Pathology for Medical Laboratory Science
Midterm Exam
Course Introduction
Pathology for Medical Laboratory Science provides students with a comprehensive understanding of the mechanisms and manifestations of disease at the cellular, tissue, and organ levels. The course covers fundamental concepts in general pathology, including inflammation, cellular injury, neoplasia, and disorders of immunity, as well as systemic pathology focusing on disease processes affecting major organ systems. Emphasis is placed on the correlation between clinical presentations, laboratory findings, and pathological changes, equipping students with the knowledge to accurately analyze and interpret laboratory data in the context of human disease. This course prepares students for professional roles in diagnostic laboratories by bridging the gap between laboratory science and clinical medicine.
Recommended Textbook
Pathology for the Health Professions 4th Edition by Ivan Damjanov MD PhD
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23 Chapters
495 Verified Questions
495 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/1009
Page 2
Chapter 1: Cell Pathology
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/20000
Sample Questions
Q1) A fatty liver can be described as:
A) Extracellular accumulation of intermediate metabolites
B) Intracellular accumulation of intermediate metabolites
C) Atrophy of the liver
D) Extracellular accumulation of sodium
E) Intracellular accumulation of sodium
Answer: B
Q2) Metastatic calcification is associated with the:
A) Heart
B) Liver
C) Brain
D) Pancreas
E) Kidney
Answer: E
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3
Chapter 2: Inflammation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Bradykinin is formed in the plasma through the activation of what element?
A) Bradykinin
B) Histamine
C) Complement membrane attack complex
D) Hageman factor
E) Prostaglandin
Answer: D
Q2) Aspirin can inhibit some aspects of inflammation by inhibiting the synthesis of:
A) Histamine
B) Prostaglandin and thromboxane
C) Serotonin
D) Hageman factor
E) Arachidonic acid
Answer: B
Q3) Inflammation cannot develop:
A) In living tissue
B) After a minor laceration
C) Postmortem
D) From massive bleeding
Answer: C
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Chapter 3: Immunopathology
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Sample Questions
Q1) When incompatible blood types are mixed,the antibodies in the serum attach to red blood cells,causing which reaction?
A) Agglutination
B) Rh incompatibility
C) Maternofetal incompatibility
D) Hemolytic disease
E) Erythroblastosis fetalis
Answer: A
Q2) Autoimmune disease presenting with hyperthyroidism is called:
A) Goodpasture's syndrome
B) Sarcoidosis
C) DiGeorge's disease
D) Graves' disease
E) Myasthenia gravis
Answer: D
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5
Chapter 4: Neoplasia
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Sample Questions
Q1) Many tumors secrete their own growth factors.This form of stimulation is called:
A) Autocrine
B) Heterocrine
C) Paracrine
D) Endocrine
E) Exocrine
Q2) Human papillomavirus (HPV)has been implicated in the pathogenesis of carcinoma of the:
A) Lips
B) Cervix of the uterus
C) Liver
D) Ovaries
E) Pancreas
Q3) Researchers who deal with neoplasia in the human populations and also study the environmental causes of tumors are known as:
A) Clinical oncologists
B) Experimental oncologists
C) Cancer oncologists
D) Cancer epidemiologists
E) Clinical epidemiologists
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Chapter 5: Genetic and Developmental Diseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following defects associated with TORCH can cause problems in the third trimester?
A) Microcephaly
B) Microphthalmia
C) Congenital heart disease
D) Central nervous system defects
E) Macrocalcifications of the basal ganglia
Q2) Sudden infant death syndrome typically occurs:
A) At the time of birth
B) During the first few hours after birth
C) During the first week after birth
D) During the first month of life
E) Any time between 2 and 9 months of life
Q3) All of the following are considered possible causes of TORCH syndrome except:
A) Toxoplasma
B) Rubella virus
C) Cytomegalovirus
D) Herpesvirus
E) Alcohol
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Page 7
Chapter 6: Fluid and Hemodynamic Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Arterial hemorrhage can be differentiated from venous hemorrhage by noting that the blood is:
A) Bright red and flows in a pulsating manner
B) Dark blue and bluish-red and oozes
C) Greenish and rich in bilirubin
D) Yellow and rich in bilirubin
E) Clotting rapidly
Q2) Hemoptysis denotes bleeding from the:
A) Heart
B) Lungs
C) Stomach
D) Large intestine
E) Kidneys
Q3) Which organ is most affected by venous embolism?
