Pathology Laboratory Methods
Mock Exam
Course Introduction
Pathology Laboratory Methods introduces students to the fundamental techniques, tools, and protocols used in the modern pathology laboratory for the diagnosis and study of diseases. The course covers specimen collection, preparation, and preservation, as well as histological staining, immunohistochemistry, cytology, and molecular diagnostic methods. Emphasis is placed on quality assurance, biosafety, troubleshooting, and interpretation of laboratory findings. Through a combination of lectures and practical sessions, students gain hands-on experience in laboratory procedures and develop critical thinking skills necessary for accurate analysis and reporting in pathology.
Recommended Textbook
Clinical Immunology and Serology A Laboratory Perspective 3rd Edition by Christine Dorresteyn
Available Study Resources on Quizplus
22 Chapters
562 Verified Questions
562 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/3821 Page 2
Chapter 1: Introduction and Natural Immunity
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
49 Verified Questions
49 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/76262
Sample Questions
Q1) Neutrophils and macrophages use all of the following to kill bacteria EXCEPT:
A) H<sub>2</sub>O<sub>2</sub>
B) perforin
C) hydroxyl radical
D) lysozyme
E) superoxide anion
Answer: B
Q2) Where does the immune response to foreign antigen in the tissue mainly occur?
A) lymph nodes
B) blood
C) bone marrow
D) skin
Answer: A
Q3) Which of the following represents the best explanation for the action of natural killer (NK)cells?
A) They recognize specific antigen.
B) They kill if MHC class I is present.
C) They kill by releasing perforins.
D) They participate in phagocytosis.
Answer: C
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 3
Chapter 2: Lymphoid System
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
62 Verified Questions
62 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/76261
Sample Questions
Q1) A lymphocyte exhibits the following markers: CD19,IgM,IgD.What is its likely identity?
A) double-negative T cell
B) immature B cell
C) double-positive T cell
D) mature B cell
Answer: D
Q2) Tissues that function by trapping and concentrating antigens for presentation to cells of the immune system are known as:
A) peripheral or secondary lymphoid organs
B) primary or generative lymphoid organs
C) either of the above
D) neither of the above
Answer: A
Q3) Cytotoxic T cells are the primary immune response against which pathogen?
A) viruses
B) intracellular parasites
C) extracellular bacteria
D) intracellular bacteria
Answer: A
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 4
Chapter 3: Nature of Antigens and Major Histocompatibility Complex
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
38 Verified Questions
38 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/76260
Sample Questions
Q1) If a mother is HLA A3A14/ B5B15/ Cw3Cw4,and her child is A3A9/B5B27/Cw4Cw7,which of the following men is the most likely candidate for the father?
A) A5A9/B5B27/Cw3Cw7
B) A9A11/B15B21/Cw1Cw4
C) A4A15/B2B27/Cw1Cw5
D) A5A9/B17B27/Cw3Cw5
Answer: A
Q2) The best immunogen would be:
A) monovalent and genetically foreign
B) less than 10,000 molecular weight
C) multivalent with many specificities
D) multivalent with one repeated specificity
Answer: C
Q3) Major histocompatibility (MHC)molecules containing beta-2-microglobulin:
A) contain alpha and beta transmembrane polypeptides
B) participate in the activation of CD4 T cells
C) are determined by HLA-A,HLA-B,and HLA-C genes
D) are determined by the HLA-DR genes
Answer: C
Page 5
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 4: Antibody Structure and Function
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
62 Verified Questions
62 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/76259
Sample Questions
Q1) The receptor for antigen on a mature naive B cell is:
A) MHC class I
B) IgG
C) IgM
D) MHC class II
Q2) IgD is produced by:
A) differential splicing of the RNA transcript
B) differential splicing of the DNA transcript
C) constant gene region rearrangement
D) immature B cells
Q3) Which immunoglobulin appears first in the primary response?
