Pathology Laboratory Methods Practice
Exam
Course Introduction
Pathology Laboratory Methods provides students with comprehensive knowledge and practical skills essential for conducting laboratory investigations in pathology. The course covers topics such as specimen collection and processing, histopathological techniques, cytopathology preparations, staining methods, molecular diagnostic procedures, and quality control in the laboratory setting. Emphasis is placed on the principles and applications of various laboratory instruments and safety protocols necessary for accurate diagnosis of diseases. Through lectures, demonstrations, and hands-on laboratory exercises, students gain proficiency in essential laboratory methodologies, promoting a solid understanding of the critical role laboratory techniques play in modern pathology practice.
Recommended Textbook
Textbook of Diagnostic Microbiology 4th Edition by Connie R. Mahon
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Bacterial Cell Structure, physiology, Metabolism, and Genetics
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Sample Questions
Q1) What type of fermentation produces lactic,acetic,succinic,and formic acids as the end products?
A) Butanediol
B) Propionic
C) Mixed acid
D) Homolactic
Answer: C
Q2) If bacteria utilize various carbohydrates for growth,it is usually detected by:
A) Alkaline production and change of color from the pH indicator
B) Production of carbon dioxide
C) Production of keto acids
D) Acid production and change of color from the pH indicator
Answer: D
Q3) These are enzymes that cut the bacterial DNA at specific locations.
A) Bacteriophage enzymes
B) Restriction enzymes
C) Temperate lysogeny enzymes
D) Conjugation enzymes
Answer: B
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Chapter 2: Host-Parasite Interaction
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Sample Questions
Q1) Lysozyme is:
A) An antibody produced by the skin
B) A low-molecular-weight enzyme that hydrolyzes the peptidoglycan layer of bacterial cell walls
C) An exotoxin that digests the lipopolysaccharide layer of the bacterial cell wall
D) A radical similar to hydrogen peroxide
Answer: B
Q2) Healthy skin secretes these substances to help prevent colonization by transient and possibly pathogenic organisms.
A) Long-chain fatty acids
B) Sebaceous glands
C) Bacteriostatic substances
D) Antibodies
Answer: A
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4
Chapter 3: Laboratory Role in Infection Control
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Sample Questions
Q1) This ongoing process helps public health and health care officials recognize outbreaks,upward trends of infections,and positive effects of interventions.
A) Handwashing techniques
B) Intervention
C) Surveillance
D) Antimicrobial resistance
Answer: C
Q2) The counties surrounding yours are seeing an increase in the number of whooping cough cases.This is important for the microbiology laboratory because:
A) Physicians may start sending these cases to you.
B) You will need to advise physicians to suspect such cases and to send them to the hospitals in the surrounding counties.
C) You need to make sure that the infection control practitioners in those counties have baseline data.
D) You need to educate health care providers on specimen collection and transportation and have the specialized media ready so you can detect any cases in your county.
Answer: D
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Chapter 4: Control of Microorganisms
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why should health care workers wash their hands after coming into contact with a patient?
A) To reduce the amount of red blood cells transmitted from one patient to the next
B) To reduce the occurrence of hemolytic transfusion reactions
C) To reduce the need for antiseptics and disinfectants
D) To reduce the spread of pathogenic bacteria from one individual to another
Q2) Why is laboratory-acquired infection an obvious hazard for personnel working in a microbiology lab?
A) Microbiology personnel do not always adhere to safety practices.
B) Safety practices are not applicable for the microbiology laboratory.
C) In-service education is not provided for microbiology staff.
D) Personnel deal with a variety of infections agents: viral, fungal, parasitic, and bacterial.
Q3) Chemosterilizers exert their killing effect through all the following mechanisms EXCEPT:
A) Denaturation of cellular proteins
B) Damage of RNA and DNA
C) Inactivating enzyme substrates
D) Reactions with components of the cytoplasmic membrane
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6
Chapter 5: Performance Improvement in the Microbiology Laboratory
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Sample Questions
Q1) When is a broken process fixed?
A) When the problem is prevented from happening again.
B) When everyone is happy with the process.
C) When the process becomes seamless.
D) When the hospital administrator determines that the cross-functional team is no longer needed.
