Pathology for Physical Therapists
Exam Preparation Guide
Course Introduction
Pathology for Physical Therapists provides an essential foundation in understanding the mechanisms, progression, and clinical implications of diseases and disorders that influence human movement and physical function. The course explores general pathological processes, including inflammation, infection, tissue healing, and neoplasia, with a particular focus on conditions that frequently impact the musculoskeletal, neuromuscular, cardiopulmonary, and integumentary systems. Students will learn to recognize the signs and symptoms of commonly encountered pathologies, analyze how these conditions affect rehabilitation outcomes, and integrate pathological knowledge into safe, effective intervention planning. Emphasis is placed on clinical reasoning and evidence-based practice to optimize the role of physical therapists in multidisciplinary healthcare teams.
Recommended Textbook
Differential Diagnosis for Physical Therapists 5th Edition by Catherine C. Goodman
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18 Chapters
276 Verified Questions
276 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/839
2
Chapter 1: Introduction to Screening for Referral in Physical Therapy
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the key to prevention of further significant comorbidities or complications of a medical problem?
A) Early detection and referral
B) Proper special testing
C) Correct imaging studies
D) Direct access by a physical therapist
Answer: A
Q2) What state was the first to pass a scope of practice law that allowed direct access to physical therapists?
A) California
B) Nebraska
C) New York
D) Ohio
Answer: B
Q3) Symptoms that present bilaterally are always
A) Yellow flags
B) Red flags
C) Originated in the peripheral nervous system
D) Originated in the central nervous system
Answer: B
Page 3
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Chapter 2: Interviewing as a Screening Tool
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Alcohol falls under which of the following categories of abused substances?
A) Depressants
B) Stimulants
C) Opiates
D) Hallucinogens
Answer: A
Q2) Which of the following is not a sign or symptom of eating disorders?
A) Weight loss
B) Inability to tolerate heat
C) Dry skin and hair
D) Bradycardia
Answer: B
Q3) In children younger than 18 months old, fractures of which bones are more likely to be associated with abuse rather than accidental trauma?
A) Femur
B) Humerus
C) Ribs
D) Metacarpals
Answer: C
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Pain Types and Viscerogenic Pain Patterns
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Bone pain at night is a red flag symptom of what disorder/disease?
A) Cancer
B) Diabetes
C) Osteoporosis
D) Paget's disease
Answer: A
Q2) Muscle pain from trauma occurs as broken fibers leak _______________ into the interstitial fluid. Fill in the blank.
A) Potassium
B) Sodium
C) Calcium
D) Iron
Answer: A
Q3) Joint pain accompanied by what other condition could be a sign of sexually transmitted diseases?
A) Excessive sweating
B) Skin lesions of the joint
C) Muscle weakness
D) Hair loss
Answer: B
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Chapter 4: Physical Assessment as a Screening Tool
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16 Verified Questions
16 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Referral for medical evaluation is advised when resting oxygen saturation falls below
A) 97%
B) 95%
C) 92%
D) 90%
Q2) The therapist begins an evaluation of a patient with Kaposi's sarcoma. What underlying disease does this patient most likely have?
A) Herpes simplex
B) Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)
C) Osteosarcoma
D) Diabetes
Q3) Malignant melanomas usually present with which of the following characteristics?
A) Smooth borders
B) Single color throughout the lesion
C) Less than ¼ inch in size
D) Uneven edges
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Chapter 5: Screening for Hematologic Disease
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a neoplastic disease of the bone marrow?
A) Primary polycythemia
B) Secondary polycythemia
C) Primary anemia
D) Secondary anemia
Q2) What is the most common site of bleeding in an individual with hemophilia?
A) Muscles
B) Brain
C) Lungs
D) Joints
Q3) Which of the following individuals is likely to have the most erythrocytes?
A) A sedentary woman
B) A sedentary man
C) An athletic woman
D) An athletic man
Q4) Which of the following is a sign or symptom of primary polycythemia?
A) Weight gain
B) Hypotension
C) Gout
D) Increased urine production
Page 7
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Chapter 6: Screening for Cardiovascular Disease
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16 Verified Questions
16 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the most common site for peripheral arterial aneurysms?
A) Axillary space
B) Cubital fossa
C) Groin
D) Popliteal space
Q2) Where do most aortic aneurysms occur?
