Pathology
Exam Materials
Course Introduction
Pathology is the study of disease, focusing on the causes, mechanisms, development, and effects of diseases on the body. This course introduces students to the fundamental principles of pathology, including cellular injury, inflammation, tissue repair, genetic and environmental factors in disease, and systemic pathologic processes affecting various organ systems. Through the integration of microscopic, macroscopic, and molecular aspects, students will gain a solid foundation in recognizing and understanding disease processes that are essential for clinical practice and the advancement of medical science.
Recommended Textbook
Hematology in Practice 2nd Edition by Betty Ciesla
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19 Chapters
414 Verified Questions
414 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/3886
Page 2
Chapter 1: Introduction to Hematology and Basic Laboratory Practice
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/77408
Sample Questions
Q1) When handwashing after a patient contact, the soap application process should last at least:
A) 5 seconds
B) 15 seconds
C) 20 seconds
D) 30 seconds
Answer: B
Q2) Tube length when referring to the microscope is the:
A) Resolution power of the objective
B) Distance from the eyepiece to the objective
C) Numerical aperture
D) Magnitude of the image on the stage
Answer: B
Q3) Which of the following behaviors is a violation of standard precautions?
A) Handwashing after glove removal
B) Use of impermeable laboratory gowns
C) Use of goggles and face shields
D) Placing laboratory notebooks on laboratory work area
Answer: D
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Chapter 2: From Hematopoiesis to the Complete Blood Count
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The spleen harbors _of the circulatory platelet mass.
A) one-quarter
B) one-third
C) one-half
D) three-quarters
Answer: B
Q2) T cells are responsible for humoral immunity.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) The key organs involved in extramedullary hematopoiesis include the:
A) Kidney and thymus
B) Lymph nodes and heart
C) Liver and spleen
D) Kidney and liver
Answer: C
Q4) Patients with moderate anemias (7 to 10 g/dL) may be asymptomatic.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Chapter 3: Red Blood Cell Production, Function, and
Relevant Red Blood Cell Morphology
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24 Verified Questions
24 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Increased plasma cholesterol may lead to the development of which of these abnormal red cell morphologies?
A) Spherocytes
B) Target cells
C) Microcytes
D) Helmet cells
Answer: B
Q2) The red cell protein that is responsible for deformability and flexibility of the red cell is:
A) Spectrin
B) Glycophorin
C) Glycine
D) EPO
Answer: A
Q3) The higher the N:C ratio, the more mature the cell.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Chapter 4: Hemoglobin Function and Principles of Hemolysis
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following abnormal hemoglobins will result in a cyanotic condition?
A) Sulfhemoglobin
B) Cyanmethemoglobin
C) Hemoglobin F
D) Hemoglobin M
Q2) 90% of in vivo hemolysis is intravascular.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Each hemoglobin molecule consists of heme structures.
A) two
B) four
C) six
D) eight
Q4) How many genes are responsible for the productions of alpha chains?
A) Two
B) One
C) Three
D) Four
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Chapter 5: The Microcytic Anemias
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26 Verified Questions
26 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The majority of the hemoglobin made in individuals with thalassemia major is:
A) Hemoglobin H
B) Hemoglobin A
C) Hemoglobin F
D) Hemoglobin Barts
Q2) In addition to iron ingestion, over 90% of iron in adults that is used for erythropoiesis is obtained through:
A) Transfusion
B) Recycling of iron
C) Storage forms from spleen and the liver
D) Hemosiderin
Q3) The globin chains found in hemoglobin A2 are:
A) Alpha 2, Delta 2
B) Alpha 2, Gamma 2
C) Alpha 2, Beta 2
D) Alpha 2, Epsilon 2
Q4) In regards to the thalassemias, the deficit has nothing to do with iron.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 6: The Macrocytic Anemias
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17 Verified Questions
17 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Evidence of ineffective erythropoiesis in the CBC of patients with megaloblastic anemia are:
A) Anemia, thrombocytopenia, leukopenia
B) Anemia, thrombocytosis, leukopenia
C) Anemia, thrombophilia, leukocytosis
D) anemia, thrombocytosis, leukopenia
Q2) A macrocytosis that is not megaloblastic in origin can be seen in all of the following except:
A) Chemotherapy
B) Postsplenectomy
C) Hypoglycemic patients
D) Reticulocytosis
Q3) One of the most common pathophysiologies that contribute to folic acid deficiency is:
A) Tropical sprue
B) Intrinsic factor deficiency
C) IDA
D) Infection with Diphyllobothrium latum
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8
Chapter 7: Normochromic Anemias: Biochemical,
Membrane, and Miscellaneous Red Blood Cell Disorders
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) One of the least severe clinical manifestations of G6PD deficiency is:
A) Acute hemolytic anemia
B) Favism
C) Neonatal jaundice
D) Congenital non-spherocytic hemolytic anemia
Q2) The inclusions pictured below are seen with supravital staining only.These inclusions are most likely:
A) Heinz bodies
B) Howell-Jolly bodies
C) Pappenheimer bodies
D) Due to stain contamination
Q3) Which of the following red blood cell membrane defects results in an increased sensitivity to complement lysis?
