Pathophysiology Exam
Materials
Pathophysiology is the study of the functional and physiological changes that occur within the body as a result of disease or injury. This course explores the underlying mechanisms of common human diseases by examining disruptions in normal biological processes at the cellular, tissue, and systemic levels. Students will learn to connect clinical signs and symptoms to biological abnormalities, enhancing their ability to understand disease presentation, progression, and the rationale behind therapeutic interventions. Emphasis is placed on the integration of foundational scientific knowledge to understand alterations in homeostasis and organ system function, preparing learners for clinical decision-making in healthcare settings.
Recommended Textbook
Pathophysiology The Biologic Basis for Disease in Adults and Children 6th Edition by Kathryn L. McCance
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47 Chapters
2211 Verified Questions
2211 Flashcards
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2
Chapter 1: Cellular Biology
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54 Verified Questions
54 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the sequence of steps in the development of a digestive enzyme by the pancreas cells from the initial transcription to the release from the cell?
A)The enzyme is transcribed from DNA by RNA in the nucleus, proceeds to the ribosome for synthesis, and is transported in a secretory vesicle to the cell membrane.
B)The enzyme is transcribed from RNA by DNA in the nucleus, proceeds to the lysosome for synthesis, and is transported in an encapsulated membrane to the cell membrane.
C)The enzyme is transcribed by the mitochondria in the nucleus, proceeds to the ribosome for synthesis, and is transported in a cytoskeleton to the cell membrane.
D)The enzyme is transcribed from DNA by RNA in the nucleus, proceeds to the Golgi complex for synthesis, and is transported in a cytosol to the cell membrane.
Answer: A
Q2) Diffusion is an example of active transport.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Altered Cellular and Tissue Biology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Acute alcoholism mainly affects the ______________ system.
A)hepatic
B)gastrointestinal
C)renal
D)central nervous Answer: D
Q2) Nondividing cells, such as myocardial fibers, are capable of hypertrophy, but not hyperplasia.
A)True
B)False Answer: True
Q3) Aging is the result of a genetically controlled development program or built-in self-destructive processes.
A)True
B)False Answer: True
Q4) Hypertrophy and hyperplasia rarely occur together.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Page 4
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Chapter 3: The Cellular Environment: Fluids and Electrolytes,
Acids and Bases
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the action of natriuretic peptides?
A)They decrease blood pressure and increase sodium and water excretion.
B)They increase blood pressure and decrease sodium and water excretion.
C)They increase heart rate and decrease potassium excretion.
D)They decrease heart rate and increase potassium excretion.
Answer: A
Q2) Major determinant of resting membrane potential
A)Sodium
B)Chloride
C)Potassium
D)Magnesium
E)Phosphate
Answer: C
Q3) Proteins are primarily an intracellular buffer.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Genes and Genetic Diseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) Hemophilia
A)Autosomal dominant
B)Autosomal recessive
C)X-linked dominant
D)X-linked recessive
Q2) Cystic fibrosis
A)Autosomal dominant
B)Autosomal recessive
C)X-linked dominant
D)X-linked recessive
Q3) A child born with an autosomal dominant disease was most likely produced by the union of a normal parent with an affected heterozygous parent.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What is the second most commonly recognized genetic cause of mental retardation?
A)Down syndrome
B)Fragile X syndrome
C)Klinefelter syndrome
D)Turner syndrome
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Chapter 5: Genes, Environment, and Common Diseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) Studies have shown that offspring of an alcoholic parent when raised by nonalcoholic parents have _____ increased risk of developing alcoholism.
A)no
B)a twofold
C)a fourfold
D)a tenfold
Q2) The prevalence rate is the number of new cases of a disease reported during a specific time period.
A)True
B)False
Q3) When the offspring of a parent with schizophrenia are adopted by parents without schizophrenia, their risk of developing the disease is about 25%, which is about half the risk when they are raised by their biologic parents.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Breast cancer manifests in familial patterns.
A)True
B)False
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Page 7
Chapter 6: Innate Immunity: Inflammation
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Sample Questions
Q1) A role of NK cells is to:
A)initiate the complement cascade.
B)eliminate malignant cells.
C)bind tightly to antigens.
D)proliferate after immunization with antigen.
