Pathology for Physical Therapist Assistants
Exam Bank
Course Introduction
This course provides an introduction to the fundamental concepts of pathology as they pertain to the role of the physical therapist assistant. Students will explore the etiology, clinical manifestations, progression, and management of common diseases and disorders that impact the musculoskeletal, neurological, cardiovascular, and pulmonary systems. Emphasis is placed on how various pathologies influence physical therapy interventions, safety considerations, and the overall rehabilitation process. The course also highlights the importance of recognizing signs and symptoms that require referral to a physical therapist or other healthcare professionals.
Recommended Textbook
Pathology for the Physical Therapist Assistant 1st Edition by Catherine C. Goodman
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37 Chapters
741 Verified Questions
741 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Introduction to Concepts of Pathology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following groups of people should focus on practicing healthy behaviors?
A) individuals with acute diseases
B) individuals with subacute diseases
C) individuals with chronic diseases
D) any individual regardless of disease process
Answer: D
Q2) Which of the following can be defined as the development of an unhealthy condition?
A) pathology
B) clinical pathology
C) pathogenesis
D) disease
Answer: C
Q3) Which of the following is a characteristic of an acute illness?
A) permanent impairment
B) residual physical or cognitive disability
C) the need for long-term medical management
D) disease with a rapid onset and short duration
Answer: D
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Chapter 2: Problems Affecting Multiple Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient has experienced a grade 2 reaction to radiation in the axilla.Which of the following would be an inappropriate treatment for a patient with this diagnosis?
A) active and passive range motion from the shoulder
B) skin cream to the area
C) use of antiperspirants
D) washing the area daily with water and gentle soap
Answer: C
Q2) Which of the following is widely considered as the most severe form of immunodeficiency?
A) B cell deficiencies
B) T cell deficiencies
C) combined deficiencies
D) malnutrition
Answer: C
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4
Chapter 3: Injury, Inflammation, and Healing
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Sample Questions
Q1) A hard callus is formed in what phase of bone healing?
A) hemostasis
B) inflammatory phase
C) reparative
D) remodeling phase
Answer: C
Q2) What type of collagen is absent in bone and tendon and is more prevalent in newborns?
A) type 1
B) type 2
C) type 3
D) type 4
Answer: C
Q3) Protein poor fluid leaking from the vasculature into a joint cavity is called
A) transudate
B) exudate
C) effusion
D) edema
Answer: C
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Chapter 4: The Immune System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following happens first once the body is infected with HIV?
A) The virus kills CD4 cells.
B) The viral genome is integrated into the hosts DNA.
C) The HIV virus attaches itself to the CD4 antigen.
D) Genetic information of the virus is copied from viral RNA to viral DNA.
Q2) What types of activities should be avoided with a patient who is HIV infected?
A) Exercise is a safe and beneficial activity for the HIV-infected person.
B) Overtraining should be avoided.
C) Athletic competition is not advisable for individuals with mild to moderate symptoms.
D) Symptomatic patients should discontinue aggressive exercise.
Q3) Which stage of HIV infection is characterized by central nervous system (CNS)involvement?
A) asymptomatic stage
B) early symptomatic stage
C) HIV advanced disease
D) end stage HIV
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Chapter 5: Infectious Disease
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Sample Questions
Q1) At what stage of Lyme disease is it most common to find a swollen knee?
A) stage 1
B) stage 2
C) stage 3
D) postinfection
Q2) What common sexually transmitted disease cannot be cured?
A) herpes simplex virus type 2
B) chlamydia
C) gonorrhea
D) human papilloma virus
Q3) Which of the following populations are at the least risk for influenza-related complications?
A) individuals older than 65
B) patients with diabetes
C) patients with Crohn's disease
D) people with chronic pulmonary or cardiovascular disease
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Chapter 6: Oncology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Particle radiation __________.
A) targets cellular RNA
B) damages more normal tissues than cancer cells
C) is rarely used in today's medicine
D) produces less skin irritation than ionizing radiation
Q2) A cancerous tumor that is characterized as stage 1 can be defined as _______.
A) premalignant
B) early stage
C) increased risk of spreading because of tumor size
D) cancer has spread to other sites
Q3) What is often the first symptom of pulmonary metastases?