A) IgG
B) IgM
C) IgA
D) IgE
Q4) Somatic mutation of immunoglobulin genes accounts for:
A) allelic exclusion
B) class switching from IgM to IgG
C) affinity maturation
D) creation of the isotype
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 6
Chapter 5: Cytokines
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
26 Verified Questions
26 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/76258
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following can be attributed to interleukin-6 (IL-6)?
A) stimulates red blood cell production
B) increases vascular permeability
C) inhibits antigen presentation by macrophages
D) increases activation of T and B cells
Q2) IL-3,IL-7,and GM-CSF are all involved in:
A) hematopoiesis
B) suppressing inflammation
C) macrophage killing
D) T cell cytotoxicity
Q3) Which acts as the best defense against gram-negative bacteria?
A) IL-1
B) TNF
C) IL-2
D) IL-5
Q4) IL-2 is synthesized by which type of cell and acts on which type of cell?
A) TH1; CTL
B) TH2; CTL
C) TH2; NK
D) TH1; mast cells
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 7
Chapter 6: Complement System
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
50 Verified Questions
50 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/76257
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following functions by inserting itself into target membranes and forming channels or holes in the membranes?
A) C3bBb3b
B) C4b2a
C) C5b6789
D) C3b
Q2) Lack of the complement components C5-C* may result in which disease?
A) hereditary angioedema
B) paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria
C) atherosclerosis
D) meningitis
Q3) All of the following can trigger the alternative pathway EXCEPT:
A) fungal cell walls
B) bacterial cell walls
C) yeast
D) antibody
Q4) What is cleaved by C3bBb?
A) C3
B) C5
C) C6
Page 8
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 7: Safety and Specimen Preparation
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
11 Verified Questions
11 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/76256
Sample Questions
Q1) If you want to make 4 mL of a 1:20 dilution,how much serum would be needed?
A) 0.2 mL
B) 2 mL
C) 0.5 mL
D) 1 mL
Q2) Which series of dilutions would be best in order to make a 1:3000 dilution?
A) 1:10,1:3,1:10
B) 1:5,1:6,1:100
C) 1:3,1:100,1:100
D) 1:30,1:10,1:100
Q3) When 0.5 mL of serum is added to 1.5 mL of diluent,what dilution does this represent?
A) 1:3
B) 1:4
C) 1:5
D) 3:1
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
9
Chapter 8: Precipitation Reactions
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
26 Verified Questions
26 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/76255
Sample Questions
Q1) Electrophoresis followed by diffusion of antibody from wells cut in the gel best describes which of the following?
A) immunofixation electrophoresis
B) immunoelectrophoresis
C) Ouchterlony diffusion
D) rocket immunodiffusion
Q2) Affinity between individual antigen and antibody molecules depends on several types of bonds,such as ionic bonds,hydrophobic bonds,hydrogen bonds,and van der Waals forces.How is the strength of these attractions characterized?
A) specificity
B) avidity
C) reactivity
D) multivalency
Q3) The initial force of attraction between an antigen and an antibody is called:
A) affinity
B) avidity
C) equivalence
D) Van der Waals force
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 10
Chapter 9: Agglutination
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
11 Verified Questions
11 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/76254
Sample Questions
Q1) A serological reaction is set up in which the antigen is bound to a large carrier,the antibody is soluble,and they bind and form an insoluble complex that is detected macroscopically.What type of assay is described?
A) precipitation
B) agglutination
C) flocculation
D) neutralization
Q2) Which antibody class may require the use of an enhancement technique to visualize the reaction?
A) IgM
B) IgG
C) IgA
D) IgE
Q3) In performing blood typing using the tube method,if the red cell button is not resuspended properly,what are the most likely results?
A) false-positive
B) false-negative
C) doesn't affect the results
D) makes the reaction weaker
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 11
Chapter 10: Labeled Immunoassays
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/76253
Sample Questions
Q1) In a sandwich or capture assay to determine the presence of a viral antigen in a patient sample,which of the following would be on solid phase?
A) antigen
B) labeled antibody
C) unlabeled antibody
D) antihuman immunoglobulin
Q2) Pregnancy testing is based on an early increase in which hormone?