Q2) The main functions of natural killer (NK) cells are recognition and elimination of bacteria.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which solution is best to use when cleaning a wound that is healing by epithelialization?
A)Normal saline
B)Povidone-iodine
C)Hydrogen peroxide
D)Dakin solution
Q4) Surfactant proteins A and D provide innate resistance by:
A)initiating the complement cascade.
B)promoting phagocytosis.
C)secreting mucus.
D)synthesizing lysosomes.
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Chapter 7: Adaptive Immunity
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Sample Questions
Q1) How are the functions of major histocompatibility molecules and CD1 molecules alike?
A)They are both antigen-presenting molecules (APCs).
B)They both bind antigens to antibodies.
C)They both secrete interleukins during the immune process.
D)They are both capable of activating cytotoxic T lymphocytes.
Q2) At birth, samples of blood from the umbilical cord indicate which immunoglobulin levels, if any, are near adult levels?
A)None of the immunoglobulins
B)IgG
C)IgM
D)IgE
Q3) B lymphocytes mature and undergo changes that commit them to becoming B cells in the:
A)thymus gland.
B)regional lymph nodes.
C)bone marrow.
D)spleen.
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9
Chapter 8: Alterations in Immunity and Inflammation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Immunodeficiencies can be congenital or acquired.
A)True
B)False
Q2) How does tissue damage occur in acute rejection after an organ transplant?
A)Th1 cells release cytokines that activate infiltrating macrophages and cytotoxic T cells directly attack the endothelial cells of the transplanted tissue.
B)Circulating immune complexes are deposited in the endothelial cells of transplanted tissue, where the complement cascade lyses tissue.
C)Antigens on the cell surface of transplanted tissue are recognized by receptors on NK cells, which release lysosomal enzymes that destroy tissue.
D)Antibodies coat the surface of transplanted tissue to which mast cells bind and liberate preformed chemical mediators that destroy tissue.
Q3) During an IgE-mediated hypersensitivity reaction, which leukocyte is activated?
A)Neutrophils
B)Monocytes
C)Eosinophils
D)T lymphocytes
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Chapter 9: Infection
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Sample Questions
Q1) Once they have penetrated the first line of defense, which microorganisms do natural killer (NK) cells actively attack?
A)Bacteria
B)Fungi
C)Viruses
D)Mycoplasma
Q2) Cytokines are thought to raise the thermoregulatory set point to cause fever by stimulating the synthesis of which chemical mediator?
A)Leukotriene
B)Histamine
C)Prostaglandin
D)Bradykinin
Q3) Endotoxins are contained in the cell wall of gram-positive bacteria.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Colonization is the first stage of infection.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 10: Stress and Disease
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Sample Questions
Q1) What effect does estrogen have on lymphocytes?
A)Depression of B cells and enhancement of T cells
B)Depression of T cells and enhancement of B cells
C)Depression of B cells and T cells
D)Enhancement of B cells and T cells
Q2) Increases cardiac output by increasing heart rate and myocardial contractility
A)Epinephrine
B)Norepinephrine
C)Cortisol
Q3) Exhaustion occurs if stress continues and _____ is not successful.
A)flight or fight
B)alarm
C)adaptation
D)arousal
Q4) The _____ is stimulated during the alarm phase of the GAS?
A)adrenal cortex
B)hypothalamus
C)anterior pituitary
D)limbic system
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Chapter 11: Biology, Clinical Manifestations, and Treatment of Cancer
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Sample Questions
Q1) Liver
A)Pressure
B)Stretching
C)Obstruction
D)Tissue destruction
Q2) Chemotherapy
A)Cancer cell growth
B)Used to kill cancer cells while minimizing damage to normal structures
C)Forms antibodies specific for tumor antigen
D)Agents that take advantage of specific vulnerabilities in target cancer cells
E)Provides a framework to determine treatment
Q3) Cancer is predominantly a disease of aging.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which of the viruses below are oncogenic DNA viruses?
A)Papovaviruses, adenoviruses, and herpesviruses
B)Retroviruses, papovaviruses, and adenoviruses
C)Adenoviruses, herpesviruses, and retroviruses
D)Herpesviruses, retroviruses, and papovaviruses
13
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Chapter 12: Cancer Epidemiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) The most important risk factors associated with the development of skin melanoma include:
A)light-colored hair.