A) Brain
B) Heart
C) Lungs
D) Liver
E) Kidneys
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Page 8
Chapter 7: The Cardiovascular System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Atherosclerotic aneurysms are most often located in the:
A) Coronary arteries
B) Ascending aorta
C) Thoracic aorta
D) Abdominal aorta
E) Iliac arteries
Q2) Myocardial infarction is accompanied by typical biochemical changes.Elevation of which enzyme in the blood occurs first after the occlusion of a coronary artery?
A) Alanine aminotransferase
B) Aspartate aminotransferase
C) Creatine kinase
D) Lactate dehydrogenase
E) Acid phosphatase
Q3) What is the most common congenital heart defect recognized in clinical practice?
A) Interatrial septal defect
B) Interventricular septal defect
C) Tetralogy of Fallot
D) Transposition of great vessels
E) Coarctation of the aorta
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Chapter 8: The Respiratory System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Attacks of intrinsic asthma may be precipitated by:
A) Exercise
B) Exposure to exogenous allergens
C) Daily use of Tylenol
D) Corticosteroids
E) Hay fever
Q2) Coal-workers' lung disease is best classified as:
A) Asbestosis
B) Pneumoconiosis
C) Acute hypersensitivity reaction
D) Chronic hypersensitivity reaction
E) Chronic bacterial pneumonitis
Q3) The most important cause of emphysema is:
A) Cigarette smoking
B) Air pollution in the cities
C) Tuberculosis
D) AIDS
E) Asthma
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Chapter 9: The Hematopoietic and Lymphoid System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Epstein-Barr virus,a possible cause of Burkitt's lymphoma,has a predilection for infecting:
A) T-suppressor/cytotoxic lymphocytes
B) T-helper lymphocytes
C) Plasma cells
D) B lymphocytes
E) Eosinophils
Q2) Which virus is a proven cause of leukemia/lymphoma in humans?
A) Epstein-Barr virus
B) HIV
C) HTLV-1
D) HPV
E) CMV
Q3) Punched-out bone lesions of the calvaria seen by x-ray examination are typical of:
A) Hodgkin's disease
B) Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura
C) Multiple myeloma
D) Aplastic anemia
E) Lymphocytic lymphoma
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Page 11
Chapter 10: The Gastrointestinal System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of these diseases causing malabsorption is associated with diagnostic pathologic changes in the intestine?
A) Diabetes
B) Radiation enteritis
C) Pancreatic insufficiency
D) Celiac sprue
E) Intestinal bacterial overgrowth
Q2) Obstructive ileus may be caused by all of the following except:
A) Gallstones
B) Fecaliths
C) Volvulus
D) Incarceration of intestinal loops in a hernia sac
E) Spinal cord injury
Q3) Hiatal hernias may be caused by all of the following except:
A) Exogenous acids in food
B) Smoking
C) Caffeine
D) Heartburn in pregnancy
E) Reflux of gastric juice
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Page 12
Chapter 11: The Liver and Biliary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Lack of bile adversely affects the absorption of all of the following vitamins except:
A) Vitamin A
B) Vitamin B<sub>12</sub>
C) Vitamin K
D) Vitamin D
E) Vitamin E
Q2) Which of the following is a good serologic marker of hepatocellular carcinoma?
