Pathology Laboratory Methods
Final Test Solutions
Course Introduction
Pathology Laboratory Methods provides an in-depth exploration of the techniques and processes used in modern pathology labs to diagnose disease. Students will learn about routine and specialized laboratory procedures, including tissue processing, histological staining, immunohistochemistry, cytology, and molecular pathology methods. Emphasis is placed on sample collection, preparation, quality control, and interpretation of laboratory results. The course also addresses laboratory safety protocols, use and maintenance of equipment, documentation, and the integration of laboratory findings with clinical information for accurate diagnosis and patient care.
Recommended Textbook
Molecular Diagnostics Fundamentals Methods and Clinical Applications 2nd Edition by Lela Buckingham
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16 Chapters
448 Verified Questions
448 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: DNA
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following enzymes will untangle DNA?
A) Polymerase
B) Helicase
C) Kinase
D) Phosphatase
Answer: B
Q2) What reactions are catalyzed by DNA methyltransferase?
A) Addition of methyl groups to nitrogen bases
B) Addition of methyl groups to ribose sugars
C) Addition of methyl groups to proteins
D) Removal of methyl groups from DNA
Answer: A
Q3) Nucleotides in DNA consist of which of the following?
A) Nitrogen base, deoxyribose, and phosphate
B) Nitrogen base, ribose, and sulfur
C) Carbon base, ribose, and phosphate
D) Carbon base, glucose, and carboxyl
Answer: A
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3
Chapter 2: RNA
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Sample Questions
Q1) The large ribosome subunit in prokaryotes consists of ribosomal proteins and:
A) 16S rRNA
B) 18S rRNA
C) 23S rRNA and 5S rRNA
D) 28S rRNA, 5S rRNA, and 5.8S rRNA
Answer: C
Q2) Which of the following is the binding site for the repressor protein of the lactose operon?
A) P site
B) Operator
C) A site
D) Promoter
Answer: B
Q3) Thalassemias arise from changes in what part of the beta-globin gene?
A) 3' untranslated region
B) PolyA tail
C) Splice recognition site
D) Ribosome binding site
Answer: C
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Proteins
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Sample Questions
Q1) Given the following sequence of mRNA, what is the corresponding amino acid sequence? 5'AUGCAUAACUCUGCU3'
A) DCITL
B) RHNSA
C) AQRRV
D) MHNSA
Answer: D
Q2) Alpha helices and beta-pleated sheets are what level of protein structure?
A) Primary
B) Secondary
C) Tertiary
D) Quaternary
Answer: B
Q3) The start codon for synthesis of most proteins is:
A) ACC
B) UGA
C) AUG
D) UAA
Answer: C
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Nucleic Acid Extraction Methods
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the yield of RNA from the sample with concentration of 450 \(\mu\)g/mL and a volume of 0.3 mL?
A) 135 \(\mu\)g
B) 150 \(\mu\)g
C) 225 \(\mu\)g
D) 450 \(\mu\)g
Q2) In what way is fluorometry more accurate than spectrophotometry?
A) Fluorescence is more specific for single nucleotides.
B) Spectrophotometry only measures absorbance from intact nucleic acid polymers.
C) Using specific stains, fluorometry only detects intact double-stranded DNA.
D) Absorbance may require dilution of sample before reading.
Q3) In organic DNA extraction methods, the DNA is found in which fraction?
A) Upper aqueous
B) Lower aqueous
C) Upper hydrophobic
D) Lower hydrophobic
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6
Chapter 5: Resolution and Detection of Nucleic Acids
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is an important property of gel running buffers?
A) Solubility at low temperature
B) Ability to maintain constant pH
C) Capacity to heat up quickly
D) High ultraviolet light absorption
Q2) What concentration of agarose should be used for optimal separation of DNA fragments of 100, 250, and 350 bp in length?
A) 0.5%
B) 0.7%
C) 2.0%
D) 12.0%
Q3) A very limited amount of nucleic acid, 500-1500 bp in size, is to be analyzed in a short time (same day) with the results available immediately. Which of the following electrophoresis procedures will satisfy those conditions?