Q2) In January 2004,The Joint Commission (TJC)implemented performance measurements for organizational systems that are critical to patient safety,quality of care,treatment,and services.This new initiative is called:
A) Performance improvement
B) Quality control
C) Quality assurance
D) Shared visions-new pathway
Q3) Actual laboratory testing is called a(n):
A) Preanalytic activity
B) Analytic activity
C) Postanalytic activity
D) Research activity
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Chapter 6: Specimen Collection and Processing
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Sample Questions
Q1) What work practice have microbiologists incorporated to keep laboratory testing cost effective while providing optimum patient care?
A) Using definitive identification for the standard of quality patient care
B) Always identifying organisms to the maximum extent
C) Limited identification procedures
D) Limited antimicrobial susceptibility procedures
Q2) A night tech is working in microbiology when a cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)specimen comes in.Almost simultaneously,the tech is called to the emergency department to draw blood on seriously injured car accident victims.How would the tech store the CSF until time permits to work on the CSF specimen?
A) Put the specimen in the refrigerator where it is good for 4 hours at 4° C.
B) Leave the specimen on the shelf where it is good for 6 hours at room temperature.
C) Pour the specimen into a tube of broth.
D) Place the specimen in a 35° C incubator for 6 hours.
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Chapter 7: Microscopic Examination of Infected Materials
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Sample Questions
Q1) Local materials that may be added in the criteria for accepting or rejecting a respiratory specimen include all the following EXCEPT:
A) Mucus
B) Macrophages
C) Bacterial ropes
D) Ciliated columnar cells
Q2) A specimen that is spread on a smear and appears to have a homogenous constitution is said to:
A) Be clumped at different areas on the slide
B) Contain pathogens only in one visual field
C) Have material spread evenly throughout the slide
D) Contain normal florae
Q3) Pathogens that will grow in culture,but not in routine bacterial culture,can be recognized on the smear and include all the following EXCEPT:
A) Legionella spp.
B) Mycobacterium spp.
C) Bartonella spp.
D) Klebsiella spp.
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9
Chapter 8: Use of Colonial Morphology for the Presumptive
Identification of Microorganisms
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Sample Questions
Q1) When differentiating colony size on the culture plates,what organisms generally have the larger colonies by comparison?
A) Gram-negative rods
B) Gram-positive cocci
C) Gram-negative diplococci
D) Gram-positive rods
Q2) Colony morphology is defined as:
A) Colony characteristics and form
B) Colony size and color
C) Colony smell and shape
D) Colony constitution and environmental conditions
Q3) What organism forms a small,fuzzy-edged colony with an umbonate center on blood or chocolate agar?
A) Eikenella corrodens
B) Staphylococcus aureus
C) Escherichia coli
D) Streptococcus pyogenes
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Page 10
Chapter 9: Biochemical Identification of Gram-Negative Bacteria
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Sample Questions
Q1) How are organisms identified with commercial identification kits?
A) Numeric codes
B) Color codes
C) Alphabetic codes
D) Alphanumeric codes
Q2) If an organism fermented glucose only and utilized peptones,what would the triple sugar iron (TSI)reaction be?
A) Acid/acid
B) Alkaline/acid
C) Alkaline/alkaline
D) Acid/alkaline
Q3) The biochemical pathway that the methyl red test confirms is:
A) Glucose ® pyruvic acid ® mixed acid fermentation
B) Pyruvic acid ® glucose ® mixed acid fermentation
C) Glucose ® pyruvic acid ® acetoin ® diacetyl KOH
D) Butylene ® pyruvic acid ® diacetyl KOH
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11
Chapter 10: Immunodiagnosis of Infectious Diseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) Antibodies for many antigens can be passively acquired in:
A) Vaccinations
B) Flu shots
C) Intravenous immunoglobulin therapy
D) All of the above
Q2) A monoclonal antibody is:
A) An antibody that is derived from one cell, exposed to many epitopes
B) An antibody that is derived from many cells, exposed to one epitope
C) An antibody that is derived from one cell and exposed to no epitopes
D) An antibody that is derived from one cell initially, which has been exposed to one epitope
Q3) All of the following are antigens present in a hepatitis B infection EXCEPT:
A) HBsAg
B) HBcAg
C) HBeAg
D) VCNA
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Chapter 11: Applications of Molecular Diagnostics
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Q1) Accurate epidemiologic surveillance of specific organisms is needed for all the following reasons EXCEPT:
A) The rise of large numbers of antibiotic resistant isolates
B) Increases in the rates of toxin-producing bacteria
C) The spread of pathogenic microbes across the world
D) The increase in nosocomial infections
Q2) This method analyzes gene expression polymorphism by analyzing proteins.