A) Bilirubin
B) Human chorionic gonadotropin
C) Alpha-fetoprotein
D) Alpha1-antitrypsin
E) Alkaline phosphatase
Q3) Nutrients reach the liver from the intestine through the:
A) Splenic vein
B) Vena cava inferior
C) Vena cava superior
D) Portal vein
E) Hepatic vein
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13
Chapter 12: The Pancreas
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Sample Questions
Q1) X-ray examination of patients with chronic pancreatitis typically reveals:
A) Edema of the head of the pancreas
B) Swelling of the tail of the pancreas
C) Distention of the papilla of Vater
D) Calcifications of the pancreas
E) Loss of endocrine cells from the pancreas
Q2) Peritoneal rigidity signals the onset of peritonitis,which is usually accompanied by:
A) Edema of the head of the pancreas
B) Hemorrhage into the peripancreatic tissue
C) Necrosis of peripancreatic fat tissue
D) Foci of saponification around the pancreas
E) Paralytic ileus
Q3) Glucose enters the liver and goes through the glycolysis process.It is then stored in the form of:
A) Insulin
B) Glycogen
C) Glycogon
D) Simple sugar
E) Lipase
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Page 14
Chapter 13: The Urinary Tract
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Sample Questions
Q1) The most common malignant tumor of the urinary tract is:
A) Renal cell carcinoma
B) Wilms' tumor
C) Carcinoma of the renal pelvis
D) Carcinoma of the ureter
E) Carcinoma of the urinary bladder
Q2) Which of the following is considered "the functional unit" of the kidney?
A) Glomerulus
B) Loop of Henle
C) Distal tubules
D) Collection ducts
E) Nephrons
Q3) The most important hormone regulating renal function is:
A) Antidiuretic hormone
B) Aldosterone
C) Atrial natriuretic hormone
D) Growth hormone
E) Parathyroid hormone
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Chapter 14: The Male Reproductive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Elevation of serum alkaline phosphatase in a patient with an enlarged prostate indicates:
A) Prostatitis
B) Benign prostatic hyperplasia
C) Carcinoma in situ of the prostate
D) Invasive carcinoma of the prostate that has spread to the urinary bladder
E) Carcinoma of the prostate that has metastasized to the bone
Q2) Which of the following is a typical feature of secondary syphilis?
A) Penile ulcer
B) Chancre on the prepuce
C) Condyloma latum
D) Aortic aneurysm
E) Tabes dorsalis
Q3) A typical manifestation of gonorrhea in males is:
A) Orchitis
B) Cystitis
C) Inflammation of the seminal vesicles
D) Purulent urethritis
E) Ulceration of the glans penis
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Page 16
Chapter 15: The Female Reproductive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Inflammation of the fallopian tubes is called:
A) Cervicitis
B) Endometritis
C) Salpingitis
D) Oophoritis
E) Vulvovaginitis
Q2) Abnormality of the placenta characterized by deep penetration of the placental villi into the wall of the uterus is called:
A) Multiple placentae
B) Placenta previa
C) Placenta accreta
D) Dichorionic diamniotic placenta
E) Monozygotic pregnancy
Q3) Which endocrine disorder is a recognized risk factor for endometrial carcinoma?
A) Hyperthyroidism
B) Hypothyroidism
C) Hyperestrinism
D) Hypoparathyroidism
E) Hyperinsulinism
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Chapter 16: The Breast
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Sample Questions
Q1) On the histologic grading scale for tumors,which grade is the worst?
A) 0
B) 1
C) 2
D) 3
E) Depends on staging of the tumor
Q2) In postmenopausal women,the breasts gradually atrophy as a result of the loss of:
A) Acinar cells
B) Prolactin
C) Hormone-rich connective tissue
D) Hormone-sensitive connective tissue
E) Estrogen
Q3) In which region of the breast do 50% of breast carcinomas occur?
A) Upper medial quadrant
B) Lower medial quadrant
C) Upper lateral quadrant
D) Lower lateral quadrant
E) Underneath the areola
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18
Chapter 17: The Endocrine System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Graves' disease is caused by a disorder best classified as:
A) Benign tumor
B) Malignant tumor
C) Infection
D) Autoimmune disease
E) Hormonal insufficiency
Q2) Nephrocalcinosis is a typical complication of adenoma of the:
A) Pituitary
B) Parathyroid
C) Thyroid
D) Adrenals
E) Testis
Q3) Thyroid enlargement is most often caused by:
A) Graves' disease
B) Papillary carcinoma
C) Follicular carcinoma
D) Medullary carcinoma
E) Idiopathic goiter
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19
Chapter 18: The Skin
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Sample Questions
Q1) David was struck by lightning.How would this injury be classified?
