Course Introduction
Pathogenic Microbiology
Textbook Exam Questions
Pathogenic Microbiology is the study of microorganisms such as bacteria, viruses, fungi, and parasites that cause disease in humans. This course explores the molecular and cellular mechanisms of microbial pathogenicity, host-pathogen interactions, the immune response to infection, and the epidemiology of infectious diseases. Students will learn about the identification, transmission, prevention, and control of major human pathogens, as well as current challenges in antimicrobial resistance and emerging infectious threats. Laboratory components may include techniques for culturing, identifying, and characterizing pathogenic microbes.
Recommended Textbook
Microbiology An Evolving Science 2nd Edition by Joan Slonczewski
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Microbial Life: Origin and Discovery
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Q1) Which group of microorganisms includes many that grow in extreme environments?
A) algae
B) bacteria
C) protists
D) archaea
E) fungi
Answer: D
Q2) How would you use Robert Koch's postulates to prove that a specific organism causes a new disease in mice?
Answer: 1. The suspected organism is found in all diseased mice, but absent from healthy mice. 2. The suspected organism is isolated from the diseased mice and grown in pure culture. 3. When the suspected organism is introduced into a healthy mouse, the same disease occurs. 4. The same strain of microbe is obtained from the newly diseased mouse.
Q3) Define attenuation and describe some mechanisms used to attenuate pathogens.
Answer: Attenuation results in a weakened organism that will not produce full-blown disease, but will generate immunity. Answers for mechanisms may vary. See discussion in textbook Section 1.3 entitled "Immunization Prevents Disease."
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Observing the Microbial Cell
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Q1) A/An __________ acts to vary the diameter of the light column in a light microscope.
A) condenser
B) objective
C) ocular
D) diaphragm
E) lens
Answer: D
Q2) Describe three conditions that are necessary for electromagnetic radiation to resolve and object.
Answer: There must be contrast between the object and its surroundings. The wavelength of the radiation must be equal to or smaller that the size of the object. The detector must have sufficient resolution for the given wavelength.
Q3) List and describe three common shapes of bacteria.
Answer: Bacilli (singular, bacillus) are rod-shaped bacteria. Cocci (singular, coccus) are spherical-shaped bacteria. Spirochetes are tightly coiled spirals or corkscrew-shaped bacteria.
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4
Chapter 3: Cell Structure and Function
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Q1) All of the following are components of peptidoglycan EXCEPT:
A) N-acetylglucosamine
B) N-acetylmuramic acid
C) lipopolysaccharide
D) amino acids
E) peptide cross-links
Answer: C
Q2) List and briefly describe four components of a typical bacterial cell.
Answer: Possible answers include: Cytoplasm-gel-like network of proteins and macromolecules; Cell membrane surrounds cytoplasm, made of phospholipids and hydrophobic proteins; Cell wall surrounds cell membrane, rigid structure of polysaccharides and peptides; Lipopolysaccharide membrane surrounds cell wall of Gram-negative cells, made of lipids and polysaccharides; Capsule surrounds envelope of some organisms, made of polysaccharides, prevents phagocytosis; Flagellum used for cell motility; Nucleoid coiled chromosome not surrounded by membrane.
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Chapter 4: Bacterial Culture, Growth, and Development
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Q1) All of Earth's life-forms are based on:
A) hydrogen
B) nitrogen
C) oxygen
D) carbon
E) phosphorus
Q2) Explain the difference between electrogenic and electroneutral coupled transport and give an example of each.
Q3) The best method to isolate single colonies is the __________ plate and the best method to count colonies is the __________ plate.
A) spread; pour
B) pour; spread
C) defined; complex
D) complex; defined
E) spread; streak
Q4) Why can't most organisms use the nitrogen gas which is so prevalent in the atmosphere? How do these organisms acquire a usable form of nitrogen?
Q5) How do scientists know of the existence of "unculturable" organisms?
Q6) Compare and contrast complex media, synthetic media, and enriched media.
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Chapter 5: Environmental Influences and Control of
Microbial Growth
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Q1) Human pathogens are:
A) halophiles
B) psychrophiles
C) mesophiles
D) thermophiles
E) extreme thermophiles
Q2) Runoff from agricultural fields, lawns, and golf courses can cause an overgrowth of microbes due to:
A) eutrophication
B) starvation response
C) oligotrophy
D) antisepsis
E) pasteurization
Q3) How is the phenol coefficient calculated? Why is phenol the standard for testing other disinfectants?
