Pathophysiology and Pharmacology
Exam Questions
Course Introduction
This course provides an in-depth examination of the physiological and biochemical mechanisms underlying disease processes, with a strong focus on how these alterations impact normal body function. Students will explore the pathophysiology of major health conditions, linking the etiology and progression of diseases to clinical manifestations. The course also introduces fundamental principles of pharmacology, including drug action, absorption, metabolism, and excretion, as well as the therapeutic applications and potential adverse effects of key drug classes. Emphasis is placed on the rationale behind pharmacological interventions and their integration into evidence-based approaches to disease management and patient care.
Recommended Textbook
Understanding Pharmacology 2nd Edition by Workman
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1305 Verified Questions
1305 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Drug Regulation, Actions, and Responses
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40 Verified Questions
40 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient who has a serious chronic disorder (epilepsy)has been taking a drug to control it that has a moderate likelihood of increasing the risk for birth defects or fetal damage.She tells you that she would like to have a child.What is your best response?
A) Tell her that taking any drug during pregnancy is not recommended.
B) Suggest that she use a reliable method of contraception and consider adoption.
C) Warn her that her condition will get worse if she stops taking the prescribed drug.
D) Counsel her to discuss her wishes with her health care provider to evaluate her specific risks and possible pregnancy outcomes.
Answer: D
Q2) A patient has all of the following health problems.Which problem increases his or her risk for drug side effects?
A) Asthma
B) Kidney disease
C) GI ulcers
D) Chronic high blood pressure
Answer: B
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3
Chapter 2: Safely Preparing and Giving Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient needs a dose of oral potassium for a low serum potassium level (3.4 mEq/dL).Which type of order should the prescriber write?
A) Standing order
B) Single order
C) PRN order
D) STAT order
Answer: B
Q2) A patient is to receive nitroglycerin ointment,1 inch STAT,for elevated blood pressure.What must be done before giving this drug?
A) Shave the hair off the patient's chest.
B) Place the patient on a heart monitor.
C) Put on a pair of disposable gloves.
D) Measure the dose directly on the patient's skin.
Answer: C
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Chapter 3: Mathematics Review and Introduction to Dosage Calculation
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40 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which fraction represents a whole number?
A) 4/20
B) 5/20
C) 10/20
D) 20/20
Answer: D
Q2) What is the correct answer (without rounding)to multiplying 19.06 by 13.22?
A) 197.6231
B) 251.9732
C) 309.5522
D) 322.8121
Answer: B
Q3) Which statement about an improper fraction is true?
A) It is always greater than 1.
B) It has no lowest common denominator.
C) It cannot be multiplied or divided by another fraction.
D) It can only be multiplied or divided by a whole number.
Answer: A
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Chapter 4: Medical Systems of Weights and Measures
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Sample Questions
Q1) Using dimensional analysis,calculate the correct dosage of an initial bolus of heparin sodium to administer as 80 units/kg by intravenous push to a man who weighs 259 lb.The drug is available as a solution of 10,000 units/10 mL.Give the answer in mL.
Q2) A newborn infant weights 1.982 kg.What is this infant's weight in pounds?
A) 9.2
B) 4.36
C) 2.92
D) 0.9
Q3) A patient is prescribed 300 mg of ribavirin oral suspension.What you have on hand is ribavirin oral suspension at a concentration of 50 mg/mL.How many milliliters is the correct dose?
Q4) A patient is prescribed potassium 15 mEq in an oral solution.How many ounces is the correct dose to be administered to the patient from a solution of potassium with a strength of 20 mEq in 8 ounces?
_____ ounces
Q5) A patient is prescribed to receive 750 mg of metformin (Glucophage)oral solution through a nasogastric tube.You have on hand the oral solution with a concentration of 100 mg/mL.How many milliliters should you administer through the tube?
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Chapter 5: Dosage Calculation of Intravenous Solutions and Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) How is extravasation different from infiltration?
A) Infiltration occurs in the hand,whereas extravasation occurs in the arm.
B) Both conditions lead to swelling,but extravasation causes tissue damage.
C) Infiltration is swelling accompanied by pain,whereas extravasation is not painful.
D) Extravasation causes phlebitis along with tissue swelling,whereas infiltration causes fluid overload along with swelling.