A) Multilocus enzyme electrophoresis
B) Pulsed field gel electrophoresis
C) Restriction fragment length polymorphism (RFLP)
D) Multilocus sequence typing
Q3) How do higher probe concentrations affect a given hybridization reaction?
A) Increase the temperature
B) Lower the reaction time
C) Lower the ionic strength
D) Increase the pH.
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13
Chapter 12: Antibiotic Mechanisms of Action and Resistance
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Sample Questions
Q1) This type of resistance mechanism modifies the antibiotic targets and results in reduced affinity of antibiotics for their microbial targets.
A) Cell-wall inhibition
B) Protein synthesis modification
C) Enzyme alteration
D) Frameshift mutation
Q2) What is the mechanism of action of the glycopeptides (vancomycin and teicoplanin)?
A) The glycopeptides inhibit folate synthesis and prevent the bacteria from using this as an energy source.
B) The glycopeptides interfere with DNA replication and disrupt the protein synthesis operation.
C) The glycopeptides bind to the substrate of the transpeptidation enzyme and disrupt the cell membrane construction.
D) The glycopeptides interfere with transfer RNA production and disrupt the protein synthesis operation.
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Chapter 13: Antimicrobial Susceptibility Testing
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Sample Questions
Q1) The minimal inhibitory concentration (MIC)is:
A) The lowest antibiotic concentration to slow the growth of an organism.
B) The highest antibiotic concentration to slow the growth of an organism.
C) The lowest antibiotic concentration to inhibit the growth of an organism.
D) The highest antibiotic concentration to inhibit the growth of an organism.
Q2) What is a breakpoint panel?
A) A standard minimal inhibitory concentration (MIC) panel that contains many more dilution wells for each drug tested
B) A MIC panel with only three or four drugs tested
C) A MIC panel with only one or a few concentrations of each drug
D) A MIC panel that contains nonroutine drugs
Q3) Oxacillin-resistant staphylococci can appear susceptible in vitro to other -lactam agents such as:
A) Quinolones
B) Tetracyclines
C) Cephalosporins
D) Aminoglycosides
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15
Chapter 14: Staphylococci
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Sample Questions
Q1) Staphylococci resist the action of inflammatory cells by the production of toxins and enzymes,thereby establishing:
A) A focal lesion
B) An infection
C) Toxic shock syndrome
D) Scalded skin syndrome
Q2) What are the staphylococcal products that cause diarrhea and vomiting in humans?
A) Enterotoxins
B) Endotoxins
C) Cytolytic toxins
D) Cellular components, such as protein A
Q3) What are the effects of the Panton-Valentine toxin produced by Staphylococcus aureus?
A) It acts on sphingomyelin in the plasma membrane of red blood cells.
B) It kills polymorphonuclear leukocytes.
C) It kills macrophages.
D) It lyses red blood cells, damages platelets and macrophages, and can cause severe tissue damage.
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Chapter 15: Streptococcus, enterococcus, and Other
Catalase-Negative Gram-Positive Cocci
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is VRE?
A) Vancomycin-ready erythromycin
B) Very-reliable erythromycin
C) Vancomycin-resistant enterococcus
D) Veocin-resistant enterococcus
Q2) Two serious complications of an infection with group A streptococcal disease are:
A) Toxic shock syndrome and scarlet fever
B) Gangrene and rheumatic fever
C) Acute glomerulonephritis and necrotizing fasciitis
D) Acute glomerulonephritis and rheumatic fever
Q3) What is the inexpensive test used to presumptively identify Streptococcus pyogenes?
A) Optochin
B) Bacitracin
C) Nitrate
D) Citrate
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17
Chapter 16: Aerobic Gram-Positive Bacilli
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Sample Questions
Q1) All the following are general characteristics of the genus Bacillus EXCEPT:
A) Aerobic
B) Gram positive
C) Form endospores
D) Cocci
Q2) What media does Corynebacterium diphtheriae grow on?
A) Sheep blood agar (SBA)
B) Loeffler
C) Cystine-tellurite blood
D) All of the above
Q3) All the following tests should be performed by sentinel laboratories to rule out the possibility of Bacillus anthracis from an isolate EXCEPT:
A) Gram stain
B) Glucose fermentation
C) Catalase
D) Motility
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18
Chapter 17: Neisseria Species and Moraxella Catarrhalis
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the specimen of choice in males for genital infections?