Q4) How are some organisms able to survive temporary exposures to elevated temperatures?
Q5) Describe the studies with Salmonella that showed that in vitro conditions do not always model what happens in vivo (in this case in the phagocytic vacuole).
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Chapter 6: Virus Structure and Function
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Q1) In a filamentous virus, the pattern of capsid monomers forms a __________ tube around the genome.
A) icosahedral
B) filamentous
C) asymmetrical
D) complex
E) helical
Q2) David Baltimore proposed that the primary distinction among classes of viruses was the __________ composition and the route used to express messenger RNA.
A) genome
B) envelope
C) capsid
D) tegument
E) neck
Q3) How is a plaque assay used to count virions in a solution?
Q4) What are prions and how do they cause disease?
Q5) Some viruses require an RNA-dependent RNA polymerase. What does that mean? Using the same vernacular, what would you call the host cell RNA polymerase (RNA pol)? What would you call reverse transcriptase (RTase)?
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Chapter 7: Genomes and Chromosomes
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Q1) Bacteria and archaea growing at extreme pH or temperature protect their DNA from denaturation through the use of:
A) DNA-binding proteins
B) Okazaki fragments
C) pseudogenes
D) introns
E) ligase
Q2) Describe how fluorescent microscopy was used to show that cellular DNA occupies most of the cytoplasmic space whereas the replisomes remain at approximately midcell. What does this say about movement of the DNA with respect to the replisome during the replication process?
Q3) How have restriction enzymes revolutionized the field of microbiology?
Q4) Initiation of DNA replication is controlled by DNA __________ and by the binding of a specific initiator protein to the origin sequence.
A) methylation
B) ligase
C) helicase
D) restriction
E) gyrase
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Chapter 8: Transcription, Translation, and Bioinformatics
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Q1) An enzyme complex called RNA polymerase, also known as __________-dependent __________ polymerase, carries out the process of transcription.
A) RNA; DNA
B) transcription; DNA
C) transcription; RNA
D) DNA; RNA
E) translation; RNA
Q2) Similar genes within the same organism that have different functions are referred to as:
A) homologs
B) orthologs
C) paralogs
D) homogenous
E) synonymous
Q3) The unusual bases found in tRNA are poor substrates for __________.
A) proteases
B) polymerases
C) ribosomes
D) ribozymes
E) RNases
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Chapter 9: Gene Transfer, Mutations, and Genome
Evolution
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Q1) What is a pan-genome and why does this appear to be the best way to describe a species?
Q2) RecA molecules are also called __________ because they are able to scan DNA molecules for homology and align the homologous regions, forming a triplex DNA molecule.
A) recombinases
B) integrases
C) polymerses
D) synaptases
E) transposases
Q3) Why is SOS repair considered to be an error prone repair mechanism? Why would an organism use an error prone mechanism?
Q4) Describe a frameshift mutation in terms of insertions and deletions. Does an insertion always result in a frameshift mutation? Will an insertion always render the gene product nonfunctional?
Q5) How is the Ames reversion test performed and what is it used to determine?
Q6) Define a pseudogene and what it is thought to represent.
Page 11
Q7) Why does a genetic experiment generally involve screening hundreds of millions of cells to find a few recombinants that form visible colonies?
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Chapter 10: Molecular Regulation
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Q1) When the forespore is first produced, about how much of the chromosome is actually inside the forespore?
A) 10%
B) 20%
C) 30%
D) 40%
E) 50%
Q2) The stringent response involves all EXCEPT:
A) downregulation of rRNA synthesis
B) downregulation of tRNA synthesis
C) ATP
D) GTP
E) cAMP
Q3) The little amount of sigma H that is made at 30°C is __________ by the DnaK/GrpE/DnaJ chaperones.
A) enhanced
B) activated
C) degraded
D) protected
E) folded
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Chapter 11: Viral Molecular Biology
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Q1) RNA synthesis of influenza virus is primed by capped fragments of host mRNA, obtained by the "__________" method.
A) telomerase
B) rolling-circle
C) endocytosis
D) exocytosis
E) cap-snatching
Q2) Herpes simplex virus-1 replication involves:
A) viral DNA polymerase
B) rolling-circle replication
C) concatamer formation
D) all of the above
E) none of the above
Q3) Herpes simplex virus-1 capsids receive envelope proteins from:
A) the cytoplasm
B) the nuclear membrane
C) the ER
D) either the nuclear membrane or the ER
E) the Golgi
Q4) Why are capsids of icosahedral symmetry so common among viruses?