A) human chorionic gonadotropin
B) luteinizing hormone
C) thyroid-stimulating hormone
D) follicle-stimulating hormone
Q3) Which of the following best describes competitive binding assays?
A) A limited number of binding sites are present.
B) Concentration of patient antigen is directly proportional to the label detected.
C) All patient antigen present is allowed to bind.
D) Labeled and unlabeled analyte are present in equal amounts.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
12
Chapter 11: Molecular Techniques
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
13 Verified Questions
13 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/76252
Sample Questions
Q1) Which type of RNA is used to directly translate the DNA code into making functional proteins?
A) transfer RNA
B) ribosomal RNA
C) messenger RNA
D) probe RNA
Q2) A reaction characterized by amplification of a specific region of a DNA strand through denaturing and annealing best describes which of the following?
A) signal amplification
B) polymerase chain reaction
C) solution hybridization
D) ligase chain reaction
Q3) Which of the following steps are included in a Southern blot?
A) ligation of DNA probes by a DNA ligase
B) gel electrophoresis followed by transfer of the pattern to a membrane
C) denaturation of DNA followed by annealing of primers and bases
D) creating a nick in a DNA strand followed by amplification
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 13
Chapter 12: Flow Cytometry and Laboratory Automation
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/76251
Sample Questions
Q1) As measured in flow cytometry,cells that are the smallest and have the least granules would be identified as:
A) lymphocytes
B) granulocytes
C) monocytes
D) erythrocytes
Q2) In flow cytometry,if there are two light detectors,what does the amount of side scatter indicate?
A) size of the cell
B) granularity of the cell
C) surface markers
D) shape of the cell
Q3) A range of values that all produce a positive result is known as:
A) analytic sensitivity
B) reportable range
C) accuracy
D) precision
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
14
Chapter 13: Hypersensitivity
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
35 Verified Questions
35 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/76250
Sample Questions
Q1) Hypersensitivities to poison ivy (catechol)and nickel are:
A) mediated by IgG and IgM antibodies
B) immunodeficiency diseases
C) IgE responses to a hapten
D) macrophage responses to a hapten
Q2) An example of a type III hypersensitivity is:
A) myasthenia gravis
B) allergic rhinitis
C) contact sensitivity
D) rheumatoid arthritis
Q3) To determine if a patient is allergic to peanuts,the best test to perform is:
A) RAST
B) RIST
C) serum protein electrophoresis
D) RID to measure IgG
Q4) In a direct antiglobulin test,what is being detected?
A) in vivo attachment of antibodies to red blood cells
B) allergic reaction
C) passive agglutination
D) naturally occurring antibodies
Page 15
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 14: Autoimmunity
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
29 Verified Questions
29 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/76249
Sample Questions
Q1) A disease characterized by hypoactivity of the thyroid with weight gain and a sluggish metabolism due to destruction of thyroglobulin best describes:
A) Graves' disease
B) Hashimoto's thyroiditis
C) myasthenia gravis
D) rheumatoid arthritis
Q2) Which of the following lab findings would be most likely to indicate multiple sclerosis?
A) several bands on electrophoresis of CSF
B) antibody to thyroglobulin
C) antibody to acetylcholine receptors
D) presence of antinuclear antibodies
Q3) Which of the following would be an indicator of systemic lupus?
A) anti-Sm antibody
B) anti-EB antibody
C) anti-myelin basic protein antibody
D) anti-insulin antibody
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 16
Chapter 15: Immunoproliferative Diseases
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
8 Verified Questions
8 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/76248
Sample Questions
Q1) A CBC,differential,and flow cytometry were performed on a patient with the following results (normal values): WBC = 8.0 th/uL (5.0-10.0 th/uL),diff = 90% lymphs (20-40%),CD3 = 5% (60-80%),CD5 = 95% (60-80%),CD19 = 95% (5-20%),CD10 = 0% (0%),surface Ig = pos (positive),and cytoplasmic Ig = neg (negative).What disease does this patient have?
