Pathology for Nursing
Textbook Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Pathology for Nursing is a foundational course designed to introduce nursing students to the essential concepts of disease processes, their causes, and the effects on normal body functions. The course covers mechanisms of cellular injury, inflammation, immune responses, and the alterations in homeostasis that lead to common disease states affecting various organ systems. By exploring the pathophysiological changes associated with specific illnesses, students gain the critical knowledge necessary to recognize signs and symptoms, anticipate complications, and apply nursing interventions effectively. Emphasis is placed on the clinical relevance of pathological findings and their implications for patient care across the lifespan.
Recommended Textbook
Pathology Secrets 3rd Edition by Ivan Damjanov MD PhD
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23 Chapters
386 Verified Questions
386 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Cell Pathology
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10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following organs undergoes atrophy during childhood and adolescence?
A) Uterus
B) Breasts
C) Thymus
D) Thyroid
E) Adrenals
Answer: C
Q2) Chronic hemolysis is characterized by accumulation of an iron-containing brown pigment in the cytoplasm of liver cells.This brown pigment is called:
A) Melanin
B) Tyrosin
C) Hemosiderin
D) Ceruloplasmin
E) Bilirubin
Answer: C
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Inflammation
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10 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is the most common cause of delayed healing of a skin wound caused by a traffic accident?
A) Lack of vitamin
B) Lack of vitamin C
C) Zinc deficiency
D) Infection
E) Diabetes mellitus
Answer: D
Q2) Hypertrophic scars are called:
A) Granuloma
B) Granulation tissue
C) Proud flesh
D) Keloid
E) Dehiscence
Answer: D
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4
Chapter 3: Immunopathology
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13 Verified Questions
13 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Antinuclear antibodies (ANAs)are typically found in:
A) Systemic lupus erythematosus
B) AIDS
C) Graft-versus-host reaction
D) Sarcoidosis
E) Isolated deficiency of IgA
Answer: A
Q2) Which set of lymphocytes is decreased the most in the blood of patients with AIDS?
A) B lymphocytes
B) T-helper lymphocytes
C) T-suppressor/cytotoxic lymphocytes
D) Natural killer cells
E) Bone marrow stem cell precursor of lymphocytes
Answer: C
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5
Chapter 4: Neoplasia
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14 Verified Questions
14 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Alpha-fetoprotein is a tumor marker for malignant tumors originating in the:
A) Brain
B) Lung
C) Liver
D) Uterus
E) Thyroid
Q2) Which of the following physical carcinogens is the cause of most skin cancers in humans?
A) Ultraviolet light
B) Infrared light
C) X-rays
D) Radon
E) Gamma rays
Q3) The most important source of chemical carcinogens in the human habitat is:
A) Cigarette smoke
B) Asbestos
C) Air pollution
D) Food additives
E) Pesticides in the food
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Page 6
Chapter 5: Genetic and Developmental Diseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) Trisomy of chromosome 21 is typical of:
A) Turner's syndrome
B) Klinefelter's syndrome
C) Down's syndrome
D) WAGR (Wilms' tumor,aniridia,genital malformations,mental retardation)syndrome
E) Congenital retinoblastoma
Q2) Children born with a fragile X chromosome suffer from:
A) Muscle weakness
B) Blindness
C) Spinal cord deformities
D) Mental retardation
E) Glucose intolerance
Q3) An autosomal dominant trait is characterized by all the following except:
A) The trait is apparent in heterozygotes
B) The affected heterozygote has a 50% chance of transmitting the gene to each child
C) The trait is expressed in every generation
D) The unaffected children of a symptomatic carrier do not transmit the trait
E) The gene accounting for the trait can be located on any of the 46 chromosomes
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Chapter 6: Fluid and Hemodynamic Disorders
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24 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Melena is a typical complication of:
A) Rectal ulcer
B) Gastric ulcer
C) Skin ulcer
D) Heart failure
E) Venous thrombosis
Q2) Most venous emboli that are of clinical significance originate in the veins of the:
A) Lungs
B) Heart
C) Kidney
D) Brain
E) Lower extremities
Q3) Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome caused by endotoxemic shock is characterized by:
A) Bleeding into the adrenals and skin
B) Active hyperemia
C) Mural thrombi of the left ventricle
D) Hematoma of the brain
E) Hypertension
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Page 8
Chapter 7: The Cardiovascular System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Myocardial infarction is accompanied by typical biochemical changes.Elevation of which enzyme in the blood occurs first after the occlusion of a coronary artery?