B)blue eyes.
C)fair skin.
D)freckles.
E)history of acne.
Q2) An increased number of sexual partners have been shown to be related to the incidence of cervical cancer.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Research data support the relationship between ultraviolet sunlight exposure and the development of:
A)basal cell carcinoma.
B)squamous cell carcinoma.
C)melanoma.
D)non-Hodgkin lymphoma.
E)soft tissue sarcoma.
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Page 14
Chapter 13: Cancer in Children
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Sample Questions
Q1) Childhood exposure to all of the following risk factors increases susceptibility to cancer except: A)drugs.
B)ionizing radiation.
C)cigarette smoke. D)viruses.
Q2) Prenatal exposure to diethylstilbestrol (DES) can result in: A)breast cancer. B)leukemia.
C)vaginal cancer. D)lymphoma.
Q3) Secondary cancers are a late effect faced by children cured of cancer.
A)True B)False
Q4) Embryonic tumors are usually diagnosed after 5 years of age.
A)True B)False
Q5) Mutation of proto-oncogenes into oncogenes stimulates uncontrolled cell growth. A)True
B)False
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Chapter 14: Structure and Function of the Neurologic System
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51 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the primary response from norepinephrine?
A)Increased heart rate and contractility
B)Release of renin from the kidney
C)Vasoconstriction
D)Pupillary dilation
Q2) What is an effect of the sympathetic nervous system?
A)Stimulates peristalsis
B)Increases blood sugar levels
C)Reduces heart rate
D)Causes pupillary constriction
Q3) Primary visual cortex
A)Frontal lobe
B)Parietal lobe
C)Temporal lobe
D)Occipital lobe
Q4) Where is the neurotransmitter norepinephrine secreted?
A)In the somatic nervous system
B)In the parasympathetic preganglion
C)In the sympathetic postganglion
D)In the parasympathetic postganglion
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Chapter 15: Pain, Temperature Regulation, Sleep, and Sensory Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Heat exhaustion is more serious than heat stroke.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Pain that occurs after peripheral nerve injury; described as continuous and severe sensations with a burning quality
A)Myofascial pain syndrome
B)Neuropathic pain
C)Deafferentation pain
D)Sympathetically maintained pain (SMP)
Q3) Children are more susceptible to heat stroke than are adults because:
A)children produce more metabolic heat when exercising.
B)children have more surface area-to-mass ratio.
C)children have more sweating capacity.
D)a child's hypothalamus is underdeveloped.
E)a child's ability to perceive heat is overdeveloped.
Q4) During heat stroke, sweat production on the face is maintained even during dehydration, to cool blood in the cerebral arteries.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 16: Alterations in Cognitive Systems, Cerebral
Hemodynamics and Motor Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Huntington disease (HD) is inherited as an autosomal dominant trait with high penetrance.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Lower motor neuron disorders
A)Paroxysmal dyskinesia
B)Flaccidity
C)Wernicke aphasia
D)Spasticity
E)Akinesia
F)Broca dysphasia
Q3) During a generalized seizure the clonic phase begins as inhibitory neurons in the cortex, anterior thalamus, and basal ganglia to reduce the cortical excitation.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Upper motor neuron paralysis affects the pyramidal motor neurons by creating flaccid paralysis.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 17: Disorders of the Central and Peripheral Nervous
Systems and the Neuromuscular Junction
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which cerebral vascular disorder causes meningeal irritation, photophobia, and positive Kernig and Brudzinski signs?
A)Intracranial hemorrhage
B)Subarachnoid hemorrhage
C)Epidural hemorrhage
D)Subdural hemorrhage
Q2) The most severe diffuse brain injury caused by rotational acceleration is most likely to be located in the:
A)diencephalon to the brainstem.
B)medial portion of the brainstem.
C)entire brainstem.
D)diencephalon.
Q3) Myasthenia gravis:
A)is an acute autoimmune disease.
B)affects the nerve roots.
C)may result in adrenergic crisis.
D)causes muscle weakness.
Q4) Bacterial meningitis can develop as a consequence of ear or gum infections.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 18: Neurobiology of Schizophrenia, Mood Disorders, and Anxiety Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which electrolyte imbalance contributes to lithium toxicity?
