Course Introduction
Pathogenic Microbiology
Textbook Exam Questions
Pathogenic Microbiology explores the biology of microorganisms responsible for causing disease in humans and animals. The course covers the mechanisms of microbial pathogenicity, host-pathogen interactions, and the immune response to infection. Students examine the classification, physiology, genetics, and epidemiology of bacteria, viruses, fungi, and parasites that contribute to human diseases. Emphasis is placed on diagnostic methods, prevention, and treatment strategies, as well as the impact of antimicrobial resistance and emerging infectious diseases on public health.
Recommended Textbook
Microbiology An Evolving Science 2nd Edition by Joan Slonczewski
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28 Chapters
1959 Verified Questions
1959 Flashcards
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Microbial Life: Origin and Discovery
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Sample Questions
Q1) How are prokaryotes and eukaryotes different?
Answer: A prokaryote lacks a nucleus and membrane-bounded organelles, whereas a eukaryote has a nucleus and membrane-bounded organelles.
Q2) Why did it take so long for humans to determine that microbes cause infectious diseases?
Answer: Microbes are too small to be seen with the naked eye so until microscopes were invented, humans did not know that microbes existed. Even after humans were aware of the presence of microbes, they did not suspect them of causing disease until people such as Joseph Lister and Ignaz Semmelweis performed experiments that showed antiseptics decrease the incidence of infection.
Q3) All of the following are true about penicillin EXCEPT:
A) It was discovered by Alexander Fleming.
B) It was an accidental discovery.
C) It is produced by a bacterium.
D) It was the first antibiotic used by humans.
E) It was purified by Florey and Chain.
Answer: C
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Chapter 2: Observing the Microbial Cell
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Sample Questions
Q1) Gram's iodine is the __________ in the Gram staining procedure.
A) primary stain
B) counterstain
C) decolorizer
D) negative stain
E) mordant
Answer: E
Q2) The aromatic groups of the fluorophore DAPI associate exclusively with the:
A) cell wall
B) base pairs of DNA
C) flagella
D) cell membrane
E) pili
Answer: B
Q3) Explain when you would use Bacillus versus bacillus.
Answer: Bacillus refers to a genus of organisms. A genus name is always capitalized and italicized. The term bacillus refers to any rod-shaped microbe, which means that not all bacilli belong to the genus Bacillus.
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Chapter 3: Cell Structure and Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why can't most kinds of bacteria be eaten as a major part of our diet?
Answer: Prokaryotes in general have a higher nucleic acid content than eukaryotes. This is advantageous to the microbe in that it maximizes reproduction of its chromosomes, but it is toxic to humans. We lack the enzymes to digest the uric acid waste product of nucleic acids.
Q2) Which of the following materials found in storage granules is used as an energy source?
A) gas vesicle
B) sulfur
C) polyphosphate
D) glycogen
E) magnetosome
Answer: D
Q3) The bacterial membrane ATP synthase has two subunits, referred to as F<sub>0</sub> and F<sub>1</sub>. What are the location and the function of each?
Answer: The F<sub>0</sub> subunit is located within the membrane and serves as the proton channel. The F<sub>1 </sub>subunit is within the cytoplasm and is the portion responsible for ATP synthesis.
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Bacterial Culture, Growth, and Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements is false about the E. coli phosphotransferase system (PTS)?
A) The EnzI complex in the cytoplasm is shared between all PTS transporters.
B) The EnzII complex is specific to the sugar being transported.
C) The phosphate group transferred to the sugar comes from phosphoenolpyruvate.
D) The PTS transport requires energy in the form of ATP.
E) One cannot say that the PTS transports a sugar against its concentration gradient.
Q2) A cafeteria worker who fails to wash his hands thoroughly and fails to wear gloves inoculates a quiche with 4 E. coli when he uses his finger to test whether it is done. By the time you purchase the quiche, there are 128 E. coli cells in it. How many generations did the cells go through?
A) 4
B) 5
C) 8
D) 32
E) 64
Q3) When studying the metabolism of an organism, why is it better to grow organisms in a defined synthetic medium instead of a complex medium?
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Page 6
Chapter 20: Eukaryotic Diversity
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Sample Questions
Q1) Enterocytozoon bieneusi is an organism classified as a microsporidia; this organism is of clinical importance because it:
A) causes severe allergic reactions in some people
B) causes trypanosomiasis
C) causes ringworm infections
D) is an opportunistic pathogen in immunocompromised individuals
E) infects catheters by producing biofilms
Q2) Organisms categorized as Excavata are considered to be highly degenerative parasites. What does this mean and why did they evolve this way?
Q3) The Rhodophyta algae, Porphyra, is known to colonize aquatic environments deeper than the Chlorophyta algae, Spirogyra; why is this and what advantages does Porphyra have by claiming this niche?
Q4) Leishmania major infection is most problematic in:
A) Central and South America
B) South American, Africa, and the Middle East
C) Sub-Saharan Africa
D) Eastern Europe and Central Asia
E) endemic throughout most of the world
Q5) Why are PAD1 and PAD2 important in Trypanosoma brucei infection.
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Chapter 21: Microbial Ecology
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Sample Questions
Q1) What percent of forest trees require mycorrhizae for growth?
A) 10%
B) 25%
C) 50%
D) 75%
E) 90%
Q2) Why is it important to restrict the protein content of cattle feed?
Q3) The best description for the microbial communities in the cold-seep ecosystem is:
A) thermophilic
B) psychrotrophic
C) barophilic thermophiles
D) barophilic psychrophiles
E) barophilic psychrotrophs
Q4) The vast majority of microbes in the ocean are:
A) psychrophiles
B) thermophiles
C) mesophiles
D) acidophiles
E) osmophiles
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Chapter 22: Microbes and the Global Environment
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Q1) Which of the following is a major concern regarding biogeochemical and industrial sources of atmospheric sulfur?