A) Urine
B) Throat culture
C) Purulent discharge
D) Stool
Q2) Nonpathogenic commensal Neisseria spp.include all the following EXCEPT:
A) Neisseria lactamica
B) N. meningitidis
C) N. mucosa
D) N. polysaccharea
Q3) Gonococcal infections occur primarily in all the following sites EXCEPT:
A) Urethra
B) Endocervix
C) Uterus
D) Anal canal
Q4) How are Neisseria gonorrhoeae infections transmitted?
A) Sexual contact
B) Contaminated food
C) Respiratory droplet
D) Spores
Page 19
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Chapter 18: Haemophilus and Other Fastidious
Gram-Negative Bacilli
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Sample Questions
Q1) All the following organisms are associated with human illness EXCEPT:
A) Brucella melitensis
B) B. ovis
C) B. suis
D) B. canis
Q2) Which one of the virulence factors associated with Haemophilus spp.plays the most significant role in the invasiveness of the organism?
A) IgA protease
B) Pili
C) Capsule
D) Enterotoxin
Q3) All of the following are rapid methods used to definitively identify Legionella species EXCEPT:
A) Direct fluorescent antibody (DFA)
B) DNA detection
C) Indirect immunofluorescence
D) Urine antigen testing
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Page 20
Chapter 19: Enterobacteriaceae
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which organism is the most common cause of urinary tract infections (UTIs)in humans?
A) Escherichia coli
B) Klebsiella oxytoca
C) Proteus mirabilis
D) Enterobacter cloacae
Q2) What organism in the genus Providencia is incriminated in nosocomial outbreaks in burn units and has been isolated from urine cultures?
A) Providencia stuartii
B) P. heimbachae
C) P. rustigianii
D) P. alcalifaciens
Q3) Which of the following agars is not selective for Enterobacteriaceae?
A) Buffered charcoal yeast extract
B) MacConkey
C) Hektoen enteric
D) Xylose-lysine deoxycholate
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Chapter 20: Vibrio,aeromonas,plesiomonas and
Campylobacter Species
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Q1) A patient is brought to the emergency department with a severe case of gastroenteritis.The patient experienced gastrointestinal upset after eating raw oysters.What organism can be the culprit of this patient's condition?
A) Vibrio trota
B) V. parahaemolyticus
C) V. cholerae
D) V. vulnificus
Q2) How is Helicobacter pylori presumptively identified?
A) A culture of a gastric biopsy
B) A culture of gastric scrapings
C) A rapid oxidase test done on gastric scrapings
D) A rapid urease test done on a gastric biopsy
Q3) What do aeromonad colonies look like on cefsulodin-irgasan-novobiocin (CIN)agar?
A) Purple colonies
B) Clear colonies
C) Green colonies
D) Pink colonies
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Chapter 21: Nonfermenting and Miscellaneous
Gram-Negative Bacilli
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Q1) Members of the Alcaligenes are usually susceptible to all the following antibiotics
EXCEPT:
A) Aminoglycosides
B) Cefoperazone
C) Sulfamethoxazole-trimethoprim (SXT)
D) Piperacillin
Q2) What organism is associated with pneumonia in patients with cystic fibrosis or chronic granulomatous disease (CGD)?
A) Stenotrophomonas maltophilia
B) Pseudomonas putida
C) Pseudomonas fluorescens
D) Burkholderia cepacia
Q3) What organisms,which are gram-negative coccobacilli,can appear as gram-positive cocci in smears made from blood culture bottles?
A) Pseudomonas putida
B) Acinetobacter spp.
C) Haemophilus
D) Alcalgenes spp.
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Chapter 22: Anaerobes of Clinical Importance
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Q1) A microbiology technologist is reading an anaerobic culture and observes a double zone of hemolysis on an anaerobically incubated sheep blood agar plate.The Gram stain of that organism was a boxcar-shaped,gram-positive bacillus.What organism is this?
A) Clostridium perfringens
B) C. difficile
C) C. ramosum
D) C. clostridiiforme
Q2) What are two important factors that must be taken into consideration when transporting specimens for anaerobic culture?
