogen activator (TPA)?
A) Inhibits platelet response
B) Activates plasmin to plasminogen and lyses the fibrin clot
C) Activates plasminogen to plasmin and lyses the fibrin clot
D) Stimulates antithrombin III
E) None of the above
Q2) In the process of aggregation, fibrinogen binds to the calcium complex of platelet membrane __________.
A) Glycoproteins Ib-IIIa
B) Glycoproteins IIb-IIIa
C) Glycoproteins Ib-IIa
D) Glycoproteins Ia-IIIa
E) None of the above
Q3) What is the coagulation factor assigned as factor VII?
A) Stabile factor
B) Prothrombin
C) Labile factor
D) Fibrinogen
E) None of the above
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Chapter 25: Disorders of Primary Hemostasis: Quantitative and
Qualitative Platelet Disorders and Vascular Disorders
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Q1) All of the following are characteristic of hereditary hemorrhagic telangiectasia (Rendu-Osler-Weber syndrome) except:
A) Telangiectatic lesions occur on mucus membranes.
B) Iron deficiency anemia is usually present.
C) Abnormal platelet aggregation in response to thrombin is present.
D) Epistaxis is common.
E) An autosomal inheritance pattern is present.
Q2) Which laboratory findings differentiate Bernard-Soulier syndrome from Glanzmann's thrombasthenia?
A) Decreased platelet count
B) Prolonged bleeding time
C) Abnormal platelet aggregation in response to thrombin
D) All of the above
E) None of the above
Q3) All of the following are clinical features of TTP except:
A) Poikilocytosis
B) Reticulocytosis
C) Abnormal PT
D) Nucleated red blood cells (NRBCs)
E) Decreased haptoglobin
Page 28
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Chapter 26: Disorders of Plasma Clotting Factors
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following are true regarding circulating anticoagulants except:
A) They are usually immunoglobulins.
B) They are exogenously produced substances.
C) They are inhibitors of the coagulation system.
D) They are endogenously produced substances.
E) None of the above
Q2) What is the normal range of fibrinogen in plasma?
A) 50-300 mg/dL
B) 100-350 mg/dL
C) 200-400 mg/dL
D) 100-200 mg/dL
E) None of the above
Q3) Which rare inherited disorder results in a failure to synthesize adequate amounts of circulating fibrinogen?
A) Afibrinogenemia
B) Dysfibrinogenemia
C) Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome
D) von Willebrand's disease
E) None of the above
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29
Chapter 27:
Interaction
Fibrinolytic,
Kinin Systems; Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation; and Related Pathology
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Q1) Which of the following are characteristics of urokinase?
A) Synthesized by the kidney
B) Low affinity for fibrin
C) Excreted in the urine
D) None of the above
E) All of the above
Q2) All of the following are known mechanisms for activation of the coagulation cascade except:
A) Activation of the extrinsic coagulation pathway by factor XIa
B) Activation of the extrinsic coagulation pathway by the release of tissue thromboplastin
C) Activation of the intrinsic coagulation pathway by factor XIIa
D) Direct activation of factor X or II
E) None of the above
Q3) Which laboratory test differentiates primary fibrinolysis from DIC?
A) Platelet count
B) PT
C) APTT
D) TT
E) None of the above Page 30
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Chapter 28: Introduction to Thrombosis and Anticoagulant Therapy
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is/are true regarding inherited thrombophilia?
A) The majority of people who carry heterozygous mutations that have been associated with thrombosis do not manifest a thrombotic disease.
B) Activated protein C resistance, protein C deficiency, protein S deficiency, and antithrombin deficiency are all examples of inherited thrombophilic disorders.
C) Prothrombin nucleotide G20210A mutation, hyperhomocysteinemia, and some forms of dysfibrinogenemia are associated with thrombotic disease.
D) A and B only
E) A, B, and C
Q2) Which inherited thrombotic disorder may present clinically as neonatal purpura fulminans and with coagulation test results indicative of disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)?
A) Homozygous protein C deficiency
B) Activated protein C resistance
C) Heterozygous protein C deficiency
D) Heterozygous protein S deficiency
E) None of the above
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Page 32
Chapter 29: Quality Control in the Hematology Laboratory
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a cause of a trend?
A) Improperly prepared reagents
B) Improperly stored reagents
C) Change in lot numbers
D) Bacterial contamination of diluent/H<sub>2</sub>O
Q2) A gradual change in the same direction is a ___________.
A) Shift
B) Trend
C) Titration
D) Dilution
Q3) Which of the following is the most common source of laboratory errors?
A) Preanalytical factors
B) Analytical factors
C) Postanalytical factors
D) Nonanalytical factors
Q4) Which of the following is an example of a random error?
A) Bubbles in syringes
B) Leaky tubing
C) Clogs in tubing
D) All of the above
Page 33
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Chapter
and
Morphologic Analysis of Serous, Cerebrospinal, and Synovial Fluids
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Q1) What is the name of the procedure in which pleural fluid is removed?