A) Alanine aminotransferase
B) Aspartate aminotransferase
C) Creatine kinase
D) Lactate dehydrogenase
E) Acid phosphatase
Q2) Infarction of the posterior half of the interventricular septum is caused by an occlusion of the:
A) Main trunk of the left coronary artery
B) Anterior descending branch of the left coronary artery
C) Circumflex branch of the left coronary artery
D) Right coronary artery
E) Coronary sinus
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Chapter 8: The Respiratory System
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15 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The most common of all the infections of the respiratory tract is:
A) Upper respiratory infection
B) Laryngitis
C) Tracheitis
D) Pneumonia
E) Pleuritis
Q2) The most important cause of emphysema is:
A) Cigarette smoking
B) Air pollution in the cities
C) Tuberculosis
D) AIDS
E) Asthma
Q3) Coal-workers' lung disease is best classified as:
A) Asbestosis
B) Pneumoconiosis
C) Acute hypersensitivity reaction
D) Chronic hypersensitivity reaction
E) Chronic bacterial pneumonitis
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Chapter 9: The Hematopoietic and Lymphoid Systems
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19 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Overall,the most common form of leukemia is:
A) Acute lymphoblastic leukemia
B) Acute myelogenous leukemia
C) Chronic lymphocytic leukemia
D) Chronic myelogenous leukemia
E) Plasma cell leukemia
Q2) The most common form of leukemia in children younger than the age of 5 years is:
A) Acute lymphoblastic leukemia
B) Acute myelogenous leukemia
C) Chronic lymphocytic leukemia
D) Chronic myelogenous leukemia
E) Plasma cell leukemia
Q3) Aplastic anemia is most often:
A) Idiopathic
B) Secondary to viral infection
C) Radiation induced
D) Drug induced
E) Immune mediated
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11
Chapter 10: The Gastrointestinal System
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18 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Peptic esophagitis is caused by:
A) Exogenous acids in food
B) Spices
C) Viruses
D) Fungi
E) Reflux of gastric juice
Q2) Most pedunculated colonic neoplastic polyps are classified as:
A) Hyperplastic polyp
B) Juvenile polyp
C) Inflammatory polyp
D) Tubular adenoma
E) Villous adenoma
Q3) Bacteriologically sterile peritonitis is a complication of:
A) Ruptured gastric ulcer
B) Gangrene of the large intestine
C) Gonococcal salpingitis
D) Acute pancreatitis
E) Acute appendicitis
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12
Chapter 11: The Liver and Biliary System
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24 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) In hemochromatosis the liver contains increased amounts of:
A) Copper
B) Zinc
C) Iron
D) Selenium
E) Nickel
Q2) The nutrients reach the liver from the intestine through the:
A) Splenic vein
B) Vena cava inferior
C) Vena cava superior
D) Portal vein
E) Hepatic vein
Q3) Overall,the most common cause of cirrhosis in the United States is:
A) Viral infection
B) Alcohol abuse
C) Drug abuse
D) Immune hepatitis
E) Extrahepatic obstruction
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Chapter 12: The Pancreas
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22 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Fat necrosis typically found in and around the pancreas in acute pancreatitis is caused by a release of:
A) Amylase
B) Lipase
C) Peptidase
D) Pepsin
E) Cholecystokinin
Q2) Which of the following diagnostic approaches is most reliable for visualizing the carcinoma of the pancreas?
A) Plain abdominal film
B) Computed tomography (CT)scanning
C) Laparoscopy
D) Gastroscopy
E) Colonoscopy
Q3) The pancreas can be divided into several parts,the largest of which is the:
A) Endocrine part
B) Tail
C) Head
D) Body
E) Accessory part
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Chapter 13: The Urinary Tract
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11 Verified Questions
11 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The most common urinary stones are composed of:
A) Calcium phosphate
B) Magnesium ammonium sulfate
C) Uric acid
D) Cystine
E) Xanthine
Q2) Which of the following is the most common cause of nephrotic syndrome in children?
A) Membranous nephropathy
B) Lipoid nephrosis
C) Berger's disease (IgA nephropathy)
D) Crescentic glomerulonephritis
E) Poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis
Q3) Carcinoma of the urinary bladder is most often histologically classified as:
A) Squamous cell carcinoma
B) Adenocarcinoma
C) Oat cell carcinoma
D) Transitional cell carcinoma
E) Seminoma
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Page 15
Chapter 14: The Male Reproductive System
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14 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The most common cause of prostatic enlargement in 60- to 70-year-old men is:
A) Prostatitis
B) Urethral obstruction
C) Benign prostatic hyperplasia
D) Prostatic adenoma
E) Prostatic carcinoma
Q2) Invasive carcinoma of the prostate:
A) Occurs mostly in old age
B) Occurs more often in castrated men
C) Is caused by HPV
D) Is related to HIV infection
E) Is a squamous cell carcinoma
Q3) All the following are typical complications of prostatic enlargement except:
A) Cystitis
B) Urinary retention
C) Hydroureters
D) Hydronephrosis
E) Glomerulonephritis
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16
Chapter 15: The Female Reproductive System
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24 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The most common malignant neoplasm of female genital organs in the United States is carcinoma of the:
A) Ovaries
B) Fallopian tubes
C) Endometrium
D) Cervix
E) Vagina
Q2) Women with carcinoma of the endometrium are at an increased risk of developing carcinoma of the:
A) Ovary
B) Vulva
C) Adrenals
D) Liver
E) Lung
Q3) Most spontaneous abortions are consequences of:
A) Developmental anomalies of the fetus and/or placenta
B) Internal infections
C) Autoimmune disorders
D) Lack of estrogen in the maternal organism
E) Excess of progesterone during early pregnancy
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Chapter 16: The Breast
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is the most common histologic type of breast carcinoma?