A) greenhouse effect
B) acid rain
C) ozone depletion
D) inhibition of photosynthesis
E) all of the above
Q2) To enhance colonization by nitrogen fixers, farmers apply attractants for rhizobia called:
A) nitrogenases
B) leghemoglobins
C) hormones
D) isoflavonoids
E) heterocysts
Q3) Which of the following is used by bacteria for iron uptake?
A) ferrodoxin
B) protein A
C) hemoglobin
D) siderophores
E) lipoprotein
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Chapter 23: Human Microbiota and Nonspecific Host Defenses
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Sample Questions
Q1) How does IFN-gamma protect the host?
A) It induces dsRNA endonucleases.
B) It interferes directly with viral replication.
C) It has an immunomodulatory role.
D) It induces fever at the hypothalamus.
E) It blocks adhesion of pathogens.
Q2) Which of the following organisms are commonly used as probiotics?
A) Streptococcus mutans and Lactobacillus acidophilus
B) Bacteroides and Lactobacillus acidophilus
C) Enterococcus and Enterobacter species
D) Bifidobacterium and Lactobacillus acidophilus
E) Diphtheroids and Fusobacterium species
Q3) The aerobe to anaerobe ratio showing the greatest difference in concentrations occurs in the:
A) intestinal tract
B) mouth
C) skin
D) respiratory tract
E) genitourinary tract
Q4) Briefly explain the microbiology of dental plaque formation.
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Chapter 24: The Adaptive Immune Response
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Sample Questions
Q1) An example of an antigen that could stimulate naïve B-cell proliferation and differentiation without the help of a T cell would be:
A) Proteus vulgaris, lipopolysaccharide molecule
B) Yersinia pestis, plasmid DNA molecule
C) Staphylococcus aureus, protein A molecule
D) Bacillus anthracis, anthrax toxin molecule
E) Escherichia coli, porin protein molecule
Q2) Dinitrophenol is considered a hapten when injected into a mouse, this means that it:
A) is an incomplete antigen
B) has a molecular weight less than 1,000
C) will bind to antibodies
D) needs a carrier protein to become immunogenic
E) all of the above
Q3) Why are antihistamines good for allergic rhinitis but NOT for atopic asthma?
Q4) Describe the structure of a typical IgG antibody, including the F(ab')<sub>2</sub> and Fc portions.
Q5) If you are infected with the cold virus one year, how come you can catch a cold again the next year if your immune system is working properly?
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Chapter 26: Microbial Diseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) Eastern equine encephalitis is transmitted to humans via __________.
A) aerosol transmission
B) tick bite
C) trauma and wound infection
D) a mosquito bite
E) pet bite
Q2) Why is anthrax primarily, though uncommonly, found in people who work with sheep and related items?
Q3) Strains of E. coli that cause about 75% of all urinary tract infections use __________ to latch onto proteins coating the urinary tract epithelium.
A) sex pili
B) P pili
C) fimbrae
D) adhesins
E) glycocalyx
Q4) Giardia causes more diarrhea than any other protozoan globally. Describe the reasons for its success in causing disease.
Q5) What is a multivalent vaccine? Give examples.
Q6) Why is reinfection with Neisseria gonorrhoeae possible?
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Chapter 27: Antimicrobial Chemotherapy
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Sample Questions
Q1) A newly identified genomic target for treating penicillin-resistant Streptococcus pneumoniae is the:
A) CaPS capsular polysaccharides
B) Ply pneumolysin toxin
C) MotB flagella protein
D) PGRP peptidoglycan recognition protein
E) CbpG pneumococcal adhesin protein
Q2) A patient who accidentally takes too many doses of chloramphenicol during a Salmonella sp. infection could possible come down with:
A) aplastic anemia
B) liver cancer
C) gastroenteritis
D) ulcers
E) growth plate defects
Q3) Describe the mechanism by which the influenza virus enters OR exits a host cell and one potential drug target that is being used to prevent infection.
Q4) Compare and contrast the utility of the antibiotic polymyxin vs. cephalosporins in clearing up an Escherichia coli skin infection that has become systemic?
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Chapter 28: Clinical Microbiology and Epidemiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Catalase-positive organisms such as __________ , produce __________ as end products when exposed to hydrogen peroxide.
A) Streptomyces; KCl and CO<sub>2</sub>
B) Streptococcus; H<sub>2</sub>O<sub>2 </sub>and H<sub>2</sub>O
C) Lactobacillales; CO<sub>2 </sub>and O<sub>2</sub>
D) Stachybotrys; HOCl and H<sub>2</sub>O
E) Staphylococcus; H<sub>2</sub>O and O<sub>2</sub>
Q2) Describe what the One World Initiative is and the role it played in the 2006 outbreak of foodborne O157:H7 in spinach.
Q3) In using the PANTHER sensor for quick detection of pathogens, how does the PANTHER detect Francisella tularensis, the causative agent of tularemia?
A) It detects Francisella tularensis antibodies within a given sample.
B) It detects Francisella tularensis DNA using RFLP technology.
C) It detects Francisella tularensis antigen using antigen-specific B cells.
D) It detects Francisella tularensis endotoxins enzyme conjugated antibodies.
E) It detects Francisella tularensis antigen using antigen-specific T cells.
Q4) Compare and contrast the epidemiological terms endemic, epidemic, and pandemic. Give an example of each to support your answer.
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