A)Hypernatremia
B)Hyponatremia
C)Hyperkalemia
D)Hypokalemia
Q2) Inability to have emotional experiences
A)Delusions
B)Formal thought disorder
C)Anhedonia
D)Hallucinations
E)Alogia
F)Avolition
Q3) People with schizophrenia commonly experience incoherent speech, delusions, and hallucinations during a psychotic episode.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Schizophrenia is believed to develop as a result of neurodevelopmental defects occurring during fetal life.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 19: Alterations of Neurologic Function in Children
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Sample Questions
Q1) Vomiting, lethargy, drowsiness
A)Reye syndrome, stage I
B)Reye syndrome, stage II
C)Reye syndrome, stage III
D)Reye syndrome, stage IV
E)Reye syndrome, stage V
Q2) Obtundation, hyperventilation, decorticate rigidity
A)Reye syndrome, stage I
B)Reye syndrome, stage II
C)Reye syndrome, stage III
D)Reye syndrome, stage IV
E)Reye syndrome, stage V
Q3) A _____ is the test done on amniotic fluid and maternal blood to test for neural tube defect.
A)total protein
B)culture
C) -fetoprotein (AFP)
D)C-reactive protein
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21
Chapter 20: Mechanisms of Hormonal Regulation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Hormones are effective communicators because they:
A)are regularly synthesized in response to cellular and tissue activities.
B)increase their secretion in response to rising hormone levels.
C)are rapidly degraded once they enter the cell.
D)decrease their secretion in response to rising plasma hormone levels.
Q2) Most protein hormones are transported in the bloodstream:
A)bound to a lipid-soluble carrier.
B)free in an unbound, water-soluble form.
C)bound to a water-soluble-binding protein.
D)free because of their lipid-soluble chemistry.
Q3) The brain does not require insulin for glucose uptake.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which second messenger is stimulated by epinephrine binding to a -adrenergic receptor?
A)Calcium
B)Inositol triphosphate (IP3)
C)Diacylglycerol (DAG)
D)Cyclic adenosine monophosphate (cAMP)
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Chapter 21: Alterations of Hormonal Regulation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Hyperkalemia develops in the presence of diabetic ketoacidosis because:
A)serum sodium is low stimulating aldosterone to retain sodium and potassium.
B)hydrogen ions shift into the cell in exchange for potassium to compensate for metabolic acidosis.
C)phosphorus shifts into the cell in exchange for potassium due to the lack of insulin.
D)the blood is concentrated due to the loss of water from polyuria.
Q2) The effects of syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) include solute:
A)retention and water retention.
B)retention and water loss.
C)dilution and water retention.
D)dilution and water loss.
Q3) Abnormal immunologic mechanisms producing autoantibodies are responsible for Graves disease as well as hypothyroidism.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Giantism occurs only in children and adolescents.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 22: Structure and Function of the Reproductive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The male and female genital organs are homologous before 8 weeks of gestation.
A)True
B)False
Q2) During menstrual cycles in which ovulation occurs, basal body temperature (BBT):
A)increases.
B)decreases.
C)fluctuates around 37° C (98° F).
D)rises consistently above 37.8° C (100° F).
Q3) Which hormone is linked to obesity and early puberty?
A)Inhibin
B)Leptin
C)Activin
D)Follistatin
Q4) Which of the following is not a normal characteristic of aging of the male reproductive system?
A)Reduced sperm count
B)Slower, less forceful ejaculations
C)Testicular atrophy and softening
D)Longer time to achieve full erection
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Chapter 23: Alterations of the Reproductive Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) The most common cause of cycle irregularities is a result of:
A)disorders within the endometrium.
B)obstruction of the fallopian tubes.
C)pregnancy.
D)failure to ovulate.
Q2) Which of the following factors increases the risk for ovarian cancer after the age of 40?
A)Use of fertility drugs
B)Oral contraceptive use
C)Multiple pregnancies
D)Prolonged lactation
Q3) Which dietary factor is not a risk factor for prostate cancer?
A)High-fat diet
B)High-protein diet
C)High-fiber diet
D)High-calcium diet
Q4) With early diagnosis and treatment of cervical cancer, prognosis is excellent.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 24: Sexually Transmitted Infections
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Sample Questions
Q1) In females the _____ is the usual site of original gonococcal infection.