A) Thermal injury
B) Mechanical trauma
C) Electrical injury
D) Radiation injury
E) Weather-related injury
Q2) Malignant melanoma may originate from:
A) Seborrheic keratosis
B) Basal cell carcinoma
C) Lentigo
D) Urticaria pigmentosa
E) Mycosis fungoides
Q3) Jeanne received second-degree burns from suntanning.How would this be classified?
A) Thermal injury
B) Mechanical trauma
C) Electrical injury
D) Radiation injury
E) Weather-related injury
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Page 20
Chapter 19: Bones and Joints
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which joint disease is characterized by destruction and loss of cartilage,sclerosis of subchondral bone,cyst formation,and osteophytes?
A) Osteoarthritis
B) Osteomalacia
C) Rheumatoid arthritis
D) Gout
E) Infectious arthritis
Q2) Which vitamin is essential for the formation of bones?
A) Vitamin A
B) Vitamin B<sub>1</sub>
C) Vitamin B<sub>12</sub>
D) Vitamin D
E) Vitamin E
Q3) Which of the following diseases has the highest incidence among postmenopausal women?
A) Osteoporosis
B) Osteopetrosis
C) Osteomalacia
D) Achondroplasia
E) Osteomyelitis
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Chapter 20: Muscles and Peripheral Nerves
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Sample Questions
Q1) Symptoms of muscle weakness in Duchenne's dystrophy begin in:
A) Preschool children
B) Elementary school children
C) High school children
D) College-level teenagers
E) Adults
Q2) Congenital myopathies affect infants to the point that they cannot hold up their head. This disorder is also known as:
A) Floppy neck syndrome
B) Floppy arm syndrome
C) Floppy baby syndrome
D) Atrophy myopathies
E) Becker's dystrophy
Q3) Neurogenic atrophy of the skeletal muscles that causes paralysis on one side of the body is known as:
A) Paraplegia
B) Quadriplegia
C) Hemiplegia
D) Biplegia
E) CVA
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Chapter 21: The Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) In Parkinson's disease,which part of the brain shows depigmentation?
A) Frontal cortex
B) Occipital cortex
C) Cerebellum
D) Substantia nigra
E) Medulla oblongata
Q2) Ruptured saccular congenital aneurysms,so-called berry aneurysms,cause hemorrhage that is best classified as:
A) Subdural
B) Epidural
C) Subarachnoid
D) Intraventricular
E) Intracerebral
Q3) Which disease can be transmitted by corneal transplantation?
A) Huntington's disease
B) Alzheimer's disease
C) Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease
D) Meningococcal meningitis
E) Parkinson's disease
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Page 23
Chapter 22: The Eye
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Sample Questions
Q1) Age-related macular degeneration,a common cause of blindness in elderly persons,is:
A) Immune mediated
B) Caused by diabetes
C) Of unknown pathogenesis
D) Found only in myopic persons
E) Caused by high blood pressure
Q2) The most important complication of untreated glaucoma is:
A) Conjunctivitis
B) Keratitis
C) Iridocyclitis
D) Retinitis
E) Loss of eyesight
Q3) The most common cause of night blindness is a nutritional deficiency of:
A) Vitamin A
B) Vitamin B<sub>6</sub>
C) Vitamin C
D) Vitamin D
E) Vitamin K
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Page 24
Chapter 23: The Ear
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Sample Questions
Q1) A common and treatable cause of conductive hearing loss is:
A) Glaucoma
B) Otosclerosis
C) Impacted cerumen
D) Ménière's disease
E) Vertigo
Q2) Earwax is secreted by:
A) Lacrimal glands
B) Ceruminous glands
C) Auditory ossicles
D) Cochlea
E) Eustachian tube
Q3) What type of tumor accounts for most tumor-related hearing loss?
A) Squamous cell carcinoma of the auricle
B) Basal cell carcinoma of the external ear
C) Acoustic neuroma of cranial nerve VIII
D) Neurilemoma of cranial nerve VII
E) Pituitary adenoma
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