Q2) While examining a patient's peripheral intravenous (IV)site,you observe a red streak along the length of the vein.On palpation,the vein feels hard and cordlike.What is your best action?
A) Check for a blood return and notify the prescriber.
B) Discontinue the infusion and remove the IV needle.
C) Apply ice packs to the vein and continue the infusion.
D) Change the IV fluid to normal saline and redress the site.
Q3) Which term describes how much fluid is to be infused intravenously?
A) Rate
B) Infusion
C) Volume
D) Duration
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Chapter 6: Anti-Inflammatory Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which factors determine the size and severity of the inflammatory response? (select all that apply)
A) Intensity of the injury
B) Type of tissue injured
C) Severity of the invasion
D) Gender of the patient
E) Extent of injury
F) Duration of the invasion
Q2) Why is inflammation considered a nonspecific body response?
A) Inflammation is the basis for almost every type of chronic disease.
B) Infection by bacteria or viruses is always a part of inflammation.
C) The same tissue responses occur regardless of the type of triggering event.
D) The discomfort associated with inflammation can be reduced by over-the-counter drugs.
Q3) Which question is most important to ask a patient before giving the first dose of etaneracept (Enbrel)?
A) Do you have diabetes?
B) Are you pregnant or breastfeeding?
C) Do you have psoriasis or another skin disorder?
D) Have you ever had tuberculosis or hepatitis B or C?
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Chapter 7: Drugs for Pain Control
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is taking acetaminophen (Tylenol)for mild headache pain.Which precaution is most important for you to teach the patient?
A) "Avoid alcoholic beverages while taking this drug."
B) "Avoid coffee and other caffeinated drinks while taking this drug."
C) "If any decrease in vision occurs,stop the drug and notify your prescriber immediately."
D) "Do not drive or operate dangerous machinery until you know how this drug affects you."
Q2) What is the most common side effect of an opioid used for 5 days?
A) Addiction
B) Hallucinations
C) Constipation
D) Excessive thirst
Q3) A patient taking warfarin (Coumadin)has mild to moderate pain after exercising.Which over-the-counter pain reliever should you recommend?
A) Aspirin (Bufferin)
B) Ibuprofen (Advil)
C) Naproxen (Aleve)
D) Acetaminophen (Tylenol)
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Chapter 8: Anti-Infectives: Antibacterial Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is to receive ticarcillin (Ticar)3 g by intravenous piggyback.The solution you have is ticarcillin 200 mg/mL.How many milliliters of this solution will you add to the piggyback bag to make a dose of 3 g?
A) 3 mL
B) 5 mL
C) 10 mL
D) 15 mL
Q2) A patient is taking trimethoprim (Primsol)200 mg orally once a day.For which adverse effect will you monitor?
A) GI bleeding
B) Kidney failure
C) Anaphylaxis
D) Angioedema
Q3) Which drug is most often used to treat ear infections in children?
A) Imipenem (Primaxin)
B) Amoxicillin (Amoxil)
C) Vancomycin (Vancocin)
D) Sulfamethoxazole/trimethoprim (Bactrim)
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Chapter 9: Anti-Infectives: Antiviral Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) What precaution is most important to teach a patient newly prescribed to take Truvada?
A) "Continue to use safer sex practices."
B) "Avoid caffeine and any fatty or fried foods."
C) "Be sure to drink at least 3 L of fluids daily."
D) "If you develop muscle or joint aches,notify your prescriber immediately."
Q2) A 40-year-old patient infected with human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)asks why the new drug maraviroc (Selzentry)is not being prescribed for her.What is your best response?
A) "This drug is very expensive and your insurance may not cover it."
B) "This drug can cause birth defects and should not be prescribed for anyone who is pregnant or might become pregnant."
C) "This drug is very toxic to the heart and lungs.It is prescribed only for patients who are young and have no other health problems."
D) "This drug is not effective against all HIV subtypes and the HIV causing your infection does not have the target for this drug."
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Chapter 10: Anti-Infectives: Antitubercular and Antifungal Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why are most standard antibacterial drugs ineffective against tuberculosis?
A) The TB organism is slow growing.
B) The TB organism is not really a type of bacteria.
C) The TB organism does not have a true cell wall.