A)endocervical canal
B)vagina
C)fallopian tube
D)labia majora
Q2) Human papillomavirus (HPV)
A)The most common serious viral infection among infants
B)Causes condylomata acuminata
C)May contribute to the development of genital cancer
Q3) Which organism causes syphilis?
A)Neisseria syphilis, an anaerobic bacterium
B)Treponema pallidum, a spirochete
C)Haemophilus ducreyi, a bacterium
D)Chlamydia trachomatis, an intracellular parasite
Q4) Trichomoniasis is caused by a parasite.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The asymptomatic stage of syphilis is the latent stage.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 25: Structure and Function of the Hematologic System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Hematopoiesis
A)Clotting
B)Red blood cell development
C)Red blood cell destruction
D)Platelet formation
E)Blood cell production
Q2) Which statement about plasma proteins is false?
A)Plasma proteins provide clotting factors.
B)Plasma proteins transport triglycerides and cholesterol.
C)Plasma proteins synthesize complement proteins.
D)Plasma proteins create hydrostatic pressure.
Q3) Erythropoiesis
A)Clotting
B)Red blood cell development
C)Red blood cell destruction
D)Platelet formation
E)Blood cell production
Q4) Aging causes major changes in blood composition.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 26: Alterations of Erythrocyte Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) In a plastic anemia, pancytopenia develops as a result of the:
A)suppression of erythropoietin to produce adequate amounts of erythrocytes.
B)suppression of the bone marrow to produce adequate amounts of erythrocytes, leukocytes, and thrombocytes.
C)lack of DNA to form sufficient quantities of erythrocytes, leukocytes, and thrombocytes.
D)lack of stem cells to form sufficient quantities of leukocytes.
Q2) Anemia of chronic disease (ACD) is initially a normochromic and normocytic anemia, but as the condition progresses, it becomes hypochromic and microcytic.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which statement about folic acid is false?
A)Folic acid absorption is dependent on the enzyme folacin.
B)Folic acid is stored in the liver.
C)Folic acid is essential for RNA and DNA synthesis within erythrocytes.
D)Folic acid is absorbed in the upper small intestine.
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28
Chapter 27: Alterations of Leukocyte, Lymphoid, and Hemostatic Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT) is described as a(n):
A)IgG immune-mediated adverse drug reaction that reduces circulating platelets.
B)hematologic reaction to heparin in which the bone marrow is unable to produce sufficient platelets to meet the body's needs.
C)IgE-mediated allergic drug reaction that reduces circulating platelets.
D)cell-mediated drug reaction in which macrophages process the heparin and platelet complexes that are then destroyed by activated cytotoxic T cells.
Q2) A shift to the left describes the premature release of immature neutrophils when the demand for mature neutrophils exceeds the supply.
A)True
B)False
Q3) RS cells represent malignant transformation and proliferation of:
A)IL-1, IL-2, IL-5, and IL-6.
B)tumor necrosis factor-beta.
C)B cells.
D)T cells.
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Chapter 28: Alterations of Hematologic Function in Children
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the name of the disorder in which levels of bilirubin remain excessively high in the newborn and are deposited in the brain?
A)Kernicterus
B)Icterus neonatorum
C)Jaundice
D)Icterus gravis neonatorum
Q2) What prevents kernicterus?
A)Administration of intravenous fluids to dilute the blood and remove the bilirubin through the kidneys faster
B)Replacement transfusion of Rh-positive erythrocytes to prevent the deposit of bilirubin in the kidneys
C)Performance of a splenectomy to prevent the destruction of abnormal erythrocytes
D)Replacement transfusion of Rh-negative erythrocytes to prevent the deposit of bilirubin in the brain
Q3) Between 4 years of age and the onset of puberty, dietary iron deficiency is common.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 29: Structure and Function of the Cardiovascular and Lymphatic Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) Autoregulation ensures constant coronary blood flow despite normal shifts in perfusion pressure.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Although both produce vasoconstriction, the effects of norepinephrine are quantitatively more vasoconstrictive than the effects of epinephrine.
A)True
B)False
Q3) When the volume of blood in the ventricle at the end of diastole increases, the force of the myocardial contraction during the next systole will also increase.This is an example of which law or theory about the heart?
