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Pathology for Physical Therapist Assistants Chapter Exam Questions - 280 Verified Questions

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Pathology for Physical Therapist Assistants

Chapter Exam Questions

Course Introduction

This course introduces students to the fundamental principles of pathology as they pertain to the practice of physical therapy. Emphasis is placed on understanding the etiology, clinical manifestations, progression, and management of common diseases and conditions affecting the musculoskeletal, neurological, cardiovascular, and respiratory systems. Students will explore how various pathologies impact movement, function, and rehabilitation outcomes, and will learn about the implications for therapeutic interventions. The course also covers the role of the physical therapist assistant in recognizing red flags, implementing safe treatment modifications, and facilitating patient education within the clinical setting.

Recommended Textbook

Pathology for the Physical Therapist Assistant 1st Edition by Penelope J. Lescher

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14 Chapters

280 Verified Questions

280 Flashcards

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Chapter 1: Inflammation and Healing

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20 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/77090

Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following is NOT true regarding chronic inflammation?

A) May occur as a sequel to acute inflammation

B) May be the result of a prolonged healing process

C) May result in deposition of scar tissue

D) Must not be treated with heat

Answer: D

Q2) All of the following physical therapy methods may be used to débride a wound EXCEPT:

A) pulsatile lavage.

B) ultrasound.

C) whirlpool.

D) wet-to-dry dressings.

Answer: B

Q3) Which type of cell/tissue necrosis (death)is typical of an infarct in the brain?

A) Caseous necrosis

B) Coagulative necrosis

C) Fat necrosis

D) Liquefactive necrosis

Answer: D

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Page 3

Chapter 2: Immunopathology, neoplasia, and

Chromosome Abnormalities

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20 Verified Questions

20 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Adriamycin,bleomycin,vincristine,dacarbazine,and bevacizumab are all types of chemotherapy medications for treating malignancy.

A)True

B)False

Answer: True

Q2) Some bacteria have flagella (tails used to swim)and others produce spores.The tetanus bacteria Clostridium tetani produces spores that are unable to survive very long in the environment.

A)True

B)False

Answer: False

Q3) A leiomyoma is:

A) a benign tumor of the lymph tissue.

B) a benign tumor of the smooth muscle cells.

C) a malignant tumor of the striated muscle cells.

D) a malignant tumor of the white cells in bone marrow.

Answer: B

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Page 4

Chapter 3: Cardiovascular Pathologies

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20 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following statements regarding mitral valve incompetence is NOT true?

A) Mitral valve problems are often genetically inherited.

B) Mitral valve incompetence is a rare problem.

C) A person with mitral valve incompetence may not have any symptoms.

D) The mitral valve can be surgically replaced.

Answer: B

Q2) When working with individuals on the intensive care unit who have cardiac conditions,the PTA should alert the nurse to the treatment session in case lead wires from the cardiac monitor become detached during the treatment.

A)True

B)False

Answer: True

Q3) Cardiac output is defined as the amount of blood pumped out by:

A) one ventricle in 1 minute.

B) both ventricles in 1 minute.

C) one ventricle in one beat of the heart.

D) both ventricles in one beat of the heart.

Answer: A

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Chapter 4: Respiratory Diseases

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Sample Questions

Q1) The accessory muscles of inhalation include all of the following EXCEPT:

A) pectoralis major and pectoralis minor.

B) rectus abdominis and quadratus lumborum.

C) serratus anterior and trapezius.

D) sternocleidomastoid and scalenes.

Q2) A condition characterized by intestinal malabsorption with foul-smelling feces,a productive cough,delayed onset of puberty,and male infertility is:

A) asthma.

B) bronchiectasis.

C) cystic fibrosis.

D) pneumonia.

Q3) Exhalation is an active mechanism involving the relaxation of the muscles of inhalation,such as the diaphragm and the intercostals,and the return of the ribs to their resting position.