Page 13
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Chapter 12: Molecular Techniques and Biotechnology
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Q1) How is bacterial DNA cross-linked to putative binding proteins for chromatin immunoprecipitation (ChIP)?
A) Cells are exposed to UV light.
B) Cells are treated with formaldehyde.
C) Cells are treated with heat.
D) All of the above.
E) None of the above.
Q2) If a person needs to ingest only a few cells of an organism to become colonized or infected, the organism is said to have a low __________.
A) infectious dose
B) penetrance
C) morbidity
D) antibiotic resistance
E) none of the above
Q3) Describe advantages and disadvantages of using adenoviruses and adeno-associated viruses as vectors in gene therapy.
Q4) You are planning to do some Northern blots and would like to use a nonradioactive label. You decide to use biotinylated DNA. What detection method would you use?
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Chapter 13: Energetics and Catabolism
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Q1) In most environments, the nutrient concentrations outside the cell are lower than inside the cell. How can a microbial cell obtain nutrients if the concentration gradient is NOT favorable?
A) through active, ATP-dependent transport
B) using facilitated diffusion
C) swim and tumble
D) by forming biofilms
E) none of the above
Q2) The flavor and other properties of cheeses derive from the type of fermenting microorganisms used. How do the "eyes" and the characteristic flavor of Swiss cheese originate?
Q3) The process of prioritized consumption of substrates is known as catabolite
A) induction
B) poisoning
C) competition
D) repression
E) none of the above
Q4) In NMR, how are different sugars distinguished and why is each carbon associated with two different peaks?
Page 15
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Chapter 14: Respiration, Lithotrophy, and Photolysis
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Q1) The following is correct with respect to anaerobic photosystem I:
A) PS I separates electrons associated with hydrogens from H<sub>2</sub>S.
B) PS I separates electrons from organic electron donors such as succinate.
C) PS I separates electrons from Fe<sup>2+</sup>.
D) All of the above.
E) None of the above.
Q2) What is photoheterotrophy? Give examples of photoheterotrophic organisms.
Q3) How can \(\Delta\)p be measured in bacterial cells? Compare that with ways to measure it in eukaryotic cells.
Q4) Some pathogenic bacteria use __________ to expel antibiotics from the cell.
A) proton-driven efflux pumps
B) sugar or amino acid inward carriers
C) heme cofactors
D) all of the above
E) none of the above
Q5) Is the synthesis of ATP by the F<sub>o</sub>F<sub>1</sub> ATPase reversible? If so, are there any examples?
Q6) What could be the advantages of having a Na<sup>+</sup>-pumping oxidoreductase in pathogens such as Vibrio cholerae and Yersinia pestis?
Page 16
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Chapter 15: Biosynthesis
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Q1) What are polyalkanoates and what are bacterially produced polyalkanoates used for? Why are they of ecological and medical interest?
Q2) Variations of the tetrapyrrole ring structure enable coordination to different __________ ions.
A) halogen
B) metal
C) organic
D) all of the above
E) none of the above
Q3) Which of the following is true of riboswitch regulation?
A) It is another name for RNAi.
B) It regulates the biosynthesis of tetrapyrroles.
C) It involves blocking RNA polymerase.
D) All of the above.
E) None of the above.
Q4) What is the significance of finding polyketide-synthesis gene clusters in the metagenome of the sponge Discodermia dissoluta?
Q5) What are nonribosomal peptide antibiotics? How are they synthesized?
Q6) How does the reductive or reverse TCA cycle differ from the regular TCA cycle?
Page 17
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Chapter 16: Food and Industrial Microbiology
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Q1) The root-stimulating hormone __________ induces the production of hydrolases in the barley.
A) auxin
B) gibberellin
C) cytokine
D) ethylene
E) abscisic acid
Q2) Which of the following organisms is NOT involved in the chocolate-making process?
A) yeasts
B) lactic acid bacteria
C) acetic acid bacteria
D) thermophilic bacteria
E) all of the above
Q3) Mold ripening refers to the secondary __________ stage of cheese production.
A) respiration
B) curd
C) contamination
D) bacterial
E) fermentation
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Page 18
Chapter 17: Origins and Evolution
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Q1) If you performed an \(\delta\)<sup> 13</sup>C isotope analysis on an unknown geological sample and determined a negative \(\delta\)<sup> 13</sup>C % value, what would you conclude about the existence of life in that sample and why?