A) shortness of breath
B) chest pain
C) productive cough
D) dry, persistent cough
Q4) Which of the following is a benign tumor of the epithelium?
A) squamous cell carcinoma
B) basal cell carcinoma
C) adenocarcinoma
D) adenoma
Page 8
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Chapter 7: The Integumentary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The cumulative effects of exposure to the sun are defined as _____.
A) intrinsic aging
B) photo aging
C) extrinsic aging
D) natural aging
Q2) Which of the following recommendations regarding the use of sunscreen is the most accurate?
A) Do not use on infants under 6 months of age.
B) Do not use to prevent squamous cell carcinoma.
C) Sunscreen is ineffective if riding inside an automobile.
D) Sunscreen is best applied immediately before exposure to the sun.
Q3) What does the physical therapist assistant (PTA)really need to know about lice?
A) Lice are transmitted by pets.
B) Soap containing permethrin is used in the treatment of head lice.
C) Any clothes that come in contact should be washed in cold water.
D) Patients infected with head lice will complain of pain.
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9
Chapter 8: The Endocrine and Metabolic Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is correct advice for a patient with type II diabetes undergoing an exercise program?
A) Exercise is a valuable treatment modality for type II diabetes.
B) Hypoglycemia is a common problem for the individual with type II diabetes initiating an exercise program.
C) Exercise can be initiated if blood glucose levels are 60 mg/dL or less.
D) It is advisable to begin vigorous exercise 1 hour before attempting to sleep at night.
Q2) Which of the following is associated with carpal tunnel syndrome (CTS)and endocrine disorders?
A) unilateral symptoms
B) thinning of the transverse carpal ligament
C) vitamin B deficiency
D) diabetes
Q3) A deficiency of aldosterone will cause ____________.
A) decreased calcium excretion
B) orthostatic hypotension
C) decreased cardiac output based on the rational this is also correct
D) hyperglycemia
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Chapter 9: The Cardiovascular System
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Sample Questions
Q1) What disease is associated with thickening of the walls of the small arteries?
A) atherosclerosis
B) Mönckeberg's arteriosclerosis
C) arteriosclerosis
D) coronary artery disease
Q2) What single intervention against coronary artery disease has the ability to influence the greatest number of risk factors?
A) statin drugs
B) smoking cessation
C) exercise
D) low dose aspirin daily
Q3) A patient is beginning cardiac rehabilitation after recent coronary artery bypass graft (CABG).Which of the following would be a clinical sign to discontinue or modify the patient's current exercise?
A) resting heart rate of 100 beats/min
B) oxygen saturation of 98%
C) body temperature of 99.1° F
D) blood pressure during exercise of 280/120 mm Hg
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11
Chapter 10: The Hematologic System
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Sample Questions
Q1) What type of leukemia is most common in children?
A) acute myelogenous leukemia
B) chronic lymphocytic leukemia
C) chronic myeloid leukemia
D) acute lymphoblastic leukemia
Q2) Livedo reticularis is a secondary occurrence of what myeloproliferative disorder?
A) polycythemia vera
B) idiopathic myelofibrosis
C) central thrombocythemia
D) chronic myeloid leukemia
Q3) A patient is thought to be in stage 3 of Hodgkin's disease if ______.
A) there is involvement of a single lymph node.
B) there is involvement of two or more lymph node regions on one side of the diaphragm.
C) there is involvement of lymph node regions or structures on both sides of the diaphragm.
D) there is wide spread extra lymphatic involvement.
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12
Chapter 11: The Respiratory System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Upon review of a medical chart,a physical therapist assistant (PTA)finds a patient has a PaO of 90 mm Hg.From this information alone,the PTA should expect which of the following?
A) The patient will complain of lightheadedness.
B) The patient will have marked confusion.
C) The patient is possibly experiencing cardiac arrest.
D) This is a normal finding.
Q2) Which medication is most effective for long-term lung improvement in patients with cystic fibrosis?
A) hypertonic saline
B) high-dose ibuprofen
C) DNase
D) corticosteroids
Q3) Which of the following describes the transmission mode of tuberculosis?
A) exchange of body fluids
B) skin-to-skin contact
C) inhalation of infected airborne particles
D) through fecal material
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13
Chapter 12: The Hepatic, Pancreatic, and Biliary Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) What type of hepatitis is least likely to advance to chronic hepatitis or cirrhosis?