D) The TB organism is usually located in the brain stem where antibacterial drugs cannot reach.
Q2) A patient who is prescribed ethambutol (EMB,Myambutol)reports trouble distinguishing colors.What is your best action?
A) Document the report as the only action.
B) Hold the dose and notify the prescriber immediately.
C) Caution the patient to wear sunglasses and a hat when outside.
D) Reassure the patient that this is a common side effect of the drug.
Q3) Which teaching point should you stress when a patient is prescribed terbinafine (Lamisil)?
A) Avoid citrus fruits while taking this drug.
B) Do not drive until you know how the drug affects you.
C) Stay away from crowds or people who are ill.
D) Get lots of extra rest while you are taking this drug.
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Chapter 11: Drugs That Affect the Immune System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which action is essential to detect a common side effect after giving a calcineurin inhibitor?
A) Keep accurate intake and output records.
B) Check blood pressure every 4 to 8 hours.
C) Compare the patient's lower legs for swelling or redness.
D) Carefully check the patient for yellowing of skin or sclera.
Q2) What is the most important question to ask a 68-year-old adult who requests to receive the shingles vaccination?
A) Is there any possibility you might be pregnant?
B) Did you have chickenpox as a child or an adult?
C) Do you have either type 1 diabetes or type 2 diabetes?
D) Did you receive a seasonal influenza vaccination last year?
Q3) How are vaccination and immunization related?
A) They are actually the same thing.
B) They are completely unrelated to each other.
C) The outcome of successful vaccination is immunization.
D) The outcome of successful immunization is vaccination.
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Chapter 12: Anticancer Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) When it is time for a patient's third round of chemotherapy for colon cancer,the patient's white blood cell count is low and the treatment is delayed.The patient is upset at this delay.What is your best response?
A) "This extra time will give your hair a chance to grow back in."
B) "This is for the best.You are too weak to receive chemotherapy now."
C) "I will call the physician and request a prescription for something to calm your nerves."
D) "Try not to worry.Your counts will probably be high enough next week and the chemotherapy will work just as well then."
Q2) Which class of chemotherapy drugs works by interfering with the formation of tubules so that new cells cannot separate during cell division?
A) Antimetabolites
B) Antitumor antibiotics
C) Antimitotics
D) Alkylating agents
Q3) An infant with cancer is to receive vincristine (Oncovin)0.05 mg/kg intravenously.The infant weighs 18 lb.What is the appropriate dose,in mg?
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Chapter 13: Drug Therapy for Diabetes
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which precaution is most important to teach patients who have any type of diabetes about alcohol use?
A) "Be sure to take your antidiabetic drug or drugs 15 minutes before drinking any alcohol."
B) "Only drink alcohol right before bedtime because it will make you drowsy."
C) "Increase your water intake whenever you drink alcohol."
D) "Only drink alcohol with a meal or shortly after a meal."
Q2) A patient is receiving an injection of Humulin 70/30 at 7:00a.m.At what time should you expect the peak action for this drug?
A) Between 7:30 a.m.and 8:00 a.m.
B) Between 9:00 a.m.and 11:00 a.m.
C) Between 1:00 p.m.and 5:00 p.m.
D) Between 4:00 p.m.and 11:00 p.m.
Q3) Which drug used to treat diabetes by increasing incretins and amylin is taken orally?
A) Exenatide (Byetta)
B) Liraglutide (Victoza)
C) Pramlintide (Symlin)
D) Sitagliptin (Januvia)
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Chapter 14: Drug Therapy for Thyroid and Adrenal Gland
Problems
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Sample Questions
Q1) How do thyroid replacement drugs affect diabetes?
A) Thyroid replacement drugs reduce the effectiveness of all antidiabetic drugs.
B) When thyroid replacement drugs return metabolism to normal,diabetes is gone.
C) Thyroid replacement drugs can allow a patient to switch from insulin to an oral antidiabetic drug.
D) Thyroid replacement drugs require that a patient taking an oral antidiabetic drug be placed on insulin.
Q2) A patient who has been taking levothyroxine (Synthroid)for 2 months has all of the following conditions.Which condition indicates that the drug therapy is effective?
A) Increased thirst
B) Daily bowel movement for 1 week
C) White blood cell count of 6000/mm<sup>3</sup>
D) Weight unchanged for the last 3 weeks
Q3) Which mineral is critical for the thyroid to use in making thyroid hormones?