A) Hemothorax
B) Thoracentesis
C) Pneumothorax
D) Empyema
Q2) Why is paracentesis performed?
A) To check the function of the liver
B) To check the function of the heart
C) To check the function of the lungs
D) To rule out bacterial infection and malignancy of the abdominal cavity
Q3) A technologist is performing a total cell count on a pericardial fluid. She prepares the undiluted fluid on a hemacytometer. An average of 170 cells was seen in the entire ruled area on each side of the hemacytometer. Calculate the total cell count.
A) 189 cells/µL
B) 425 cells/µL
C) 8500 cells/µL
D) 1237 cells/µL
Page 34
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Chapter 31: Hematology Methods
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Sample Questions
Q1) _______ reticulocytes result when the reticulocytes of the bone marrow pool are shifted to the circulating pool to compensate for anemia.
A) Juvenile
B) Shift
C) Stress
D) A and B
E) B and C
Q2) The normal hematocrit range for a newborn is _______.
A) 37-42%
B) 42-52%
C) 53-65%
D) 30-43%
E) None of the above
Q3) The normal WBC values in an adult are ________.
A) 9-30 \(\times\) 10<sup>9</sup>/L
B) 5-21 \(\times\) 10<sup>9</sup>/L
C) 4.8-10.8 \(\times\) 10<sup>9</sup>/L
D) 6.2-17 \(\times\) 10<sup>9</sup>/L
E) 5-19.5 \(\times\) 10<sup>9</sup>/L
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Page 35
Chapter 32: Principles of Automated Differential Analysis
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Sample Questions
Q1) In the platelet histogram analysis by the Coulter S Plus IV automated instrument, particles with volume in the range of __________ are counted.
A) 5-10 fL
B) 10-20 fL
C) 2-20 fL
D) 20-30 fL
E) >30 fL
Q2) On a Coulter WBC scatterplot, clusters of cells are identified as __________ based on their relative position on the scatterplot.
A) Monocytes
B) Eosinophils
C) Lymphocytes
D) Neutrophils
E) All of the above
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Chapter 33: Coagulation Procedures
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Sample Questions
Q1) The reptilase test will be abnormally prolonged:
A) In hypofibrinogenemia
B) If heparin is present in the sample
C) When the patient is on anti-vitamin K therapy
D) If the patient has had a recent thrombotic episode
E) All of the above
Q2) Patients with vWD have a vWF activity of __________.
A) 25-100%
B) <30%
C) 50-100%
D) 5-90%
E) None of the above
Q3) In the one-stage quantitative assay for factors II, V, VII, and X the __________ is the test system used, with specific-factor-deficient plasmas added to normalize all other factors but the one being measured.
A) PT
B) APTT
C) Whole blood clotting time
D) Fibrinogen test
E) None of the above
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Chapter 34: Applications of Flow Cytometry to Hematology and Hemostasis
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Sample Questions
Q1) While evaluating data from an analysis, the analyst suspects spectral bleed-over has occurred. What can be done so that each detector only measures the signal for the appropriate fluorescent dye?
A) Increase the voltage to each detector
B) Properly set the fluorescence compensation control
C) Decrease the threshold setting
D) Remove the optical filters
Q2) Which of the following is a software feature that allows the operator to focus on a single population of cells?
A) Data analysis
B) Quadrant statistics
C) Gating
D) Fluorescence compensation
Q3) Residual white blood cells are detected in red blood cell packs by flow cytometry based on the presence of:
A) Lipids
B) Lysosomes
C) DNA
D) Granules
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Chapter 35: Molecular Diagnostic Techniques in Hematopathology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Naturally occurring enzymes that chop DNA into small fragments are called
A) RNases
B) Protease
C) Nucleotidases
D) Restriction endonucleases
E) None of the above
Q2) Which of the following is/are major advantages of PCR?
A) Extremely sensitive to low numbers of target sequences
B) Small sample size requirements
C) Relatively fast and inexpensive unless extensive post-amplification analysis is required
D) Permits analysis of formalin-fixed, paraffin-embedded tissue that is not suitable for Southern blot analysis
E) All of the above
Q3) Which of the following is/are true regarding "probes"?
A) Help to identify a specific RNA nucleotide sequence.
B) Help to identify a specific DNA nucleotide sequence.
C) Follow the rules of complementary nucleotide pairing.
D) All of the above.
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Chapter 36: Special Stainscytochemistry
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Sample Questions
Q1) Red-brown peroxidase positive granules are found in:
A) Promyelocytes
B) Myelocytes
C) Metamyelocytes
D) All of the above
E) None of the above
Q2) Sudan black B stains which constituent of cells?
A) Lysosomes
B) Glycoproteins
C) Phospholipids
D) All of the above
E) None of the above
Q3) In the combined esterase staining procedure, a dark, brown-red staining indicates:
A) Monocytes
B) T lymphocytes
C) Early promyelocytes
D) Mast cells
E) Late granulocytes
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