A) hepatitis A
B) hepatitis B
C) hepatitis C
D) hepatitis D
Q2) Where is the site of referred pain from the hepatic and biliary systems?
A) right hip
B) left hip
C) right shoulder
D) left shoulder
Q3) What type of hepatitis does not have a vaccine available?
A) hepatitis A
B) hepatitis B
C) hepatitis C
D) hepatitis D
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Page 14
Chapter 13: Introduction to Pathology of the
Musculoskeletal System
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the youngest age that children can begin strength training safely?
A) age 5
B) age 8
C) age 12
D) age 15
Q2) Which of the following is the most common site of cancer metastasis?
A) femur
B) tibia
C) humerus
D) pelvis
Q3) Which of the following is true regarding differences between adults and children during exercise?
A) The child has a larger heart size than the adult.
B) The child has a larger stroke volume than the adult.
C) Children should be watched closely for poor form and posture during exercises.
D) A child's heart rate is lower during maximal exercise than the adult.
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Chapter 14: Genetic and Developmental Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is often the first sign of facioscapulohumeral dystrophy (FSHD)?
A) forward shoulders and scapular winging
B) difficulty raising the arms overhead
C) tibialis anterior weakness
D) inability to close the eyes
Q2) Kyphoscoliosis primarily affects what part of the spine?
A) cervical
B) thoracic
C) lumbar
D) sacral
Q3) Why do many clients with Duchenne's muscular dystrophy exhibit increased lumbar lordosis?
A) quadriceps weakness
B) hip abductor weakness
C) abdominal and hip extensor weakness
D) tight iliopsoas muscles
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Chapter 15: Infectious Diseases of the Musculoskeletal System
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with recent total knee replacement is considered to have osteomyelitis if aspirate shows a white blood cell count of more than _____.
A) 500 WBC/mL
B) 1000 WBC/mL
C) 1500 WBC/mL
D) 2500 WBC/mL
Q2) Which of the following patient populations require a singledose prophylactic antibiotic before a dental procedure?
A) patients with diabetes mellitus
B) patients with sickle cell disease
C) patients with hemophilia
D) patients who have undergone joint replacement within the last 2 years
Q3) What is a common initial site of bacterial seeding in a bone?
A) epiphyseal growth plate
B) cortical bone
C) vascular loop
D) hematopoietic marrow
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Page 17
Chapter 16: Musculoskeletal Neoplasms
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is not contained at the leading edge of a soft tissue tumor?
A) edema
B) inflammatory cells
C) tumor cells
D) osteoblasts
Q2) Which of the following is the current treatment of choice for osteosarcoma?
A) radiation
B) chemotherapy
C) amputation
D) surgical removal of the primary tumor
Q3) Which of the following is true regarding osteoblastoma?
A) It is smaller than osteoid osteoma.
B) Pain of osteoblastoma is relieved with aspirin.
C) Osteoblastoma is common in the spine, sacrum, and flat bones.
D) There is usually no tenderness over the lesion.
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18
Chapter 17: Bone, Joint, and Soft Tissue Diseases and Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following activities should be avoided by patients with a diagnosis of osteoporosis?
A) swimming
B) bowling
C) treadmill walking
D) low intensity step aerobics
Q2) At what stage of Legg-Calve-Perthes disease does new bone replace necrotic bone?
A) stage I
B) stage II
C) stage III
D) stage IV
Q3) What is the most common osteoporosis-related fracture?
A) vertebral compression fracture
B) rib fracture
C) metacarpal fracture
D) hip fracture
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Page 19
Chapter 18: Introduction to Central Nervous System
Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following types of stem cells consist of a hollow microscopic collection of cells called the blastocyst?
A) neural stem cell
B) adult stem cell
C) somatic stem cell
D) embryonic stem cell
Q2) Which of the following cranial nerves innervates the superior oblique muscle of the eye?
A) optic
B) oculomotor
C) trochlear
D) trigeminal
Q3) Almost all communication between neurons occurs via what process?
A) electrical
B) mechanical
C) chemical
D) gravity dependent
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Page 20
Chapter 19: Infectious Disorders of the Central Nervous System
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Q1) Which type of encephalitis is rapidly progressive with lesions in the basal ganglia?