A)Laplace's law
B)Poiseuille's formula
C)Cross-bridge theory
D)Frank-Starling law
Q4) Veins are less compliant than arteries.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 30: Alterations of Cardiovascular Function
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Q1) Biventricular dilation is the result of which form of cardiomyopathy?
A)Hypertrophic
B)Restrictive
C)Dilated
D)Inflammatory
Q2) Angina pectoris is chest pain caused by myocardial ischemia.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following can trigger an immune response within the bloodstream that can result in an embolus?
A)Amniotic fluid
B)Fat
C)Bacteria
D)Air
Q4) Aortic and mitral regurgitation as well as mitral stenosis are caused by:
A)congenital malformation.
B)cardiac failure.
C)rheumatic fever.
D)coronary artery disease.
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Chapter 31: Alterations of Cardiovascular Function in Children
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Sample Questions
Q1) Classic manifestations of a systolic ejection murmur, cyanosis of the lower extremities, and decreased or absent femoral pulse are indicative of an older child with which of the following congenital defects?
A)Tetralogy of Fallot
B)Aortic stenosis
C)Ventricular septum defect
D)Postductal aortic coarctation
Q2) In some cases of total anomalous pulmonary venous connection (TAPVC), pulmonary veins drain into the vena cava.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following describes total anomalous pulmonary venous return?
A)The foramen ovale closes after birth.
B)Pulmonary venous return is to the right atrium.
C)Pulmonary venous return is to the left atrium.
D)The left atrium receives oxygenated blood.
Q4) Acquired heart disease is the most common cardiovascular disease in children.
A)True
B)False
Page 33
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Chapter 32: Structure and Function of the Pulmonary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Where in the lung does gas exchange occur?
A)Trachea
B)Segmental bronchi
C)Alveolocapillary membrane
D)Main bronchus
Q2) Located in smooth muscles of airways
A)Irritant receptors
B)Stretch receptors
C)J-receptors
D)Peripheral chemoreceptors
E)Central chemoreceptors
Q3) Located in the aortic bodies, aortic arch, and carotid bodies at the bifurcation of the carotids
A)Irritant receptors
B)Stretch receptors
C)J-receptors
D)Peripheral chemoreceptors
E)Central chemoreceptors
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Chapter 33: Alterations of Pulmonary Function
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Q1) Dyspnea is not a result of:
A)decreased pH, increased PaCO , and decreased PaO .
B)decreased blood flow to the medulla oblongata.
C)stimulation of stretch or J-receptors.
D)fatigue of the intercostal muscles and diaphragm.
Q2) Bronchiectasis
A)The passage of fluid and solid particles into the lung
B)Inflammatory obstruction of small airways
C)Excessive amount of connective tissue in the lung
D)Lung tissue collapse
E)Abnormal dilation of the bronchi
Q3) Atelectasis
A)The passage of fluid and solid particles into the lung
B)Inflammatory obstruction of small airways
C)Excessive amount of connective tissue in the lung
D)Lung tissue collapse
E)Abnormal dilation of the bronchi
Q4) Pneumoconiosis is a pneumonia caused by pneumococci.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 34: Alterations of Pulmonary Function in Children
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Q1) Which T lymphocyte phenotype is the key determinant of childhood asthma?
A)CD4 T-helper Th1 lymphocytes
B)CD4 T-helper Th2 lymphocytes
C)CD8 cytotoxic T lymphocytes
D)Memory T lymphocytes
Q2) Cystic fibrosis is best described as a(n):
A)obstructive airway disease characterized by reversible airflow obstruction, bronchial hyperreactivity, and inflammation.
B)respiratory disease characterized by severe hypoxemia, decreased pulmonary compliance, and diffuse densities on chest x-ray.
C)pulmonary disorder involving an abnormal expression of a protein producing viscous mucus that obstructs the airways, pancreas, sweat ducts, and vas deferens.
D)pulmonary disorder characterized by atelectasis and increased pulmonary resistance as a result of a surfactant deficiency.
Q3) About 75% of aspirated foreign objects in children lodge in a bronchus.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 35: Structure and Function of the Renal and Urologic Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) Urodilatin:
A)inhibits sodium chloride and water reabsorption in the medullary part of the collecting duct.
B)inhibits antidiuretic hormone (ADH) to prevent water reabsorption in the medullary part of the collecting duct.