A) Capillary electrophoresis
B) Pulse-field gel electrophoresis
C) Field inversion gel electrophoresis
D) Contour-clamped homogeneous electric field
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Chapter 6: Analysis and Characterization of Nucleic Acids and Proteins
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Q1) The microarray or chip is an example of which of the following blotting procedures?
A) Southern blot
B) Dot blot
C) Reverse dot blot
D) Western blot
Q2) What process facilitates denaturation of long DNA fragments?
A) Precipitation
B) Removal of bases from the ends of the molecules
C) Dephosphorylation
D) Depurination
Q3) The specificity of western blots depends on what interaction?
A) DNA/RNA complementarity
B) RNA/RNA complementarity
C) DNA antigens
D) Antigen/antibody recognition
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Chapter 7: Nucleic Acid Amplification
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following PCR controls ensures that the reaction mix is not contaminated with amplicons from a previous PCR procedure and must not have a PCR product detected in order to be valid?
A) Positive control
B) Sensitivity control
C) Reagent blank
D) Amplification control
Q2) Complementarity of primer pairs at the 3' ends will result in what artifacts?
A) Primer dimers
B) Large mis-primed products
C) No amplification
D) 5' end degradation of the primers
Q3) A polymerase enzyme with high processivity would be used for which application?
A) Long-range PCR
B) Sequence-specific PCR
C) Signal amplification
D) Quantitative PCR
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9
Chapter 8: Chromosomal Structure and Chromosomal
Mutations
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Sample Questions
Q1) A change in DNA sequence that is present in at least 1% to 2% of the population is called a(n):
A) Phenotype
B) Polymorphism
C) Aneuploid
D) Mutation
Q2) A chromosome formed when parts of two or more chromosomes are joined to a third normal chromosome is called a(n):
A) Ring chromosome
B) Isochromosome
C) Derivative chromosome
D) Balanced translocation
Q3) In spectral karyotyping, each of the 23 chromosomes is distinguished by:
A) Size
B) Degree of staining
C) Fluorescent color
D) Position
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Page 10
Chapter 9: Gene Mutations
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Sample Questions
Q1) What does the g designate in g.225A>C?
A) Gene sequence
B) Gradient
C) Genomic sequence
D) Genetic
Q2) Which of the following assays can be used in high-throughput applications?
A) Melt curve assay
B) Heteroduplex analysis
C) PCR-RFLP
D) Homogenous MassExtend
Q3) A protein with the sequence DAILMNCST is mutated such that amino acids L and M are deleted. How is this mutation noted by accepted nomenclature?
A) I3_N6del2
B) L4M
C) L4_M5del2
D) L4NfsX9
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Chapter 10: DNA Sequencing
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Sample Questions
Q1) A portion of a sequencing gel is described as follows: the first band at the bottom of the gel was in the ddATP lane; the next band going up the gel was in the ddTTP lane, then the ddCTP lane, the ddGTP lane, the ddATP lane, the ddTTP lane, the ddCTP lane, the ddCTP lane, the ddATP lane, and the ddGTP lane. Which of the following is the correct sequence as determined on this gel?
A) 5'GACCTAGCTA3'
B) 3'ATCGATCCAG5'
C) 5'ATCGATCCAG3'
D) 3'TCAGTCAGC5'
Q2) Which is the output from capillary electrophoresis of a fluorescent product?
A) Autoradiogram
B) Electropherogram
C) Pictogram
D) Nomogram
Q3) Incomplete cleaning of the fluorescently labeled sequencing ladder will result in what effect?
A) Dim bands or peaks
B) Unequal signal from lane to lane
C) Dye blobs
D) Equally spaced bands in every lane
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Chapter 11: DNA Polymorphisms and Human Identification
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following polymorphisms are tandem repeats of 1-8 bp?
A) Restriction fragment length polymorphisms
B) Short tandem repeats
C) Variable number tandem repeats
D) Single nucleotide polymorphisms
Q2) Two elderly women who had been adopted into different families as infants discover circumstantially that they may have the same biological mother. Which of the following analyses would give the best information toward proving their maternal lineage?