Q2) Human diseases inherited by mitochondrial DNA include all of the following EXCEPT:
A) sickle cell anemia
B) forms of ataxia
C) dystonia
D) Parkinsonism
E) motor neuron disease
Q3) Explain how banded iron formations could arise in the geologic record due to photoferrotrophy?
Q4) Mycobacterium tuberculosis and H1N1 could both be classified in the same category in some classification systems based on the fact that they both: A) are prokaryotes
B) stain in the laboratory with an acid-fast stain
C) create energy using aerobic respiration
D) have similar SSU rRNA
E) cause lung infection
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Page 19
Chapter 18: Bacterial Diversity
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Q1) The following is correct with respect to Streptococcus species:
A) They grow as chains, as a result of binary fission in one direction.
B) They are aerotolerant fermenters.
C) Some species cause tooth decay, as they ferment food residues and lower pH to 4.
D) All of the above.
E) None of the above.
Q2) The following is NOT correct about microorganisms in the phylum Thermotogae:
A) They are among the most extreme bacterial hyperthermophiles.
B) Archaeal genes have been transferred horizontally to them.
C) They have fast doubling rates and high mutations rates.
D) They are Gram-negative sheathed rods.
E) Thermus aquaticus, source of a DNA polymerase used in PCR, belongs to this phylum.
Q3) Briefly describe the cellular structure of spirochetes and their motility system.
Q4) Compare and contrast the double membrane found in planctomycetes versus that found in the eukaryotic nucleus.
Q5) What is unique about the genome of Borrelia species?
Q6) What is photoheterotrophy? Provide two examples.
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Page 20
Chapter 19: Archaeal Diversity
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Q1) Commercial evaporation pools for salt production benefit from the presence of red __________, whose light absorption accelerates heating and evaporation.
A) methanogens
B) Sulfolobus
C) acidophiles
D) haloarchaea
E) thermophiles
Q2) Methanogenesis includes a unique pathway of carbon fixation, called the carbon monoxide __________ pathway, because the key enzyme can fix CO as well as CO<sub>2</sub>.
A) gyrase
B) helicase
C) polymerase
D) reductase
E) dismutase
Q3) Why are the archaea so difficult to classify?
Q4) Explain why, when growing Halobacterium on agar plates, some colonies may be pink, some red, and some sectored.
Q5) What is the Ancient Archaeal Group and what is known about these organisms?
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Chapter 20: Eukaryotic Diversity
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Q1) Pneumocystis jirovecii is an organism that causes pneumocystis pneumonia (PCP) in HIV/AIDS and other immunocompromised patient populations. Originally, Pneumocystis jirovecii was classified as protozoa but has been reclassified as fungi. Based on your knowledge of eukaryotic classification history, describe some characteristics that may have caused the initial classification and then the reclassification.
Q2) What is the life cycle of Plasmodium and how does that life cycle cause Plasmodium to be categorized as an apicomplexan?
Q3) Rhodophyta or red algae appear red due to:
A) chlorophyll a
B) chlorophyll b
C) phycocyanin
D) phycoerythrin
E) rubisco
Q4) Which of the following could be classified in the clade Opisthokonta?
A) microsporidia
B) land plants
C) diatoms
D) slime molds
E) brown algae
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Chapter 21: Microbial Ecology
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Q1) The net biomass of a population does not indicate productivity within an ecosystem. Explain.
Q2) Which term represents the region of soil directly in contact with the root surface?
A) stele
B) cortex
C) root cap
D) rhizoplane
E) rhizosphere
Q3) Eutrophic lakes typically support ten times the microbial concentrations of an oligotrophic lake. Which of the following statements are NOT true of eutrophic lakes?
A) Biochemical oxygen demand is high.
B) Population of consumer aquatic animals is high.
C) Nitrogen and phosphorous levels are usually high.
D) Photosynthetic activities are altered.
E) Algal bloom is a common characteristic.
Q4) Compare and contrast the photic zones of pelagic and fresh-water lake ecosystems.
Q5) What are endoliths and what do they feed on inside rocks?
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Chapter 22: Microbes and the Global Environment
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Q1) What types of bacteria will carry out nitrification (conversion of ammonia to nitrite or nitrate)?
A) lithotrophs
B) heterotrophs
C) chemoorganotrophy
D) phototrophs
E) fastidious heterotrophs
Q2) Which of the following major elements has the highest number of oxidation states?