C)is stimulated by a rise in blood pressure and an increase in extracellular volume.
D)is stimulated by a fall in blood pressure and a decrease in extracellular volume.
Q2) The area of the kidneys that contains the glomeruli of the nephrons is the:
A)medulla.
B)cortex.
C)pyramids.
D)columns.
Q3) What is an indication that the carrier molecule for glucose is saturated?
A)Hyperglycemia
B)Glucosuria
C)Polyuria
D)Proteinuria
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Chapter 36: Alterations of Renal and Urinary Tract Function
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Q1) A neurogenic bladder is a functional urinary tract obstruction caused by an interruption of the nerve supply to the bladder.
A)True B)False
Q2) An alkaline urinary pH significantly decreases the risk of calcium phosphate stone formation whereas acid urine decreases the risk of uric acid stones.
A)True B)False
Q3) Renal cell carcinoma arises from epithelial cells in the:
A)proximal tubule.
B)distal tubule.
C)nephron.
D)glomerulus.
Q4) Pyelonephritis is usually caused by antibody-coated: A)bacteria.
B)fungi.
C)viruses.
D)parasites.
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Chapter 37: Alterations of Renal and Urinary Tract Function in Children
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is not considered part of the nephrotic syndrome in children?
A)Proteinuria
B)Pyuria
C)Hyperlipidemia
D)Edema
Q2) Epispadias may only be found in males.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following represents the final stage in the embryonic development of the kidney?
A)Metanephros
B)Mesonephros
C)Pronephros
D)Endonephros
Q4) Organic causes of enuresis are the most common.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 38: Structure and Function of the Digestive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Stimulates the gallbladder to eject bile and pancreas to secrete alkaline fluid
A)Peptide YY
B)Secretin
C)Cholecystokinin
D)Enteroglucagon
E)Pancreatic polypeptide
Q2) Which stimulus increases the tone of the esophageal sphincter?
A)Progesterone
B)Glucagon
C)Motilin
D)Gastrin
Q3) Insulin is required for active absorption of carbohydrates by the small intestine.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Hydrolase cleaves fatty acids from phospholipids and phospholipase breaks cholesterol esters into fatty acids and cholesterol.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 39: Alterations of Digestive Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is false regarding the sources of increased ammonia that contribute to hepatic encephalopathy?
A)End products of intestinal protein digestion
B)Digested blood leaking from ruptured varices
C)Accumulation of short-chain fatty acids attaches to ammonia
D)Ammonia-forming bacteria in the colon
Q2) Which clinical manifestation is not consistent with cancer of the cecum and ascending colon?
A)Mahogany-colored blood mixed with stool
B)Anemia
C)Pain
D)Constipation
Q3) After a gastrectomy, individuals develop anemia from deficiencies in iron, folate, and vitamin B .
A)True
B)False
Q4) Hepatitis B is a sexually transmitted disease.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 40: Alterations of Digestive Function in Children
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Q1) In newborns, GER is normal because neuromuscular control of the gastroesophageal sphincter is not fully developed.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Because lactose intolerance is presumed in children with gluten-sensitive enteropathy (celiac sprue), lactose is excluded from their diet.
A)True B)False
Q3) Foods eliminated from the diet for children who have gluten-sensitive enteropathy (celiac sprue) include:
A)citrus fruits.
B)starchy vegetables.
C)cereal grains.
D)red meat.
Q4) Clinical signs of portal hypertension include:
A)right heart failure.
B)pulmonary edema.
C)splenomegaly.
D)diarrhea.
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Chapter 41: Structure and Function of the Musculoskeletal System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which ion directly controls the contraction of muscles?
A)Sodium
B)Potassium
C)Calcium
D)Magnesium
Q2) The elbow joint is an example of a(n):
A)amphiarthrosis.
B)diarthrosis.
C)synarthrosis.
D)biarthrosis.
Q3) A neuroregulin is a:
A)chemical mediator that initiates signals from the anterior horn cell of the spinal card to the axon of motor nerve branches of groups of muscle fibers.
B)neurotransmitter that provides a means of reporting changes in length, tension, velocity, and tone in muscles.
C)proteoglycan secreted by neurons that increases acetylcholine receptors.