A) Y-STR
B) Mitochondrial DNA
C) RFLP-PCR
D) SNP haplotypes
Q3) When two sources of DNA are compared by STR analysis in a crime scene, how many differences between alleles will determine that the two sources are different?
A) 1
B) 2
C) 4
D) 6
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Chapter 12: Detection and Identification of Microorganisms
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is an important characteristic of a target sequence for molecular detection of a microorganism?
A) The sequence must be very long.
B) The sequence must be shared by many different organisms.
C) The sequence must be unique to the target organism.
D) The sequence must contain many restriction enzyme sites.
Q2) A positive control is added (spiked) into a test specimen. The test results of the specimen alone and the spiked mixture are negative. What does this most likely indicate?
A) The specimen is negative.
B) The specimen is positive.
C) The specimen contains an inhibitor.
D) The positive control contains an inhibitor.
Q3) Which of the following targets are used to type molds?
A) ITS
B) 16s RNA
C) ERIC
D) REP
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14
Chapter 13: Molecular Detection of Inherited Diseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a genetic storage disease in which sulfatides accumulate inside the lysosomes?
A) Tay-Sachs
B) Niemann-Pick
C) Gaucher's
D) Pseudo-Hurler polydystrophy
Q2) Almost all sex-linked disorders involve which of the following chromosomes?
A) X
B) Y
C) 1
D) 22
Q3) Missense mutations in cell growth regulator proteins can result in which of the following diseases?
A) Familial hypercholesteremia
B) Muscular dystrophy
C) Neurofibromatosis
D) Phenylketonuria
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Chapter 14: Molecular Oncology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Leukemia and lymphoma are:
A) Hematological malignancies
B) Solid tumors
C) Types of carcinoma
D) Always benign
Q2) Five one- and two-base repeat loci were tested for instability, comparing cancer tissue to reference normal tissue from the same patient. Three of the five loci showed additional alleles in the cancer cells compared to the normal cells. How is this interpreted?
A) High instability (MSI-H)
B) Low instability (MSI-L)
C) Stability (MSS)
D) This result is not informative.
Q3) What genes are most likely mutated in inherited colon cancer with microsatellite instability?
A) FLT3, NPM
B) BRCA1, BRCA2
C) MLH1, MSH2
D) RET, n-myc
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Page 16
Chapter 15: Dna-Based Tissue Typing
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Sample Questions
Q1) A husband volunteers to be the donor for his wife's organ transplant. In pre-transplantation testing, the woman's serum was mixed in vitro with lymphocytes from her husband. After a few hours, complement and Trypan blue were added to the culture well. The cells were observed under the microscope and determined to be viable. What is the interpretation of this assay?
A) The husband has antibodies that recognize his wife's cells.
B) The wife has antibodies that recognize her husband's cells.
C) The husband cannot donate his organ to his wife.
D) The husband can donate his organ to his wife.
Q2) Which is in the MHC class II region?
A) HLA-A
B) Complement C2
C) TNF-alpha
D) HLA-D
Q3) A set of alleles on the same chromosome is called which of the following?
A) Polymorphism
B) Aneuploid
C) Haplotype
D) Histocompatibility
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Page 17
Chapter 16: Quality Assurance and Quality Control in the Molecular Laboratory
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is used to calibrate an instrument that measures analyte in saline?
A) An unknown patient sample diluted in saline
B) A reference standard diluted in saline
C) A positive control diluted in water
D) A reference standard diluted in water
Q2) A technologist in a tissue bank who performed HLA typing by DNA analysis was asked to bank all DNA extracted from specimens received in the laboratory so as to maintain the nucleic acid for the longest period in the most limited space. How should the DNA be stored to satisfy this request?
A) Freeze-dried at 22<sup>o</sup>-25<sup>o</sup>C
B) DNase-free water at 22<sup>o</sup>-25<sup>o</sup>C
C) TE buffer at 2<sup>o</sup>-8<sup>o</sup>C
D) DNase-free water at -70<sup>o</sup>C
Q3) The ability of a molecular-based assay to detect only the analyte and not other targets is called which of the following?
A) Clinical specificity
B) Clinical sensitivity
C) Analytic sensitivity
D) Analytic specificity
Page 18
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