Pathology for Radiologic Technologists
Exam Questions
Course Introduction
This course provides radiologic technology students with a comprehensive introduction to the fundamentals of pathology as it relates to medical imaging. Emphasizing the etiology, manifestations, and radiographic appearance of common diseases and conditions, students will learn to identify pathological processes across various body systems using diagnostic imaging modalities. The curriculum covers terminology, mechanisms of disease, alterations in normal anatomy, and the impact of pathology on imaging procedures and patient care. By understanding the principles of pathology, students will enhance their ability to recognize abnormal findings and contribute effectively to the diagnostic process within the healthcare team.
Recommended Textbook
Comprehensive Radiographic Pathology 6th Edition by Ronald L. Eisenberg
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12 Chapters
913 Verified Questions
913 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Introduction to Pathology
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94 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Assessing the aggressiveness or degree of malignancy is referred to as A) staging
B) grading
C) seeding
D) metastatic
Answer: B
Q2) A basic reaction of the body to some form of injury is a A) disease process
B) pathology
C) study of diseases
D) idiopathic process
Answer: A
Q3) Tumors closely resembling their cells of origin in structure and function are called A) malignant
B) benign
C) cancerous
D) dysplastic
Answer: B
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Chapter 2: Specialized Imaging Techniques
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66 Verified Questions
66 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Nuclear medicine
A)Gamma camera movement and computer enhancement
B)Hybrid equipment producing two modality images simultaneously
C)Modality of choice for examinations of children and pregnant women
D)Radiofrequency pulses used to excite protons in the atoms
E)Radiopharmaceutical emitting gamma radiation to produce an image
F)Scanning a slice of tissue from multiple angles with a narrow x-ray beam
G)Software specially designed to overlay multidimensional computed data
H)Uses a decaying radiopharmaceutical emitting a positron
Answer: E
Q2) Echoes
A)Echo free appearing as a dark region on the image
B)Reflections from body structures
C)Structure exhibits a relatively strong reflection appearing light gray to white
D)Tissue producing weak reflections that appear gray on the image
E)Two structures producing the same reflection
Answer: B
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4
Chapter 3: Respiratory System
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81 Verified Questions
81 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Swelling of the epiglottic tissue commonly caused by the flu is
A) croup
B) epiglottitis
C) pleurisy
D) pneumonia
Answer: B
Q2) Inhaled foreign substances retained permanently in the acini causing irreversible damage is
A) pneumonia
B) pneumoconiosis
C) bronchitis
D) pulmonary mycosis
Answer: B
Q3) The blood supply to nourish and support lung tissue is the A) low-pressure system
B) pulmonary circulation
C) bronchial circulation
D) low-resistance system
Answer: C
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Skeletal System
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90 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Epiphysis
A)Bone destruction throughout life
B)Bone matrix consists of complex structural units,"haversian systems"
C)Cell that removes bone
D)Flat bone growth by addition of osseous tissue on the outer surface
E)Marrow is lined by an inner membrane
F)Secondary growth center at the end of the shaft
G)Thin processes of bone that are part of the cancellous bone
H)Tubelike structure within the shaft
I)Weblike arrangement of marrow-filled spaces
J)Where the shaft flares meeting the growth plate
Q2) Which of the following results when a pyogenic organism enters the joint through the blood,direct extension,or trauma?
A) Rheumatoid arthritis.
B) Tuberculous arthritis.
C) Infectious arthritis.
D) Osteoarthritis.
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Chapter 5: Gastrointestinal System
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102 Verified Questions
102 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Deglutition is defined as
A) rhythmic contractions that move digestive contents through the GI tract
B) chewing
C) liquid waste excretion
D) swallowing
Q2) The twisting of the bowel on itself is called a volvulus.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Pneumoperitoneum is a sign of perforation of the GI tract.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The most common cause of a mechanical small bowel obstruction is
A) lack of peristalsis
B) intussusception
C) fibrous adhesions
D) volvulus
Q5) Hiatal hernia is the most common disorder diagnosed on upper GI exams.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 6: Urinary System
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58 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Urine formation begins in the glomerulus.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Glomerulonephritis
A)Contrast-enhanced CT
B)Ultrasound
C)Noncontrast helical CT
D)MRI
Q3) Blockage above the level of the bladder causes dilatation of the renal pelvicalyceal system,which is called
A) glomerulonephritis
B) cystitis
C) hypernephroma
D) hydronephrosis
Q4) What condition most commonly occurs in children who are severely dehydrated?