D)mechanoreceptor that lies parallel to muscle fibers and responds to muscle stretching.
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Chapter 42: Alterations of Musculoskeletal Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Acute alcoholic myopathy, McArdle disease, and disorders of lipid metabolism in muscles:
A)are autoimmune diseases.
B)are capable of depositing immune complexes in muscles.
C)are causes of myoglobinuria.
D)result in progressive muscle weakness.
Q2) People with gout are at high risk for:
A)renal calculi.
B)joint trauma.
C)anemia.
D)hearing loss.
Q3) Rhabdomyolysis is characterized by:
A)paralysis of skeletal muscles resulting from impaired nerve supply.
B)smooth muscle degeneration resulting from ischemia.
C)lysis of skeletal muscle cells through the initiation of the complement cascade.
D)release of myoglobin from damaged striated muscle cells.
Q4) Osteomyelitis is a bone infection caused only by bacteria.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 43: Alterations of Musculoskeletal Function in Children
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Sample Questions
Q1) Staphylococcus aureus may cause osteomyelitis in newborns and older children.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which protein, absent in muscle cells of Duchenne muscular dystrophy, mediates the anchoring of skeletal muscles fibers to the basement membrane?
A)Syntrophin
B)Laminin
C)Dystrophin
D)Troponin
Q3) Bone growth takes place at the same rate at both ends of the bones because they are under hormonal control.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The total mass of muscle in the body can be estimated from which serum laboratory test value?
A)Albumin
B)Blood urea nitrogen
C)Creatinine
D)Creatine
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Chapter 44: Structure, Function, and Disorders of the Integument
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Sample Questions
Q1) Wart (verruca) or lichen planus
A)Elevated, firm circumscribed area less than 1 cm in diameter
B)Elevated, firm, and rough lesion with flat top surface greater than 1 cm in diameter
C)Flat circumscribed area that is less than 1 cm in diameter
D)Elevated irregular-shaped area of cutaneous edema; solid, transient; with a variable diameter
E)Elevated circumscribed, superficial lesion filled with serous fluid, less than 1 cm in diameter
Q2) Women who develop hirsutism may be secreting hormones associated with:
A)posterior pituitary adenoma.
B)Cushing disease.
C)polycystic ovaries.
D)Addison disease.
Q3) Which cells of the dermis release histamine and play a role in the hypersensitivity reactions of the skin?
A)Histiocytes
B)Fibroblasts
C)Mast cells
D)Macrophages
Page 46
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Chapter 45: Alterations of the Integument in Children
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Q1) Which of the following viral diseases has an incubation period of 14 to 21 days and a duration of 1 to 4 days?
A)Rubeola
B)Rubella
C)Roseola
D)Varicella
Q2) In cases of staphylococcal scalded-skin syndrome, the most effective treatment is direct application of antibiotics to the skin.
A)True
B)False
Q3) _____ is a contagious disease caused by the itch mite.
A)Miliaria
B)Tinea corporis
C)Pediculosis
D)Scabies
Q4) Koplik spots are characteristic of rubella.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 46: Shock, Multiple Organ Dysfunction Syndrome, and
Burns in Adult
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Q1) The gastrointestinal system is very sensitive to inflammatory injury resulting from mediators released by macrophages.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Follows infection
A)Cardiogenic shock
B)Hypovolemic shock
C)Neurogenic shock
D)Anaphylactic shock
E)Septic shock
Q3) In MODS, organs that show signs of failure are those involved in the initial injury.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Burn injury induces almost immediate:
A)hypervolemia.
B)hypermetabolism.
C)hyponatremia.
D)hypotension.
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Chapter 47: Shock, Multiple Organ Dysfunction Syndrome, and Burns in
Children
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Sample Questions
Q1) Approximately 80% of all nosocomial infections in children are a result of: A)bacteria.
B)viruses.
C)fungi.
D)Rickettsia.
Q2) Hypotension may not be observed in an adolescent until the fluid loss approximates ___% of body weight.
A)10
B)15
C)20
D)25
Q3) When an infant or child is greater than ___% dehydrated, hypotension occurs.
A)2
B)5
C)7
D)10
Q4) Infants are at increased risk for a precipitous drop in core body temperature caused by an inability to regulate heat loss by shivering.
A)True
B)False
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