A) Making sure there is enough specimen in a tightly closed container
B) Minimum exposure to oxygen and drying out
C) Minimum exposure to oxygen and making sure the specimen is transported in a tightly closed screw-cap container
D) Drying out and proper nutrition
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Chapter 23: Spirochetes
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Q1) A young woman notices a bruise that looks like an erythema chronicum migrans lesion on her lower leg.She cannot remember getting bruised,even though she went hiking through the woods last weekend.The bruise goes away in about a week and she thinks nothing more about it.About 2 weeks later,she begins to feel very bad.She has joint and bone pain,extreme fatigue,and her heart just "doesn't feel right." What disease does she have,and what antibiotic is used to treat it?
A) Lyme disease and doxycycline
B) Relapsing fever and macrolides
C) Parrot fever and penicillin
D) Hemorrhagic fever and gentamicin
Q2) What is an example of a nontreponemal test?
A) Rapid plasmin reagin (RPR)
B) Fluorescent treponemal antibody, absorbed (FTA-ABS)
C) Treponema pallidum particle agglutination (TPPA)
D) Microhemagglutination-Treponema pallidum (MHA-TP)
Q3) What organism causes relapsing fever?
A) Borrelia recurrentis
B) B. burgdorferi
C) Leptospira interrogans
D) C. psittaci
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Chapter 24: Chlamydia and Rickettsia
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Q1) What testing method is the method of choice for detecting antibodies to Chlamydia pneumoniae?
A) Direct fluorescent antibody (DFA)
B) Serologic tests
C) Cell culture
D) Enzyme immunoassay (EIA)
Q2) Guidelines for reporting the results of Chlamydia trachomatis testing on patients include all the following EXCEPT:
A) Testing specifically using profiles
B) Reporting which tests were and were not performed
C) Reporting unusual observations
D) Performing a routine culture in addition to all the tests for Chlamydia
Q3) Chlamydia trachomatis produces all the following conditions in adult women EXCEPT:
A) Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID)
B) Salpingitis
C) Bacterial vaginosis
D) Endometritis
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Chapter 25: Mycoplasma and Ureaplasma
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Q1) What two organisms are associated with urogenital tract infections but have also been isolated from asymptomatic individuals?
A) Mycoplasma hominis and Ureaplasma urealyticum
B) M. hominis and M. fermentans
C) U. urealyticum and M. pneumoniae
D) M. penetrans and M. pneumoniae
Q2) When transporting specimens for Mycoplasma culture to the laboratory,extreme care must be taken so that the specimen does not:
A) Become contaminated
B) Leak from the specimen container
C) Become overgrown with bacterial normal florae
D) Dry out
Q3) Mycoplasma sp.from patient samples are visible by which staining technique?
A) Gram stain
B) Methylene Blue
C) Acridine orange
D) All of the above
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Chapter 26: Mycobacterium Tuberculosis and Other
Nontuberculosis Mycobacteria
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Q1) What is the antigen used in the purified protein derivative (PPD)skin test?
A) A purified protein from the nucleus of Mycobacterium tuberculosis
B) A purified piece of DNA from M. tuberculosis
C) A purified protein from the cell wall of M. tuberculosis
D) A piece of ribosomal RNA from M. tuberculosis
Q2) All of these stains are used to visualize mycobacteria on a smear EXCEPT:
A) Ziehl-Neelsen
B) Kinyoun
C) Auramine
D) Acridine orange
Q3) What is the purpose of the digestion-decontamination processing of specimens submitted for mycobacterial culture?
A) To release all bacteria in the sample
B) To make the specimen easier to plate
C) To allow chemical decontaminants to kill nonmycobacterial organisms
D) To liquefy the outer cell wall of the mycobacteria so that they will grow faster
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Chapter 27: Medically Significant Fungi
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Q1) What organism is one of the primary opportunistic infections in AIDS patients?
A) Pneumocystis jiroveci
B) Phaeoannellomyces werneckii
C) Coccidioides immitis
D) Paracoccidioides brasiliensis
Q2) What organism is found in the San Joaquin Valley region of California?
A) Sporothrix schenckii
B) Penicillium marneffei
C) Coccidioides immitis
D) Paracoccidioides brasiliensis
Q3) What organism frequently presents in fungus balls?
A) Fonsecaea compacta
B) Penicillium marneffei
C) F. pedrosoi
D) Aspergillus fumigatus
Q4) What is the causative agent of black piedra?
A) Microsporum canis
B) Trichosporon beigelii
C) Piedraia hortae
D) Sporothrix schenckii
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Chapter 29: Clinical Virology
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Q1) Adenoviruses produce all the following types of infections EXCEPT:
A) Acute hemorrhagic cystitis
B) Meningitis
C) Acute respiratory distress
D) Epidemic keratoconjunctivitis
Q2) What is a primary cell culture?