A) Just above the renal arteries
B) Just below the renal arteries
C) In the thorax
D) Below the femoral artery
Q3) Which of the following is an early sign of right ventricular failure?
A) Decreased renal function
B) Tachycardia
C) Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea
D) Dependent edema
Q4) What is usually the first sign of vascular occlusive disease?
A) Wounds over the ankle
B) Rubor in the lower extremities
C) Edema
D) Loss of hair on the toes
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Chapter 7: Screening for Pulmonary Disease
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Stimulation of the central portion of the diaphragmatic pleura results in sharp pain referred to what body structure?
A) Lumbar area
B) Upper trapezius muscle and shoulder on the contralateral side of the stimulation
C) Upper trapezius muscle and shoulder on the ipsilateral side of the stimulation
D) Upper trapezius muscle and lumbar area
Q2) What is the normal pH range of the human body?
A) 7-7.25
B) 7.25-7.35
C) 7.35-7.45
D) 7.40-7.50
Q3) Textile workers are at greatest risk for development of which of the following lung disorders?
A) Black lung disease
B) Asbestosis
C) Byssinosis
D) Mesothelioma
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9
Chapter 8: Screening for Gastrointestinal Disease
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Damage to which internal organ will sometimes refer pain to the left shoulder?
A) Stomach
B) Spleen
C) Liver
D) Pancreas
Q2) The small intestine is innervated by ___________________ but refers pain to the ____________ lumbar spine segments. Fill in the blanks.
A) T1-T3, L1-L3
B) T4-T8, L2-L3
C) T8-T9, L3-L4
D) T9-T11, L3-L4
Q3) Where will patients with diverticulitis complain of pain?
A) Right upper quadrant
B) Left upper quadrant
C) Right lower quadrant
D) Left lower quadrant
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Chapter 9: Screening for Hepatic and Biliary Disease
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) At what point during the natural progression of hepatitis will an individual have jaundice?
A) Initial stage
B) Preicteric stage
C) Icteric (acute stage)
D) Recovery stage
Q2) Hepatitis D can only manifest in an individual who already has which type of hepatitis?
A) Hepatitis A
B) Hepatitis B
C) Hepatitis C
D) Hepatitis E
Q3) What is the classic symptom of biliary colic?
A) Constant right upper abdominal pain
B) Right upper abdominal pain that comes and goes in waves
C) Constant left upper abdominal pain
D) Left upper abdominal pain that comes and goes in waves
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11
Chapter 10: Screening for Urogenital Disease
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What classification of prostatitis is asymptomatic?
A) Type I
B) Type II
C) Type III
D) Type IV
Q2) Which of the following is an example of a primary urinary obstruction?
A) Prostatic enlargement
B) Pregnancy
C) Pelvic inflammatory disease
D) Congenital malformations
Q3) What part of the body serves as the channel through which urine is passed from the bladder to the outside of the body?
A) Kidneys
B) Ureters
C) Renal nephron
D) Urethra
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12
Chapter 11: Screening for Endocrine and Metabolic Disease
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why are individuals with hyperparathyroidism more likely to have fractures?
A) Poor balance
B) Proximal muscle weakness
C) Associated cancerous tumors
D) Release of bone calcium into the blood stream
Q2) Which of the following is not a function of the hypothalamus?
A) Direct control over the thalamus gland
B) Direct control over the anterior portion of the pituitary gland
C) Direct control over the posterior portion of the pituitary gland
D) Synthesis and release of hormones directly into blood circulation
Q3) Which of the following is considered a normal fasting blood glucose level?
A) 60 mg/dL
B) 90 mg/dL
C) 140 mg/dL
D) 160 mg/dL
Q4) What is the leading cause of end-stage renal disease?
A) Diabetes
B) Cardiovascular disease
C) Poor diet
D) Medication overdose
13
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Chapter 12: Screening for Immunologic Disease
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is the common pattern of stiffness in inflammatory disorders such as rheumatoid arthritis (RA)?
A) Minimal stiffness in the morning
B) Stiffness that is worsened with activity
C) Prolonged stiffness in the morning lasting more than an hour
D) Stiffness that is relieved with activity and does not return during the day
Q2) Which type of immune system pathology is consistent with an individual undergoing chemotherapy for cancer?
A) Immunodeficiency disorder
B) Hypersensitivity disorder
C) Autoimmune disorder
D) Immunoproliferative disorder
Q3) Which of the following is not true regarding systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)?