A) West Nile virus
B) Saint Louis encephalitis
C) Eastern equine encephalitis
D) California virus encephalitis
Q2) West Nile virus initially replicates in which type of cell?
A) microglia
B) dendritic cell
C) astrocytes
D) oligodendrocyte
Q3) In addition to antibiotics,which of the following medications should be administered to reduce subarachnoid space inflammatory response related to meningitis
A) dexamethasone
B) antiseizure medications
C) Lortab
D) aspirin
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Chapter 20: Degenerative Diseases of the Central Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) A physician suspects Alzheimer's disease in a patient.He decides to use magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)and computed tomography (CT)scans to help confirm this diagnosis.What part of the brain will be measured to aid in this diagnosis?
A) frontal lobe
B) Broca's area
C) medial temporal lobe
D) occipital lobe
Q2) At what stage of ALS would a patient begin to use adaptive equipment to facilitate activities of daily living (ADLs)?
A) stage I
B) stage II
C) stage III
D) stage IV
Q3) A patient with dystonia presents to the physician for a Botox injection.Where will the physician most likely inject the Botox?
A) in the affected muscle
B) in the synergistic muscle
C) in the contralateral muscle
D) in the hip
22
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Chapter 21: Stroke
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Q1) Which artery is occluded if a patient has abnormal sensations of pain,temperature,proprioception,and touch?
A) middle cerebral artery syndrome
B) anterior cerebral artery syndrome
C) internal carotid artery syndrome
D) posterior cerebral artery syndrome
Q2) The patient suffers a stroke with medial temporal lobe involvement of the posterior cerebral artery.Which of the following would the physical therapist assistant (PTA)not expect to see upon providing intervention for this patient?
A) memory loss
B) foot drop
C) agnosia
D) anomia
Q3) After an ischemic event,what neurotransmitter is released in excess,leading to calcium ion intrusion into cells?
A) acetylcholine
B) epinephrine
C) norepinephrine
D) glutamate
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Page 23
Chapter 22: Traumatic Brain Injury
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the most important cause of increased intracranial pressure (ICP)after head trauma?
A) increased cerebrospinal fluid production
B) hypertension
C) hypotension
D) increase in blood volume
Q2) Damage to which cranial nerve would lead to a failure of the eye to abduct when the head is passively turned away from the side of the lesion?
A) abducens nerve
B) trochlear nerve
C) oculomotor nerve
D) trigeminal nerve
Q3) Which of the following is not true regarding heterotopic ossification (HO)?
A) HO usually appears 4 to 12 weeks after the injury.
B) Usually the first sign of HO is loss of range of motion around a joint.
C) HO is not associated with TBI.
D) There is erythema, swelling, and pain with movement of the affected joint.
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Chapter 23: Traumatic Spinal Cord Injury
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Q1) What is the primary hemodynamic dysfunction in autonomic dysreflexia?
A) hypotension and vasodilation
B) hypertension and vasoconstriction
C) hypotension and vasoconstriction
D) hypertension and vasodilation
Q2) Which of the following bladder dysfunctions is indicative of an injury at the conus medullaris?
A) spasticity in the bladder
B) detrusor muscle hypertrophy
C) nonreflex bladder
D) urethral reflux
Q3) Ischemia and necrosis occur primarily where in the spinal cord after injury?
A) above T6
B) below T6
C) in the gray matter
D) in the white matter
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Chapter 24: Cerebral Palsy
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Q1) Which of the following is an effect of moderate hypotonia in a child with CP?
A) truncal kyphosis
B) contractures of the hip and knee flexors
C) flexed, adducted, pronated upper extremity
D) using arms for sitting balance
Q2) Abnormal spasticity in what two muscle groups will lead to hip dislocations in patients with CP?
A) hip extensors and abductors
B) hip flexors and abductors
C) hip extensors and adductors
D) hip flexors and adductors
Q3) Which of the following clients with CP would benefit the most from a hinged ankle-foot orthosis (AFO)?
A) a beginning stander
B) nonambulators
C) ambulator with excessive ankle pronation
D) clients with some, but limited, functional mobility
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Chapter 25: The Peripheral Nervous System
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Q1) Why does demyelination occur in Guillain-Barré syndrome?