A) B-cell acute lymphocytic leukemia
B) B-cell chronic leukemia
C) T-cell acute lymphocytic leukemia
D) T-cell chronic leukemia
E) AIDS
Q2) What is the interpretation of the following patient results? (normal values)WBC = 90.0 th/uL (5.0-10.0 th/uL,),with 89% lymphs (20-40%); CD3 = 90% (60-80%); CD5 = 87% (60-80%); CD10 = 0% (< 1%); CD4 = 88% (30-65%); CD20 = 12% (5-20%); CD34 = 0% (< 1%); CD8 = 3% (10-40%); kappa = 10% (3-15%); lambda = 5% (2-10%); CD19 = 15% (5-20%).
A) normal
B) B-cell acute leukemia
C) T-cell acute leukemia
D) B-cell chronic leukemia
E) T-cell chronic leukemia
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 17
Chapter 16: Immunodeficiency Disease
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
19 Verified Questions
19 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/76247
Sample Questions
Q1) Which disease may be expected to show an IgM spike on an electrophoretic pattern?
A) hypogammaglobulinemia
B) multicystic kidney disease
C) Waldenström's macroglobulinemia
D) Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome
Q2) A 1-year-old boy is evaluated for a suspected immune deficiency.He has a history since birth of eczema,recurrent rashes,and diarrhea.(Normal values are given in parentheses.)His WBC count is 6.75/uL (5.0-10.8 × 10<sup>3</sup> uL)with a normal differential.Platelet count is 35,000 (150,000-350,000/uL)and the platelets are small.His IgG is 750 mg/dL (600-1,500 mg/dL),IgM is 30 mg/dL (75-150 mg/d:),IgA is 475 mg/dL (50-125 mg/dL),and IgE is 750 mg/dL (10-50 mg/dL).The boy's blood is typed as O-positive,and he does not have anti-A or anti-B antibodies.Flow cytometry performed on his blood shows 11% (5-20%)CD19 and 50% (60-80%)CD3 cells with a normal ratio of
CD4:CD8.T-cell function tests are abnormal.This boy most likely has:
A) Bruton's hypogammaglobulinemia
B) Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome
C) DiGeorge syndrome
D) ataxia telangiectasia
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 18
Chapter 17: Transplantation Immunology
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
9 Verified Questions
9 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/76246
Sample Questions
Q1) A 25- year-old female is in kidney failure and needs a transplant.She is A positive and HLA A1A3/B5B7/C2C9/DR4DR8.Which of the following donors would be the best match?
A) her brother,who is B positive and HLA A1A3/B7B5/C2C9/DR8DR4
B) her sister,who is A positive and HLA A3A4/B7B9/C2C3/DR4DR7
C) her mother,who is AB positive and HLA A1A4/B9B5/C9C3/DR8DR7
D) an unrelated donor who is A positive and HLA A6A3/B5B7/C3C10/DR2DR9
Q2) When a complement-dependent cytotoxicity test was performed using standard antibodies to HLA A1,A3,B2,and B11,the following microscopic results were obtained: a majority of blue cells were seen with anti-A1,A3,and B11.Based on these results,what is the phenotype of the donor cells?
A) HLA A1,B11
B) HLA B2 only
C) HLA A1,A3,B11
D) cannot be determined from these results
Q3) Which test would be best to determine the actual genotype in an HLA matching?
A) enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay
B) serological testing
C) polymerase chain reaction
D) flow cytometry
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 19
Chapter 19: Tumor Immunology
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/76245
Sample Questions
Q1) Acute glomerulonephritis is due to:
A) deposition of immune complexes in the kidney
B) destruction of glomeruli by Streptolysin O
C) formation of cross-reacting antibodies
D) invasion of the kidney by Streptococcus pyogenes
Q2) Which of the following statements best describes Helicobacter pylori?
A) It is a gram-positive coccus that causes skin infections.
B) It is a gram-negative spiral that causes ulcers.
C) It lacks a cell wall and produces a lot of acid.