A) Lithium
B) Sodium
C) Chloride
D) Iodine
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Chapter 15: Drugs That Affect Urine Output
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient taking tolterodine (Detrol)reports decreased urination,ankle swelling,and a weight gain of 5 lb over the past 2 days.What should you do next?
A) Hold the dose and notifies the prescriber.
B) Check the patient's blood pressure and heart rate.
C) Give the next dose as prescribed.
D) Document the finding as the only action.
Q2) Which diuretic is potassium-sparing?
A) Chlorothiazide (Oretic)
B) Furosemide (Lasix)
C) Ethacrynic acid (Edecrin)
D) Spironolactone (Aldactone)
Q3) What must you teach any patient who is taking a diuretic drug?
A) Avoid foods that are rich in potassium such as bananas and broccoli.
B) Sit on the side of the bed for 1 to 2 minutes before getting out of bed.
C) Notify the prescriber if the heart rate is less than 70 beats/min.
D) Keep a record of dietary intake for a few weeks.
Q4) The adult patient is prescribed 100 mg of hydrochlorothiazide (HCTZ [Oretic])in 2 divided doses per day.HCTZ is available on 25 mg tablets.How many tablets per dose will you give the patient?
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Chapter 16: Drug Therapy for Hypertension
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which term means high blood pressure from no known cause?
A) Orthostatic hypertension
B) Orthostatic hypotension
C) Primary hypertension
D) Secondary hypertension
Q2) Which drug is an angiotensin II receptor blocker (ARB)?
A) Lisinopril
B) Bumetanide
C) Ramipril
D) Losartan
Q3) A patient with hypertension is prescribed terazosin (Hytrin).When should you administer the first dose of this drug to the patient?
A) In the morning to avoid waking the patient at night
B) With meals to avoid GI problems
C) With a full glass of water
D) At bedtime
Q4) An adult patient is prescribed metoprolol (Lopressor)50 mg orally twice a day.Metoprolol is available in 100 mg tablets.How many tablets will you give for each dose?
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Chapter 17: Drug Therapy for Heart Failure
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with heart failure is prescribed metoprolol (Toprol XL)25 mg daily.The pharmacy sends metoprolol (Lopressor)25 mg.What is your best action?
A) Give the dose as provided because the drugs are the same.
B) Ask the pharmacy to send the drug as ordered.
C) Contact the prescriber for clarification.
D) Check the patient's heart rate before giving the dose.
Q2) What is a common side effect of hydralazine (Apresoline)therapy for heart failure?
A) Tachycardia
B) High blood pressure
C) Constipation
D) Difficulty sleeping
Q3) Which symptom is commonly assessed when a patient has left ventricular heart failure?
A) Weight gain
B) Swelling in the legs
C) Jugular vein distention
D) Crackles in the lungs
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19
Chapter 18: Drug Therapy for Dysrhythmias
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient who has been prescribed acebutolol (Sectral)develops a heart rate of 48 beats/min,dizziness,difficulty breathing,and bluish fingernails.What is your best first action?
A) Instruct the patient to take several slow deep breaths.
B) Place the patient in high Fowler's position.
C) Hold the drug and notify the prescriber.
D) Apply oxygen by mask or nasal cannula.
Q2) What cardiac dysrhythmia can be helped or corrected by the drug atropine?
A) Tachycardia
B) Bradycardia
C) Premature atrial contractions
D) Premature ventricular contractions
Q3) What dose of atropine is prescribed to be administered via endotracheal tube?
A) The same dose as normal
B) Twice the normal dose
C) Three times the normal dose
D) Four times the normal dose
Q4) A pediatric patient is prescribed 0.008 mg of digoxin (Lanoxin).The drug on hand is digoxin 0.05 mg/mL.One milliliter equals 15 gtt.How many drops (gtt)will you give?
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Chapter 19: Drug Therapy for High Blood Lipids
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Sample Questions
Q1) What are the symptoms of late liver disease? (select all that apply)
A) Yellowing of the skin
B) Light-colored diluted urine
C) Pale gray-colored stools
D) Pain on the right side just below the ribs
E) Reddened mucous membranes in the mouth
Q2) Which lipid-lowering drug type can cause gallstones?