A) Cold agglutinin syndrome
B) Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinemia
C) Diamond Blackfan anemia
D) Hereditary spherocytosis
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Page 9
Chapter 8: The Normochromic Anemias Caused by
Hemoglobinopathies
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23 Verified Questions
23 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) When the bone marrow temporarily ceases to produce cells in a sickle cell patient, a(n) _____crisis has occurred.
A) aplastic
B) hemolytic
C) vaso-occlusive
D) cardiac
Q2) is the second most common hemoglobin variant worldwide.
A) Hemoglobin S
B) Hemoglobin E
C) Hemoglobin C
D) Hemoglobin D
Q3) Patients with sickle cell anemia generally have a hemoglobin value between:
A) 2 and 4 g/dL
B) 6 and 8 g/dL
C) 8 and 10 g/dL
D) 10 and 12 g/dL
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Chapter 9: Leukopoiesis and Leukopoietic Function
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Lymphocyte concentrations in peripheral blood are greatest during what age interval?
A) Immediately after birth
B) Older adult (40 to 70 years)
C) Young adult (16 to 40 years)
D) Young child (1 to 4 years)
Q2) The absolute WBC count refers to the percentage of a particular cell counted from the 100 WBC differential.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The amount of time a granulocyte spends in the circulation before migrating into the tissues is normally:
A) 8 hours
B) 48 hours
C) 5 days
D) 20 days
Q4) The primary function of lymphocytes is immunologic.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 10: Abnormalities of White Blood Cells:
Quantitative, Qualitative, and the Lipid Storage Diseases
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient who has a persist leukocytosis, Dohle bodies, and an elevated LAP score most likely has a (an):
A) Leukemoid reaction
B) Pelger-Huët anomaly
C) Parasitic infection
D) HIV infection
Q2) The best corrective action for a patient who exhibits platelet satellitism on peripheral blood smear is to:
A) Make a duplicate slide and see if this phenomenon disappears
B) Warm the tube of blood
C) Redraw the sample in sodium citrate
D) Vortex the sample of blood
Q3) Dohle bodies consist of:
A) DNA
B) Primary granules
C) Ribosomes RNA
D) Lipid deposits
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Page 12
Chapter 11: Acute Leukemias
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25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/77398
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is characteristic of Auer rods?
A) Composed of fused primary granules
B) Predominantly seen in ALL
C) Predominantly seen in HCL
D) Composed of specific granules
Q2) Low-risk ALL pediatric clinical trials require the WBC count to be less than:
A) 20 \(\times\) 10<sup>9</sup>/L
B) 50 \(\times\) 10<sup>9</sup>/L
C) 60 \(\times\) 10<sup>9</sup>/L
D) 75 \(\times\) 10<sup>9</sup>/L
Q3) Pediatric patients with ALL have an overall complete remission rate of:
A) 50%
B) 65%
C) 75%
D) 95%
Q4) Which CD marker best represents the earliest progenitor cells?
A) CD11
B) CD19
C) CD34
D) CD57
Page 13
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Chapter 12: Chronic Myeloproliferative Disorders
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24 Verified Questions
24 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What effect does the Ph chromosome have on the prognosis of patients with chronic myelocytic leukemia?
A) It is not predictive.
B) The prognosis is better if the Ph chromosome is present.
C) The prognosis is worse if the Ph chromosome is present.
D) The disease usually transforms into AML when the Ph chromosome is present.
Q2) The red cell morphology associated with IMF is:
A) Burr cells
B) Acanthocytes
C) Teardrop cells
D) Target cells
Q3) A "dry tap" is a characteristic of myeloid fibrosis with myeloid metaplasia due to:
A) Increased infiltration of blast cells
B) Increased infiltration of abnormal platelets
C) Increased infiltration of abnormal red cells
D) Increased infiltration of fibrotic elements
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14
Chapter 13: Lymphoproliferative Disorders and Related
Plasma Cell Disorders
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A significant feature of hairy cell leukemia not seen is other acute leukemias is:
A) Panmyelosis
B) Pancytosis
C) Pancytopenia
D) Panhyperplasia
Q2) Patients with CLL (chronic lymphocytic leukemia):
A) Die most often of blast crisis
B) Are usually younger than 40 years
C) May develop monoclonal spikes
D) Often are immunocompromised
Q3) Which of the following statements about Hodgkin's disease is false?