D) It can be detected by testing for cold agglutinins.
Q3) How does complement help in defense against bacterial invasion?
A) It promotes phagocytosis.
B) It neutralizes bacterial toxins.
C) It prevents bacteria from penetrating the skin.
D) It fuses lysosomal granules to bacterial cell walls.
Q4) All of the following are tests used to identify Helicobacter pylori EXCEPT:
A) polymerase chain reaction
B) urease
C) enzyme immunoassay
D) DNase
Page 20
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 20: Serologic and Molecular Detection of Bacterial
Infections
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/76244
Sample Questions
Q1) A 25-year-old pregnant female has serologic testing to determine if she has a toxoplasmosis infection.A low level of both IgM and IgG is found.On repeat testing 2 weeks later,the results are the same.What can be concluded from these results?
A) She has an active infection.
B) The baby will have serious central nervous system damage.
C) She was exposed to toxoplasmosis at some time in the past.
D) She has never been exposed to toxoplasmosis.
Q2) When is antibody testing for Cryptococcal antibodies most useful?
A) in determining patient prognosis
B) in diagnosing immunocompromised patients
C) in ruling out the disease in young patients
D) as a screening test after exposure to the fungus
Q3) In an individual with AIDS,what is the most likely reason for a toxoplasmosis infection that invades the central nervous system?
A) The host produces a lot of antibody.
B) Cysts in the tissue become reactivated.
C) The individual ingests contaminated water.
D) The parasite has acquired new surface proteins.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 21
Chapter 21: Serologic and Molecular Detection of Bacterial
Infections
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
26 Verified Questions
26 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/76243
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is diagnosed with syphilis.Which of the following laboratory tests can be used to monitor the effectiveness of therapy in this patient?
A) RPR
B) MHA-TP
C) C-reactive protein
D) monotest
Q2) The RPR and VDRL are similar in which of the following ways? RPR and VDRL are both:
A) read macroscopically
B) flocculation reactions
C) specific assays for syphilis
D) antigen detection assays
Q3) Which of the following is a cause of a biological false-positive in the screening assays for syphilis?
A) prozone
B) reagents too cold
C) sera dried on card
D) autoimmune disease
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 22
Chapter 22: Serology of Parasitic and Fungal Infections
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
29 Verified Questions
29 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/76242
Sample Questions
Q1) A physician suspects that his patient has infectious mononucleosis.Heterophile antibody tests are negative.Serological testing for Epstein-Barr virus was performed with the following results obtained: EBV VCA IgM = neg; EBV VCA IgG = neg; EBV-EA = neg; EBV-NA = neg.What is this person's status with regards to EBV?
A) acute EBV
B) convalescent EBV
C) never infected with EBV
D) past exposure to EBV
Q2) Which is the first detectable antibody in serum after infection with hepatitis B?
A) anti-HBs
B) anti-HBe
C) anti-Hbc
D) all are detectable at the same time
Q3) The Paul Bunnell test for mononucleosis would detect which of the following?
A) heterophile antibody for mononucleosis
B) Forssman antibody
C) serum sickness antibody
D) any of the above
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
23
Chapter 23: Spirochete Diseases
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
14 Verified Questions
14 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/76241
Sample Questions
Q1) What is different about the replication cycle of HIV that separates it from many other RNA viruses?
A) Viral RNA is used to make cDNA.
B) Viral RNA replicates itself directly to make new RNA.
C) The virus reproduces only in B cells.
D) Proviral DNA makes new viral particles immediately.
Q2) All of the following body fluids are considered to be possible routes of transmission for HIV even if there is no visible sign of blood EXCEPT:
A) spinal fluid
B) semen
C) urine
D) vaginal secretions
Q3) Viral load testing is of most clinical utility in all of the following situations EXCEPT:
A) initial diagnosis of HIV infection when antibody tests are positive
B) monitoring patients during antiretroviral therapy
C) setting a baseline before antiretroviral therapy has begun
D) investigating a patient's sudden drop in T-cell count
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.