A) Schwann cells die too fast for the body to replenish them.
B) Macrophages strip myelin from the nerves.
C) There is a lack of acetylcholine at the presynaptic junction.
D) There is a lack of blood flow to the outermost covering of nerves.
Q2) The medication amiodarone is toxic to peripheral nerves.What is this medication prescribed for?
A) cancer
B) irregular heartbeat
C) skin diseases
D) seizures and pain
Q3) Which layer of connective tissue surrounding peripheral nerves is responsible for maintaining the blood-nerve barrier?
A) endoneurium
B) perineurium
C) epineurium
D) axolemma
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Chapter 26: Behavioral, Social, and Environmental Factors
Contributing to Disease and Dysfunction
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Q1) What was the leading cause of death in the United States in the year 2000?
A) heart disease
B) cancer
C) stroke
D) pneumonia
Q2) Physical activity has been shown to decrease the risk of which type of cancer for men and women by 30% to 40%?
A) lung cancer
B) colon cancer
C) liver cancer
D) bone cancer
Q3) Which of the following is a true statement regarding race and health care?
A) Race is not a real, natural phenomenon.
B) Whites living in higher socioeconomic areas have a higher mortality rate than whites living in predominantly black areas for all age groups.
C) Elderly blacks living in black areas have a higher mortality rate for all causes of death than those living in white areas.
D) Death cancer rates are increasing nationally.
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Chapter 27: The Psychosocial-Spiritual Impact on Health Care
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Q1) What muscles are most commonly affected in acute alcoholic myopathy?
A) gastrocnemius
B) forearm flexors
C) shoulder girdle
D) finger intrinsics
Q2) At what point after smoking cessation do nerve endings begin repair?
A) 20 minutes
B) 8 hours
C) 1 day
D) 2 days
Q3) Which of the following is a diagnostic criterion for bulimia nervosa?
A) body weight 15% below expected weight for age and height
B) recurrent purging in excess of twice a week for 3 months
C) intense fear of weight gain
D) inaccurate perception of body size or weight
Q4) Which of the following is considered a psychotic disorder?
A) obsessive-compulsive disorder
B) panic disorder
C) delusional disorder
D) separation anxiety disorder
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Chapter 28: Environmental and Occupational Medicine
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Q1) Injury to what body part constitutes the majority of work-related cases?
A) upper extremity
B) back
C) lower extremity
D) neck
Q2) High levels of what chemical are associated with chloracne and porphyria cutanea tardea?
A) asbestos
B) carbon monoxide
C) gasoline
D) dioxin
Q3) Toxic polyneuropathy affects which of the following first?
A) heart and lungs
B) central nervous system
C) cranial nerves
D) distal limbs
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Chapter 29: The Gastrointestinal System
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Q1) Deficiency of which of the following vitamins will lead to pernicious anemia?
A) vitamin A
B) vitamin B
C) vitamin B
D) vitamin D
Q2) Presence of a peptic ulcer will radiate pain to what part of the body?
A) right upper quadrant
B) right lower quadrant
C) left upper quadrant
D) left lower quadrant
Q3) Which of the following would increase risk for colon cancer?
A) increase intensity and duration of physical activity
B) increase intake of red meat
C) increase intake of fruits and vegetables
D) decrease alcohol consumption
Q4) Which of the following medications will stop acid production in the stomach?
A) Tums
B) Mylanta
C) Zantac
D) Prilosec
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Chapter 30: The Renal and Urologic Systems
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Q1) A patient is beginning a pelvic floor strengthening program secondary to urinary incontinence.Which of the following muscles is inappropriate to strengthen during this intervention?
A) gluteus medius
B) pelvic diaphragm
C) urogenital diaphragm
D) external sphincter muscle
Q2) What is the number one prevention strategy for bladder cancer?
A) increasing consumption of fruits
B) smoking cessation
C) large fluid intake
D) vitamins
Q3) Which of the following is not considered a characteristic of Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome (BWS)?
A) body overgrowth
B) hyperglycemia
C) failure of the abdominal wall to close
D) enlarged tongue
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32
Chapter 31: Central Nervous System Neoplasms
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Q1) The majority of pituitary adenomas _______________.