A) Statins
B) Fibrates
C) Nicotinic acid agents
D) Bile acid sequestrants
Q3) What problem is usually caused by high blood lipid levels?
A) Atherosclerosis
B) Blindness from glaucoma
C) Chronic hypotension
D) Deadly dysrhythmias
Q4) A patient is prescribed to receive simvastatin (Zocor)60 mg orally.The drug on hand is simvastatin 40 mg/scored tablet.How many tablets should you give for the correct dose?
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Chapter 20: Drugs That Affect Blood Clotting
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Q1) What is the intended response to an erythropoiesis-stimulating agent (ESA)?
A) Increased red blood cell counts
B) Decreased red blood cell counts
C) Increased platelet counts
D) Decreased platelet counts
Q2) For what specific health problem is urokinase (Abbokinase)approved?
A) Acute myocardial infarction (heart attack)in which the symptoms began 24 hours ago
B) Stroke caused by an embolus lodged in a small artery in the brain
C) Stroke caused by a ruptured blood vessel in the brain
D) Massive acute pulmonary embolism
Q3) Which blood component forms the initial plug that helps stop bleeding?
A) Fibrin
B) Platelets
C) Neutrophils
D) Eosinophils
Q4) A patient is prescribed 300 mg of oral clopidogrel (Plavix)as a first dose.The drug on hand is clopidogrel 75 mg.How many tablets should you give?
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Page 22
Chapter 21: Drug Therapy for Asthma and Other Respiratory Problems
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with asthma is prescribed albuterol (Proventil)as needed and salmeterol (Serevent)every 12 hours.When the patient asks why two inhaler drugs are needed,what is your best response?
A) "Albuterol opens your airways and salmeterol decreases the inflammation."
B) "I will check with the prescriber to determine whether you can just use one drug."
C) "Albuterol is a rescue drug to stop asthma attacks and salmeterol prevents attacks."
D) "Salmeterol helps you breathe better and albuterol opens alveoli for gas exchange."
Q2) How are asthma and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)different?
A) COPD is a genetic disease whereas asthma is largely caused by allergies.
B) Breathing problems with asthma are reversible but those with COPD are permanent.
C) Asthma is a disease of children and younger adults whereas COPD is found only in older adults.
D) Breathing problems with COPD can lead to death,whereas those with asthma are not severe enough to be fatal.
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23
Chapter 22: Drug Therapy for Gastrointestinal Problems
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which common drug for nausea/vomiting is a 5HT<sub>3</sub>-receptor antagonist?
A) Granisetron
B) Promethazine
C) Scopolamine
D) Metoclopramide
Q2) A patient who is prescribed prochlorperazine (Compazine)for postoperative nausea/vomiting has all of the following changes.For which change should you immediately contact the prescriber?
A) Systolic blood pressure decrease of 12 mm Hg
B) Increased sleepiness but arouses with light shaking
C) Oral temperature increase of 2° F
D) Urine color change from yellow to reddish-brown
Q3) Which laboratory value must be monitored after a patient takes bisacodyl (Dulcolax)for constipation?
A) Sodium
B) Potassium
C) Creatinine
D) Blood urea nitrogen
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24
Chapter 23: Drug Therapy for Gastric Ulcers and Reflux
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which drug used to treat peptic ulcer disease (PUD)and gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD)is a histamine H2 blocker?
A) Metoclopramide (Reglan)
B) Esomeprazole (Nexium)
C) Famotidine (Pepcid)
D) Cetirizine (Zyrtec)
Q2) A patient with gastroesophageal reflux disease is prescribed ranitidine (Zantac).Which statement by the patient indicates the need for additional teaching?
A) "I will notify my prescriber if I need to use ranitidine for more than 2 weeks."
B) "I will look into a smoking cessation program when I go home."
C) "I will take the ranitidine first thing in the morning so that its effect will last all day and night."
D) "I will not drive until I know how the ranitidine affects me."
Q3) Which activity interferes with the action of histamine H2 blockers?
A) Going to bed late
B) Smoking cigarettes
C) Eating dairy products
D) Taking oral contraceptives
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Chapter 24: Drug Therapy With Nutritional Supplements
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which condition results from a deficit of vitamin C?