A) This is where tissue is removed from an animal, arranged in a monolayer, and very little cell division occurs.
B) It is a culture that can divide, but passage is limited to 50 generations.
C) It has variable numbers of chromosomes and indefinite passage.
D) This describes are the only cells the specimen will be plated on.
Q3) What is the genome of a virus composed of?
A) Single-stranded DNA
B) RNA
C) Double-stranded DNA
D) Any of the above
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Chapter 30: Agents of Bioterror
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Q1) What classification system was developed in 1999 by academic infectious disease experts,government officials,military intelligence experts,and law enforcement officials?
A) Biosafety levels
B) High, moderate, and low categories
C) A, B, C categories
D) Normal, increased, and high categories
Q2) What federal regulation establishes the rules of possession,use,and transfer of select agents and toxins?
A) Public Health Security and Bioterrorism Preparedness and Response Act of 2002
B) 42 CFR 73
C) Animal Health and Inspection Act
D) Infectious Agent Act
Q3) All of the following are synonyms for brucellosis EXCEPT:
A) Malta fever
B) Undulant fever
C) Gibraltar fever
D) Relapsing fever
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Chapter 31: Biofilms: Architects of Disease
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Sample Questions
Q1) Treating infectious diseases has shifted from planktonic susceptibility profiles to:
A) Therapeutic modalities
B) Creative treatments
C) Multiple interventions
D) Degrading enzymes
Q2) What is a biofilm?
A) Communities of organisms attached to a solid surface
B) The resulting thick, slimy mucous produced in cystic fibrosis
C) A slime factor that can be found in your gastrointestinal tract
D) The resulting film that is produced by necrotic tissue, bacteria, and immune cells
Q3) How do microorganisms that live in close proximity exchange DNA?
A) Frame-shift mutations and plasmid uptake
B) Transformation and conjugation
C) Conjugation and frame-shift mutations
D) All of the above
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Chapter 32: Upper and Lower Respiratory Tract Infections
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Sample Questions
Q1) What type of pneumonia has been associated with Staphylococcus aureus that produces Panton-Valentine leukocidin?
A) Methicillin-resistant pneumonia
B) Necrotizing pneumonia
C) Bacterial
D) Viral
Q2) If a patient has a throat culture done and the culture reveals the presence of a-hemolytic colonies,what does this indicate?
A) These organisms are pathogenic and must be treated.
B) These organisms are normally found in the pharynx and are normal.
C) The patient is suffering from a viral pharyngitis.
D) The patient has mouth ulcers that require antiviral treatment.
Q3) A patient's normal florae can be altered by all of the following EXCEPT:
A) Broad-spectrum antibiotics
B) Recent hospitalization
C) Chronic illness
D) Visited a nursing home
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33
Chapter 33: Skin and Soft Tissue Infections
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Sample Questions
Q1) What organism,which usually causes respiratory infections,causes maculopapular and vesicular rashes,urticaria,and immunologically mediated erythema nodosum and erythema multiform?
A) Streptococcus pneumoniae
B) Klebsiella pneumoniae
C) Mycoplasma pneumoniae
D) Haemophilus influenzae
Q2) What condition causes the nail margin to become painful,red,warm,and swollen with pus?
A) Furuncle
B) Carbuncle
C) Erysipelas
D) Paronychia
Q3) What is the most common bacterium found on the skin?
A) Coagulase-negative staphylococci
B) Coagulase-negative streptococci
C) Escherichia coli
D) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
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Chapter 34: Gastrointestinal Infections and Food Poisoning
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Sample Questions
Q1) How is diarrhea usually contracted?
A) By air
B) By blood
C) By contaminated food or water
D) By respiratory droplet
Q2) All of the following organisms have been implicated in a food-borne outbreak
EXCEPT:
A) Staphylococcus aureus
B) Salmonella spp.
C) Clostridium botulinum
D) Vibrio cholerae
Q3) What diarrheal illness occurs when organisms invade through the bowel wall,cause bacteremia,and also cause a mesenteric lymphadenitis that may be confused with appendicitis?