A) Nephrolithiasis.
B) Glomerulonephritis.
C) Pyelonephritis.
D) Renal vein thrombosis.
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Chapter 7: Cardiovascular System
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81 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following conditions are complications of rheumatic fever?
(1)Mitral valve stenosis.
(2)Aortic valve insufficiency.
(3)Aortic valve stenosis.
A) 1 and 2 only
B) 1 and 3 only
C) 2 and 3 only
D) 1, 2, and 3
Q2) A fusiform aneurysm is a localized weakness that bulges out on only one side of the artery wall.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What is a thrombus?
A) A piece of a blood clot that enters the bloodstream.
B) An intravascular clot.
C) Traumatic aortic dissection.
D) A tear in the inner lining of the artery.
Q4) Right-to-left shunts are the most common congenital cardiac lesions.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 8: Nervous System
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73 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The most common type of primary brain tumor is a glioma.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which type of skull fracture can cause separation of the suture?
A) Diastatic.
B) Le Fort.
C) Stellate.
D) Depressed.
Q3) What term is used to denote the sudden and dramatic development of a focal neurologic deficit?
A) Stroke.
B) Arteriovenous malformation (AVM).
C) Hematoma.
D) Aneurysm.
Q4) MRI is considered the best imaging modality for suspected brain tumors.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The nasal bones are the most commonly fractured facial bones.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 9: Hematopoietic System
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52 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Thrombocytopenia is defined as
A) a deficiency in the number of platelets in the blood
B) an increase in the number of platelets in the blood
C) a decrease in the number of red blood cells
D) an increase in the number of red blood cells
Q2) Purpura
A)Iron deficiency
B)Inherited anomaly
C)Platelet deficiency
D)Virus
Q3) Where are platelets produced?
A) Spleen.
B) Red bone marrow.
C) Yellow bone marrow.
D) Lymph nodes.
Q4) The iron-based protein that is essential to oxygen distribution by red blood cells is hemoglobin.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 10: Endocrine System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which group of steroid hormones regulates salt and water balance?
A) Androgens.
B) Glucocorticoids.
C) Mineralocorticoids.
D) Epinephrines.
Q2) Androgens
A)Pituitary gland
B)Parathyroid glands
C)Thyroid gland
D)Adrenal glands
Q3) Where is the pituitary gland located?
A) The mediastinum.
B) The sella turcica of the sphenoid bone.
C) The cribriform plate of the ethmoid bone.
D) On the upper poles of the kidneys.
Q4) There are _____ parathyroid glands in the body.
A) two
B) three
C) four
D) eight
Page 12
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Chapter 11: Reproductive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Testicular torsion demonstrates with increased uptake of the radionuclide on an NM scan.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What condition is associated with cryptorchidism?
A) Testicular torsion.
B) Epididymitis.
C) Hypogonadism.
D) Malignancy.
Q3) Which of the following is the second most common malignancy in men?
A) Seminoma.
B) Teratoma.
C) Orchioma.
D) Carcinoma of the prostate.
Q4) The two primary categories of testicular tumors are seminomas and teratomas.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Choriocarcinoma is the most common gynecologic malignancy.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 12: Miscellaneous Diseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) Down syndrome
A)An autosomal recessive trait in which the person lacks an enzyme needed to metabolize the amino acid methionine
B)The most common of the chromosomal aberration diseases that is caused by a trisomy of chromosome 21
C)An immune-complex disease
D)A sex chromosome monosomal disorder resulting in a female with only one X chromosome
Q2) Scurvy
A)Vitamin C deficiency
B)Vitamin B<sub>3</sub> deficiency
C)Vitamin D deficiency
D)Vitamin B<sub>1</sub> deficiency
Q3) If a patient is suspected to suffer from scurvy,which of the following radiographs would demonstrate signs of this disease?
A) A chest x-ray.
B) X-ray of skeletal long bones.
C) A complete upper and lower GI series.
D) Sonography is best for demonstrating the effects of scurvy.
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