A) The peak incidence for the disease is 15 to 40 years of age.
B) The disease occurs more frequently in males.
C) It is a precursor to T-cell lymphoma
D) Individuals who have been exposed to the Epstein-Barr virus may be more vulnerable to Hodgkin's lymphoma.
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15
Chapter 14: The Myelodysplastic Syndromes
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following are associated with the development of the MDSs except:
A) Alkylating therapy
B) Benzene exposure
C) Alcoholism
D) Radiation
Q2) Deleted 5q MDS is primarily seen in male patients.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The morphological classification of anemia in the myelodysplastic syndromes is:
A) Normocytic, normochromic
B) Microcytic, hypochromic
C) Macrocytic, normochromic
D) Microcytic, normochromic
Q4) The FAB classification of the MDSs include CML.
A)True
B)False
Q5) A large percentage of the MDSs end in an acute leukemia.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 15: Overview of Hemostasis and Platelet Physiology
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Identify the cell at the tip of the pointer (bone marrow smear).
A) Myeloblast
B) Megakaryocyte
C) Nucleated red cell
D) Reed Sternberg cell
Q2) Therapeutic thrombolytic agents include:
A) tPA
B) Streptokinase
C) Urokinase
D) All of the above
Matching
Q3) Platelets are synthesized in the:
A) Liver
B) Spleen
C) Lymph glands
D) Bone marrow
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17
Chapter 16: Quantitative and Qualitative Platelet Disorders
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25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Platelet aggregation cannot occur if ___is absent.
A) vWF
B) GP IIb/IIIa
C) cadmium
D) GP Ib
Q2) In thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura, which of the following statements is the most accurate?
A) It is associated with E. coli O157:H7.
B) It is associated with fever, renal failure, and neurological complications.
C) The organ most affected is the kidney.
D) More males are affected than females
Q3) Which of the following are platelet adhesion disorders?
A) von Willebrand's disease and Glanzmann's thrombasthenia
B) von Willebrand's disease and Bernard-Soulier
C) Glanzmann's thrombasthenia and Bernard-Soulier
D) Glanzmann's thrombasthenia and congenital fibrinogenemia
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18
Chapter 17: Defects of Plasma Clotting Factors
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The only clotting factor not synthesized exclusively by the liver is:
A) Factor V
B) Factor VII
C) Factor VIII
D) Factor IX
Q2) The treatment of choice for hemophilia A individuals is:
A) Cryoprecipitate
B) Factor VIII concentrate
C) Prothrombin complex
D) DDAVP
Q3) Long-term antibiotic therapy is a cause of bleeding because it disrupts:
A) Vitamin K synthesis
B) Contact activation
C) Platelet aggregation
D) Fibrinolytic activity
Q4) Which result will be within reference range in a patient with dysfibrinogenemia?
A) Thrombin time
B) Activated partial thromboplastin time
C) Immunologic fibrinogen level
D) Protein electrophoresis
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Chapter 18: Fibrinogen, Thrombin, and the Fibrinolytic System
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20 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A primary inhibitor of the fibrinolytic system is:
A) Alpha 2 antiplasmin
B) Alpha 2 macroglobulin
C) Antithrombin
D) Protein C
Q2) A prolonged thrombin time and a normal reptilase time is indicative of:
A) Aspirin therapy
B) FDPs
C) Heparin therapy
D) Warfarin therapy
Q3) D-dimers may be elevated in which of the following?
A) Sickle cell disease
B) Glanzmann's thrombasthenia
C) Deep vein thrombosis
D) Bernard-Soulier syndrome
Q4) The reference range for fibrinogen is:
A) 100 to 200 mg/dL
B) 200 to 400 mg/dL
C) 400 to 600 mg/dL
D) 600 to 750 mg/dL
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Chapter 19: Introduction to Thrombosis and Anticoagulant Therapy
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following are naturally occurring thrombin inhibitors except:
A) AT
B) Prothrombin cofactor II
C) Protein C
D) Plasmin
Q2) Factor VIII inhibitors:
A) Are associated with thrombosis
B) Are associated with decreased fibrinogen levels
C) Are usually time and temperature dependent
D) Are corrected with the addition of normal plasma
Q3) Heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT) usually:
A) Occurs as a result of protein C deficiency
B) Will show an increase in platelets
C) Occurs 5 to 14 days after heparin therapy
D) Occurs only in males
Q4) Antithrombin inhibits all of the following factors except:
A) II a
B) VII a
C) IX a
D) XI a
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