A) Diarrhea in which the mucosal surface is invaded
B) Diarrhea in which the full bowel thickness is invaded
C) Diarrhea caused by endotoxins
D) Diarrhea caused by enterotoxins
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Chapter 35: Infections of the Central Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following are common fungal causes of central nervous system (CNS)infection EXCEPT:
A) Cryptococcus neoformans
B) Coccidioides immitis
C) Candida albicans
D) Histoplasma capsulatum
Q2) All of the following are common causes of viral encephalitis EXCEPT:
A) Herpes viruses
B) Enteroviruses
C) Arboviruses
D) Toroviruses
Q3) What is the first step in developing meningitis?
A) A cold that compromises your immune system
B) Living in close quarters, like military barracks or a college dorm
C) Poor sanitary conditions
D) Nasopharyngeal colonization by a meningeal pathogen
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Chapter 36: Bacteremia and Sepsis
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following organisms are colonizers of indwelling catheters EXCEPT:
A) Coagulase-negative staphylococci
B) Streptococcus pyogenes
C) Staphylococcus aureus
D) Enterococcus spp.
Q2) How long are conventional blood cultures held?
A) 4 days
B) 7 days
C) 14 days
D) 21 days
Q3) Bacteremia with this organism may lead to endocarditis,osteomyelitis,septic arthritis,hepatic abscess,or pyomyositis.
A) Streptococcus pneumoniae
B) Escherichia coli
C) Staphylococcus aureus
D) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
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Chapter 37: Urinary Tract Infections
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Sample Questions
Q1) Bacteria gain access to the urinary tract by all of the following routes EXCEPT:
A) The ascending route
B) The neurologic route
C) The hematogenous route
D) The lymphatic pathways
Q2) All of the following types of specimens should not be treated as screens EXCEPT:
A) Urine specimens with significant pyuria and bacteriuria
B) Straight catheterization
C) Suprapubic aspiration
D) Cystoscopy
Q3) What is the most common way for the renal parenchyma to become infected with gram-positive bacteria?
A) Ascending route
B) Descending route
C) Hematogenous route
D) Poor personal hygiene
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Chapter 38: Genital Infections and Sexually Transmitted Diseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) What of the following methods is considered the "gold standard" for diagnosing genital herpes?
A) Viral isolation
B) Enzyme immunoassay (EIA)
C) Polymerase chain reaction (PCR)
D) GenProbe
Q2) Why are there so many cases of genital herpes in the Unites States?
A) Condoms cannot prevent spread.
B) No protection is available.
C) Lesions shed when asymptomatic.
D) Lesions shed when symptomatic.
Q3) What organism causes chancroid?
A) Treponema pallidum
B) Haemophilus ducreyi
C) Mobiluncus
D) Gardnerella vaginalis
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Chapter 39: Infections in Special Populations
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Sample Questions
Q1) The parts of the host defense system include all of the following EXCEPT:
A) Specialized immune system
B) Innate immune system
C) Acquired immune system
D) Nonspecific general barriers
Q2) What is the granulocyte count below which the risk of infection increases steadily?
A) 5000 cells/mm3
B) 1000 cells/mm3
C) 500 cells/mm3
D) 200 cells/mm3
Q3) What two parasitic agents commonly affect patients with malignancy?
A) Giardia lamblia and Listeria monocytogenes
B) Strongyloides stercoralis and Giardia lamblia
C) Pneumocystis jiroveci (carinii) and Toxoplasma gondii
D) Toxoplasma gondii and Wuchereria bancrofti
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Chapter 40: Zoonotic Diseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) Patients that develop Weil's syndrome have all the following symptoms EXCEPT:
A) Hemolysis
B) Jaundice
C) Congestive heart failure
D) Renal failure
Q2) Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae normally infects all the following animals EXCEPT:
A) Cows
B) Swine
C) Poultry
D) Fish
Q3) Zoonotic infections that jump from animal to human and then can be transmitted human to human,include all the following EXCEPT:
A) HIV
B) Tularemia
C) Ebola
D) Severe acute respiratory syndrome (SARS)
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Chapter 41: Ocular Infections
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Sample Questions
Q1) Because the ocular structures occupy only about one fifth of the orbital cavity,what fills it up?
A) Muscle and skin
B) Fat and skin
C) Fat and muscle
D) Nerves and muscles
Q2) What contains enzymes and other factors that protect the conjunctiva from microbial invasion?
A) Skin
B) Tears
C) Upper lid
D) Lower lid
Q3) What is the function of the curved corneal surface?
A) To refract light
B) To collect light
C) To focus light
D) All of the above
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