A)True

B)False

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6

Chapter 5: Degenerative Joint Diseases and Bone Pathologies

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Sample Questions

Q1) The clinical picture of a person with spondylosis includes all of the following EXCEPT:

A) headaches,neck ache,and shoulder and arm pain may occur in people with cervical spondylosis.

B) lipping of the vertebral bodies with reduced space between the vertebral bodies and osteophytes around the margins of the apophyseal joints of the spine may occur.

C) pain is rarely a factor for people with spondylosis.

D) altered sensation and paresthesias along the involved dermatome may occur.

Q2) Osteomas,osteoid osteomas,and osteoblastomas are all examples of malignant bone tumors.

A)True

B)False

Q3) Which of the following statements regarding spondylolysis is INCORRECT?

A) It involves a defect in the pars interarticularis of the vertebrae of the lumbar spine.

B) It usually occurs in the upper lumbar vertebrae.

C) It may be caused by repeated microtrauma to the pars interarticularis,which causes a stress fracture.

D) Clinical symptoms may be absent.

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Page 7

Chapter 6: Rheumatoid Arthritis and Related Conditions

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Sample Questions

Q1) Rheumatoid arthritis (RA)is often associated with other syndromes and phenomena.Which description best describes Raynaud's phenomenon?

A) Dry eyes and photophobia (sensitivity to light)

B) Weight loss,muscle atrophy,and fatigue

C) White or bluish discoloration of the hands

D) Skin ulcers,gangrene,and glove paresthesias

Q2) A disease characterized by a combination of signs and symptoms,including a malar rash on the face (butterfly rash),a discoid rash on the body,fatigue,weight loss or weight gain,Raynaud's phenomenon,arthritis symptoms of several joints,internal organ involvement,gastrointestinal symptoms,and anemia is:

A) Reiter's syndrome

B) scleroderma.

C) systemic lupus erythematosus.

D) Still's disease.

Q3) Which statement regarding rheumatoid arthritis (RA)is TRUE?

A) RA usually affects only one joint in the body at a time.

B) RA is mainly an arthritic disease of the bones.

C) RA is an inflammatory,systemic,connective tissue and autoimmune disease.

D) RA is curable with appropriate pharmacological medications.

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Page 8

Chapter 7: Neurological Disorders

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Sample Questions

Q1) Parkinson's disease results in movement and behavior dysfunction.Which of the following areas of the brain is affected in people with this disease?

A) Basal ganglia

B) Brainstem

C) Cerebellum

D) Limbic system

Q2) People with amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (Lou Gehrig's disease)receive physical therapy interventions focused on functional mobility.The disease is progressive and not curable.

A)True

B)False

Q3) The brachial plexus consists of which of the following nerve roots?

A) C6 through T2

B) C5 through T4

C) C6 through T1

D) C5 through T1

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Chapter 8: Burns and Skin Conditions

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Sample Questions

Q1) All of the following are protective functions of the skin EXCEPT:

A) control of body temperature.

B) defense against bacteria.

C) production of vitamin D.

D) protection from infrared light.

Q2) All of the following are thermal injuries to the skin EXCEPT:

A) boils.

B) burns.

C) frostbite.

D) immersion foot.

Q3) Being able to recognize a deviation from what healthy skin and its functions should be is vital to the interventions carried out by a physical therapist assistant.

A)True

B)False

Q4) What is the actual cause of ischemic ulcers?

A) Darkened hyperpigmentation of the skin

B) Overexposure to the sun

C) Pain at rest

D) Reduction in oxygenation perfusion of the tissues

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Chapter 9: Endocrine, metabolic, and Nutritional Disorders

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Sample Questions

Q1) Diabetes insipidus is part of what group of diseases?

A) Adrenal

B) Pituitary

C) Parathyroid

D) Thyroid

Q2) All of the following are complications of diabetes mellitus EXCEPT:

A) amyotrophy.

B) reduced function of kidneys.

C) retinopathy.

D) Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome.

Q3) Which anterior pituitary hormone stimulates the adrenal glands to make cortical hormones?

A) Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH)

B) Gonadotropins (LH and FHS)

C) Growth hormone (GH)

D) Prolactin (PRL)

Q4) In type 2 diabetes mellitus,insulin is not produced in sufficient amounts or is not used by the body effectively.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 10: Infectious Diseases

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following diseases is NOT sexually transmitted?

A) Hepatitis A

B) Hepatitis B

C) Hepatitis C

D) Hepatitis D

Q2) Which of the following diseases is NOT caused by an RNA virus?

A) Hantavirus

B) Pertussis

C) Rubeola

D) West Nile virus

Q3) Which type of poliomyelitis can also give rise to post-poliomyelitis syndrome?

A) Clinical

B) Nonparalytic

C) Paralytic

D) Subclinical

Q4) Which of the following is a secondary infection associated with AIDS?

A) Chancroid

B) Cytomegalovirus

C) Rubella

D) Rubeola

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Chapter 11: Female and Male Reproductive System

Conditions

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20 Verified Questions

20 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/77080

Sample Questions

Q1) How many beats per minute does the maternal heart beat increase during pregnancy?

A) 5

B) 10

C) 15

D) 20

Q2) Moist hot packs are recommended for pregnant women experiencing low back pain.

A)True

B)False

Q3) Primigravida

A)Development of the placenta either completely or partly over the internal opening of the cervix

B)Implantation of the placenta deeply into the myometrium

C)Woman pregnant for the first time

D)Woman who has given birth only once

E)Woman who has had several pregnancies

Q4) The two types of testicular cancer are seminomas and nonseminomas.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 12: Diseases of the Digestive and Urinary Systems

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Sample Questions

Q1) An ulcer is also known as erosive gastritis.

A)True

B)False

Q2) Where does glomerular filtration take place?

A) Renal cortex

B) Renal medulla

C) Renal pelvis

D) Renal pyramid

Q3) All of the following are likely causes of peritonitis EXCEPT:

A) bacterial infection.

B) infection due to hemodialysis.

C) infection from an intestinal condition.

D) irritation from the chemicals used during surgery.

Q4) When working with patients with carcinoma of the stomach,the goal of physical therapy is to:

A) provide postural advice.

B) provide training in ambulation and activities of daily living.

C) relieve stress.

D) strengthen the pelvic floor.

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Chapter 13: Intensive Care

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Sample Questions

Q1) All of the following are related to ICU-acquired weakness EXCEPT:

A) atrophy of muscles.

B) ability for patient to eat.

C) prevalent in people with multiorgan failure.

D) reduced protein synthesis.

Q2) Which of the following is NOT a machine or piece of equipment typically seen in an ICU room?

A) Blood pressure monitor

B) Catheter

C) Continuous passive motion machine

D) Intracranial pressure monitor

Q3) Fasting glucose

A)70 to 110 mg/100 mL

B)75 to 100 mm Hg

C)150,000 to 300,000/mm<sup>3</sup>

D)Females: 12 to 16 g/100 mL; Males: 13 to 18 g/100 mL

E)Females: 37% to 48%; Males: 45% to 52%

Q4) A stroke is also known as a myocardial infarction.

A)True

B)False

Page 15

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Chapter 14: The Geriatric Patient

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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/77077

Sample Questions

Q1) The Geriatric Patient

A)Rare,benign tumor of the eighth cranial nerve located in the internal auditory canal

B)Abnormal growth of bone in the middle ear resulting in deafness

C)Blockage of the endolymphatic duct of the ear and a subsequent buildup of fluid in the inner ear

D)Dizziness and/or vertigo with a change in head position

E)Inflammation of the inner ear that may be either in both ears or one ear

Q2) An Amsler grid is used to detect which of the following pathological diseases of the eye?

A) Age-related macular degeneration

B) Cataracts

C) Glaucoma

D) Retinal detachment

Q3) All of the following are skin effects due to aging EXCEPT:

A) easy bruising.

B) reduced elasticity and flexibility.

C) hair loss on the body.

D) thickening of the subdermal fat layer.

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