A) It is more likely to affect women than men.
B) It is rare in older people.
C) All clients will have nearly the same clinical presentation.
D) There is no known gene associated with SLE.
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14
Chapter 13: Screening for Cancer
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16 Verified Questions
16 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the most common primary tumor to metastasize to the brain?
A) Colorectal cancer
B) Pancreatic cancer
C) Breast cancer
D) Lung cancer
Q2) Which of the following is the most serious of skin cancers?
A) Nonmelanoma skin cancer
B) Basal cell cancer
C) Squamous cell cancer
D) Melanoma
Q3) What type of cancer is a malignant tumor that compromises epithelial tissue?
A) Carcinoma
B) Sarcoma
C) Lymphoma
D) Leukemia
Q4) What part of the spine is affected most often by secondary metastatic cancers?
A) Cervical
B) Thoracic
C) Lumbar
D) Sacral
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Chapter 14: Screening the Head, Neck, and Back
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following individuals has the highest likelihood of vertebral fracture?
A) 32-year-old man
B) 32-year-old woman
C) 80-year-old man
D) 80-year-old woman
Q2) The therapist begins an examination of a patient with a history of lumbar complaints. During the examination, the physical therapist is unable to reproduce the pain with any position or provocation test. What is the correct course of action by the physical therapist?
A) Begin gentle range of motion all planes.
B) Use mechanical traction to decrease complaints of pain.
C) Use moist heat and ultrasound to decrease complaints of pain.
D) Return to the history portion of the examination, and screen for medical disease.
Q3) Clients with neurogenic lumbar pain will obtain relief from which posture?
A) Extension
B) Right side bending
C) Left side bending
D) Forward flexion
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Chapter 15: Screening the Sacrum, Sacroiliac, and Pelvis
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Cystocele, rectocele, and uterine prolapse are disorders that commonly occur after
A) Sexual assault
B) Cesarean section
C) Natural childbirth
D) Cholecystectomy
Q2) What is the primary pain pattern for gastrointestinal disease?
A) Thoracic pain
B) Lumbar pain
C) Midabdominal pain
D) Sacral pain
Q3) A trigger point in which of the following muscles will likely not refer pain to the pelvic area?
A) Rectus femoris
B) Levator ani
C) Quadratus lumborum
D) Iliopsoas
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Chapter
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why will patients with lumbar stenosis complain of more pain in standing and walking?
A) Weight bearing through the lumbar spine increases pain.
B) The lumbar spine assumes a more lordotic position in standing and walking.
C) Standing causes posterior disk protrusions.
D) The ligamentum flavum stretches, increasing complaints of pain.
Q2) Back and thigh pain, a positive reversed straight leg raise test, and depressed knee reflex are all signs and symptoms of lumbar disk herniation. Which of the following levels is most likely involved when all three of these components are positive during an examination?
A) L2-L2
B) L3-L4
C) L4-L5
D) L5-S1
Q3) What symptom of sciatica would lead the therapist to believe that disk herniation is the cause of the pain?
A) Pain down the leg to the ankle
B) Pain down the leg to the knee
C) Hip pain
D) Pain that is relieved by walking
Page 18
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Chapter 17: Screening the Chest, Breasts, and Ribs
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Cocaine abuse has a profound effect on which chamber of the heart?
A) Left atrium
B) Left ventricle
C) Right atrium
D) Right ventricle
Q2) Which of the following is not a characteristic of unstable angina?
A) Trunk rotation/side bending reduces symptoms.
B) Pain occurs without exertion.
C) Pain lasts longer than 10 minutes.
D) Pain is not relieved by nitroglycerin.
Q3) Which of the following is not a common symptom associated with metastasis to the pulmonary system?
A) Pleural pain
B) Dyspnea
C) Hyperventilation
D) Persistent cough
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Chapter 18: Screening the Shoulder and Upper Extremity
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17 Verified Questions
17 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Shoulder symptoms made worse by what body position are a yellow flag for pulmonary involvement?
A) Standing
B) Walking
C) Sitting
D) Recumbency
Q2) Damage to the spleen is likely to refer pain to what anatomic location?
A) Left shoulder
B) Right shoulder
C) Left elbow
D) Right elbow
Q3) What artery is occluded in thoracic outlet syndrome?
A) Brachial artery
B) Radial artery
C) Posterior circumflex humeral artery
D) Subclavian artery
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