A) Beriberi
B) Pellagra
C) Scurvy
D) Megaloblastic anemia
Q2) Which statement about multivitamins is accurate?
A) Multivitamins are essential organic micronutrients the body needs in small amounts for various roles throughout the human body.
B) Multivitamins are essential micronutrients which are inorganic elements.
C) Multivitamins are preparations that contain several vitamins essential for health.
D) Multivitamins are only water soluble vitamins and trace minerals.
Q3) Which type of supplemental feeding makes use of the gastrointestinal tract?
A) TPN (total parenteral nutrition)
B) Intravenous feedings
C) Intraosseous feedings
D) Enteral feedings
Q4) A patient with COPD is to receive Pulmocare at 40 mL/h.How many milliliters would you hang to cover 4 hours?
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Chapter 25: Drug Therapy for Seizures
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which temporary condition is considered a brief but expected response immediately after an individual has a seizure?
A) Residual muscle twitches
B) Low blood pressure
C) Unconsciousness
D) Confusion
Q2) A patient is prescribed clonazepam (Klonopin).Which adverse effect will you monitor for after giving this drug?
A) Respiratory depression
B) Stevens-Johnson syndrome
C) Angioedema
D) Epidermal necrolysis
Q3) Which health problem is the most serious possible side effect for status epilepticus?
A) Ruptured spinal disks
B) Brain tumor
C) Broken bones
D) Brain damage
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27
Chapter 26: Drug Therapy for Alzheimers and Parkinsons Diseases
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Q1) Which drug used to treat Parkinson's disease is a pure dopamine agonist?
A) Trihexyphenidyl (Artane)
B) Tolcapone (Tasmar)
C) Selegiline (Zelapar)
D) Rotigotine (Neupro)
Q2) A patient taking entacapone (Comtan)for Parkinson's disease informs you that his urine is now brownish-orange in color.What is your best action?
A) Explain that this is an expected side effect and is not harmful.
B) Collect a urine sample and send it to the laboratory for urinalysis.
C) Hold the drug and immediately notify the prescriber.
D) Instruct the patient to increase his intake of fluids.
Q3) A patient is prescribed donepezil (Aricept)for Alzheimer's disease.What assessment is most important after giving this drug?
A) Blood pressure
B) Bowel sounds
C) Peripheral pulses
D) Signs of bleeding
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Page 28
Chapter 27: Drug Therapy for Psychiatric Problems
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44 Verified Questions
44 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Four hours after receiving risperidone (Risperdal),the patient on the psychiatric unit has a temperature elevation of 2<sup>o</sup> F.What is your best action?
A) Administer the next dose of the drug as prescribed.
B) Assess the patient for other signs and symptoms of infection.
C) Hold the next drug dose and notify the prescriber immediately.
D) Attempt to arouse the patient from sleep by gently shaking his or her arm.
Q2) Which drug used to treat depression is a combination of a reuptake inhibitor and a receptor blocker?
A) Fluoxetine (Prozac)
B) Sertraline (Zoloft)
C) Tramadol (Rybix)
D) Trazodone (Desyrel)
Q3) What potential problem can occur in an infant being breastfed while the mother takes a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor?
A) Suicide ideation
B) Acute depression
C) Excess excitement
D) Weight loss
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29
Chapter 28: Drug Therapy for Insomnia
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21 Verified Questions
21 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What adjustment should you expect to be made for an 82-year-old patient who is newly prescribed chloral hydrate for insomnia?
A) Seizure precautions should be implemented.
B) The first dose should be given with a meal or a substantial snack.
C) The initial dose should be lower than that for a younger adult.
D) The patient should have continuous electrocardiography monitoring.
Q2) A child who weighs 56 lb is prescribed to receive chloral hydrate 40 mg/kg.The available drug is 250 mg/5 mL.How many milliliters should you give for the correct dose?
Q3) Which class of drugs used to treat insomnia has the lowest likelihood to be habit forming or addictive?
A) Barbiturates
B) Benzodiazepines
C) Sedating antidepressants
D) Benzodiazepine receptor agonists
Q4) How do benzodiazepines depress the central nervous system and induce sleep?