A) are nonsecreting
B) are usually found in children
C) are usually fatal
D) are functional
Q2) Which of the following is not a common symptom of craniopharyngiomas?
A) cerebellar hypotaxia
B) pituitary hypofunction
C) visual difficulties
D) severe headaches
Q3) What type of tumor in the CNS originates from myelin-producing cells?
A) astrocytoma
B) meningioma
C) ependymoma
D) oligodendroglioma
Q4) Which of the following is a primary central nervous system (CNS)malignant tumor?
A) astrocytoma
B) meningioma
C) neurinoma
D) hemangioblastoma
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Chapter 32: Epilepsy
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Q1) What is the preferred drug for the management of infantile spasms?
A) adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH)
B) vigabatrin
C) phenytoin
D) phenobarbital
Q2) What is the most common cause of seizure in people over 50 years old?
A) myocardial infarction
B) epilepsy
C) cerebral vascular disease
D) falls
Q3) What is the most common type of seizure in adults?
A) myoclonic
B) simple partial
C) absence
D) complex partial
Q4) Which of the following is not a characteristic of a simple partial seizure?
A) jerking of muscles
B) paresthesias or tingling
C) illusions/hallucinations
D) loss of consciousness
Page 34
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Chapter 33: Headache
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following medications is least likely to increase tension headache symptoms?
A) overuse of analgesics
B) overuse of nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs)
C) estrogenic hormones
D) -blockers
Q2) Which of the following is the most painful of the primary headaches?
A) migraine
B) tension
C) cluster
D) trauma-induced headache
Q3) Which cranial nerve is not involved in ophthalmoplegic migraine?
A) cranial nerve II
B) cranial nerve III
C) cranial nerve IV
D) cranial nerve VI
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Chapter 34: The Male Genital or Reproductive System
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/16922
Sample Questions
Q1) What form of prostatitis is characterized by the presence of white blood cells in semen,but no complaints of pain or discomfort?
A) acute bacterial prostatitis
B) chronic bacterial prostatitis
C) chronic prostatitis/chronic pelvic pain syndrome
D) asymptomatic inflammatory prostatitis
Q2) A peak urinary flow rate of less than __________ is suggestive of urethral obstruction.
A) 10 mL/sec
B) 15 mL/sec
C) 20 mL/sec
D) 25 mL/sec
Q3) What is the primary lymphatic and vascular drainage system of the testis?
A) cervical
B) supraclavicular
C) axillary
D) retroperitoneal
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36
Chapter 35: The Female Genital or Reproductive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) What stage of breast cancer is characterized by tumor size between 2 and 5 cm with spread to axillary lymph nodes but not distant sites?
A) stage I
B) stage IIA
C) stage IIB
D) stage IIIA
Q2) Which of the following is a primary cause of cervical cancer?
A) herpes simplex virus
B) human papilloma virus
C) gonorrhea
D) smoking
Q3) Where are the majority of ectopic pregnancies?
A) fallopian tubes
B) ovarian
C) peritoneal
D) abdominal
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Chapter 36: Vestibular Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Stimulation of which part of the canal would provoke the highest level of nausea?
A) vertical canal
B) horizontal canal
C) posterior canal
D) anterior canal
Q2) Permanent damage to which cranial nerve can result from malignant external otitis?
A) cranial nerve V
B) cranial nerve VI
C) cranial nerve VII
D) cranial nerve VIII
Q3) In the semicircular canals,the ampulla moves in which direction in relation to head movement?
A) The ampulla moves in the same direction as head movement.
B) The ampulla moves in the opposite direction of head movement.
C) The ampulla remains constant without movement regardless of the movement of the head.
D) The ampulla moves with rotational movement only.
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Chapter 37: Laboratory Tests and Values
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the appropriate PT/INR range for treatment of DVT?
A) 1.5-2.5
B) 2-3
C) 2.5-3.5
D) 3.5-4.5
Q2) Alkaline phosphatase is increased when what organ is impaired?
A) Liver
B) Heart
C) Lungs
D) Stomach
Q3) If a test fails to produce a result that would indicate an abnormal condition that truly exists,what type of result has this test given?
A) False positive
B) False negative
C) Negative result
D) Positive result
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