A) Medullary carcinoma
B) Mucinous carcinoma
C) Infiltrating duct carcinoma
D) Lobular carcinoma
E) Tubular carcinoma
Q2) The breast secretes milk in response to hormonal stimulation with:
A) Estrogen
B) Progesterone
C) Prolactin
D) Oxytocin
E) Aldosterone
Q3) If a woman has a family history of cancer (i.e. ,her mother and her sister had cancer of the breast),her chances of developing breast cancer are:
A) The same as in any other woman
B) Somewhat increased (1 to 2 times)
C) Slightly increased (2 to 3 times)
D) Significantly increased (5 to 6 times)
E) Very high and she will inevitably develop breast cancer
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Page 18
Chapter 17: The Endocrine System
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29 Verified Questions
29 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Acromegaly is typically produced by tumors of the:
A) Pituitary
B) Thyroid
C) Parathyroid
D) Adrenals
E) Testis
Q2) The most important clinical finding in patients with pheochromocytomas is:
A) Hyperglycemia
B) Hypertension
C) Hyperestrinism
D) Hypocalcemia
E) Polyuria
Q3) Which of the following endocrine organs is located intracranially inside the sella turcica?
A) Pituitary
B) Parathyroid
C) Thyroid
D) Adrenal
E) Pancreas
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Page 19
Chapter 18: The Skin
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13 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The most common epithelial malignant tumor of the face is:
A) Fibroma
B) Basal cell carcinoma
C) Squamous cell carcinoma
D) Malignant melanoma
E) Lymphoma
Q2) Prolonged suntanning causes:
A) Ulcers
B) Accelerated aging of the skin
C) Furuncles
D) Carbuncles
E) Psoriasis
Q3) Flat,slightly pigmented skin patch measuring 1 cm is best classified as a:
A) Macule
B) Papule
C) Pustule
D) Vesicle
E) Bulla
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Chapter 19: Bones and Joints
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Sample Questions
Q1) The central ("midshaft")portion of long bones is called:
A) Epiphysis
B) Metaphysis
C) Diaphysis
D) Physis
E) Anapophysis
Q2) Osteomyelitis of long bones is most often caused by:
A) Viruses
B) Pyogenic bacteria
C) Mycobacterium tuberculosis
D) Fungi
E) Parasites
Q3) The bone lesions in renal osteodystrophy are caused by an excess of:
A) ACTH
B) Thyroglobulin
C) Parathyroid hormone
D) Aldosterone
E) Androgens
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Chapter 20: Muscles
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Sample Questions
Q1) The transmission of impulses from the nerve to the striated muscle at the neuromuscular junction is mediated by the release of:
A) Adrenaline
B) Acetylcholine
C) Cholinesterase
D) Norepinephrine
E) Acetaldehyde
Q2) The first symptoms of myasthenia gravis among women appear most often in which age group?
A) 0-5 years
B) 5-20 years
C) 20-35 years
D) 35-50 years
E) Older than 50 years
Q3) Symptoms of muscle weakness in Duchenne-type dystrophy begin in:
A) Preschool children
B) Elementary school children
C) High school children
D) College-level teenagers
E) Adults
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Chapter 21: The Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Most primary malignant tumors of the brain originate from:
A) Neurons
B) Astrocytes
C) Oligodendroglia cells
D) Microglia cells
E) Meninges
Q2) If a normal person has blood concentration of glucose of 100 mg/dL,the concentration in the cerebrospinal fluid will be:
A) 0-10 mg/dL
B) 50 mg/dL
C) 100 mg/dL
D) 200 mg/dL
E) Unpredictable
Q3) The most prominent clinical feature of Alzheimer's disease is:
A) Ataxia
B) Tremor
C) Dementia
D) Aphasia
E) Apraxia
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Page 23
Chapter 22: The Eye
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Sample Questions
Q1) The sensory innermost layer of the eye composed of rods and cones is called:
A) Iris
B) Cornea
C) Sclera
D) Retina
E) Choroid
Q2) Which is the most common primary malignant intraocular tumor of adults?
A) Meningioma
B) Retinoblastoma
C) Melanoma
D) Angiosarcoma
E) Lymphoma
Q3) Which of the following disorders has no defined underlying pathologic condition?
A) Glaucoma
B) Myopia
C) Cataract
D) Trachoma
E) Conjunctivitis
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24
Chapter 23: The Ear
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Sample Questions
Q1) The most typical feature of Ménière's disease is:
A) Deafness
B) Vertigo
C) Strabismus
D) Otosclerosis
E) Acoustic hallucinations
Q2) Neural hearing loss is a feature of:
A) Otosclerosis
B) Cholesteatoma
C) Otitis media
D) Multiple sclerosis
E) Presbycusis
Q3) Conductive hearing loss may be caused by:
A) Impacted cerumen
B) Streptomycin
C) Antimalarial drugs
D) Tumor of the acoustic nerve
E) Brain injury
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