A) Raising the seizure threshold
B) Reducing the number of neurotransmitter receptors in the brain
C) Decreasing the amount of excitatory neurotransmitters in the brain
D) Increasing the amount of gamma amino butyric acid present in the brain
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Chapter 29: Drug Therapy for Eye Problems
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36 Verified Questions
36 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/49298
Sample Questions
Q1) With which patient should a carbonic anhydrase inhibitor be avoided as a treatment of glaucoma?
A) A patient with reduced vision
B) A patient with sulfa allergy
C) A patient with hypertension
D) A patient with diabetes
Q2) A patient is prescribed methazolamide (Neptazane)75 mg orally.The drug available is methazolamide 25 mg/tablet.How many tablets should be administered to the patient?
_____ tablet(s)
Q3) Which drug reduces the production of aqueous humor to the greatest degree?
A) Acetazolamide (Diamox)
B) Pilocarpine (Isopto)
C) Dipivefrin (AK-Pro)
D) Travoprost (Travatan)
Q4) Where in or on the eye should eye drops be placed?
A) Under the upper lid
B) In a pocket of the lower lid
C) Directly over the center of the eye
D) In the corner of the eye closest to the nose
Page 31
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Chapter
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28 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why are women overall at a greater risk for osteoporosis than men?
A) Women now tend to live longer than men.
B) Men generally have a larger stature than women.
C) Women eat more vegetables and fruits;whereas men eat more meat.
D) Women who have been pregnant lose bone density faster than either women who have not had children or men.
Q2) Which patient is at greater risk for having a severe allergic reaction from an infusion with denosumab (Prolia)?
A) The patient who is also being treated for gastroesophageal reflux disease.
B) The patient who has been taking Prolia every 6 months for 2 years.
C) The patient who is about to receive her first dose of prolia.
D) The patient who has an allergy to peanuts.
Q3) A patient prescribed to take allopurinol (Zyloprim)once daily asks,when is the best time to take the drug.What is your best response?
A) Right before bed to reduce the side effect of nausea.
B) Right after a full meal to prevent conversion of purines into uric acid.
C) On an empty stomach to ensure the best absorption of this oral drug.
D) It doesn't matter whether your stomach is full or empty,just take it at the same time every day.
Page 32
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Chapter 31: Drug Therapy for Male Reproductive Problems
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34 Verified Questions
34 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/49300
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient taking tamsulosin (Flomax)asks how the drug works.What is your best response?
A) "This drug works on your prostate gland to decrease its size."
B) "This drug signals the cells in your prostate gland not to grow."
C) "This drug works by relaxing the detrusor muscle of your bladder."
D) "This drug relaxes muscle around your urethra to improve urine flow."
Q2) Which drug is a selective alpha-1 blocker?
A) Dutasteride (Avodart)
B) Finasteride (Proscar)
C) Sildenafil (Viagra)
D) Silodosin (Rapaflo)
Q3) A patient is prescribed testosterone 100 mg IM every 4 weeks.What finding will you teach the patient to report to the prescriber immediately?
A) Blood pressure decrease of 10 mm Hg systolic
B) Urine output increase of 200 mL/day
C) Weight gain of 5 lb
D) Increased prostate size
Q4) A patient is prescribed testosterone (Cypionate)250 mg IM every 3 weeks.You have testosterone 100 mg/1 mL.How many milliliters will you give with each dose?
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Chapter 32: Drug Therapy for Female Reproductive Issues
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17 Verified Questions
17 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/49301
Sample Questions
Q1) Which hormone levels in the blood are reduced as a result of taking hormone replacement therapy for menopause?
A) Estrogen and progesterone
B) Estrogen and follicle stimulating hormone
C) Gonadotrophin releasing hormone and progesterone
D) Follicle stimulating hormone and gonadotrophin releasing hormone
Q2) A woman who is hospitalized overnight after surgery usually takes Premarin 2.5 mg daily for control of perimenopausal symptoms.Her prescriber orders a one-time dose of Premarin 2.5 mg orally as soon as possible.The drug on hand is Premarin 0.625 mg/tablet.How many tablets should you administer?
Q3) Which female hormone supports pregnancy by directly maintaining the thickened uterine lining?
A) Estrogen
B) Progesterone
C) Luteinizing hormone
D) Follicle stimulating hormone
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