A) nitrogen
B) carbon
C) hydrogen
D) sulfur
E) oxygen
Q3) Which of the following is assimilated almost entirely in the oxidized state?
A) sulfur
B) nitrogen
C) phosphate
D) carbon
E) none of the above
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Page 24
Chapter 23: Human Microbiota and Nonspecific Host Defenses
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Q1) A bacterium can live inside a phagocyte by preventing:
A) complement activation
B) interferon production
C) defensin production
D) fusion of the phagosome with a lysosome
E) inflammation
Q2) Toll-like receptors are eukaryotic membrane proteins that bind with bacterial surface molecules and:
A) form channels through which bacterial proteins can enter the eukaryotic cell
B) cause the cell to phagocytize the bacteria
C) release antibiotics to kill the bacteria
D) release chemicals that trigger host defenses against the bacteria
E) activate the complement cascade
Q3) Which of the following is correct regarding inflammation?
A) The cardinal signs include rash.
B) Some of the phagocytes are stimulated to secrete antibodies specific for the invading pathogen.
C) The response is the same for viruses, bacteria, and injury to the body.
D) Differentiation of B cells into plasma cells occurs at the site of infection.
Page 25
E) AIDS patients have little or no inflammatory response when they infected.
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Chapter 24: The Adaptive Immune Response
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Q1) Describe the structure of a typical IgG antibody, including the F(ab')<sub>2</sub> and Fc portions.
Q2) Regulation of complement destruction of normal body cells is controlled by:
A) CD8, serum factor C3b, and serum albumin
B) CD58, serum factor H, and decay-accelerating factor
C) CD4, serum factor Bb, and decay-accelerating factor
D) MHC I, serum factor C5a, and serum lipoprotein
E) MHC II, serum albumin, and T regulatory cells
Q3) The difference between an antibody allotype and isotype is:
A) isotype is the difference in constant regions; allotype are differences within isotypes
B) allotype is the difference in constant regions; isotype are differences within allotypes
C) isotype is the difference in constant regions; allotype are alternations in the hypervariable regions
D) isotype are alternations in the hypervariable regions; allotypes are differences within isotypes
E) isotype are alternations in the hypervariable regions of one person; allotypes are alternations in the hypervariable regions among a species
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26
Chapter 25: Microbial Pathogenesis
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Q1) Protein A helps Staphylococcus aureus avoid :
A) complement
B) apoptosis
C) phagocytosis
D) cytotoxic T cells
E) phagosome-lysosome fusion
Q2) The cholera and E. coli (traveler's diarrhea) toxins __________, leading to high levels of cAMP in the cell.
A) ADP ribosylate the Gs factor
B) ADP ribosylate adenyl cyclase
C) inactivate ATP
D) are bacterial adenylate cyclase
E) phosphorylates the G factor
Q3) Biofilms play a major role in enhancing bacterial virulence because:
A) biofilm strains are mutants
B) the exopolymer matrix is highly toxic and mutagenic
C) biofilm bacteria are intracellular pathogens
D) bacteria in biofilms are more resistant to antimicrobials and phagocytosis
E) low bacteria density does not alert the human immune system
Q4) Briefly describe three classic modes of action of bacterial toxins.
Page 27
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Chapter 26: Microbial Diseases
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Q1) Why do you think most urinary tract infections occur in women?
Q2) A __________ disease is an infection that normally affects animals but that can be transmitted to humans.
A) zoonotic
B) herd
C) fulminating
D) recurrent or cyclic
E) community acquired
Q3) Why does one person have repeated infections with N. gonorrhoea?
Q4) Which of the following is NOT matched correctly?
A) erythema migrans-Neisseria gonorrhoeae
B) Borrelia burgdorferi-Lyme disease
C) salvanic cycle-wild rodent and flea cycling of plague
D) pelvic inflammatory disease-antigent phase variation
E) multidrug resistance-emerging Mycobacterium tuberculosis
Q5) What makes uropathogenic E. coli different from the other E. coli?
Q6) Describe epigenetic silencing and the role it plays in malaria.
Q7) Explain how Clostridium botulinum, an obligate anaerobe, secretes its potent toxins in food.
Q8) Why is antibiotic treatment NOT recommended for E. coli O157:H7 (EHEC)?
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Chapter 27: Antimicrobial Chemotherapy
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Q1) One way a macrolide-producing organism, such as Streptomyces sp., prevents its own demise from production of the antibiotic is to:
A) methylate its own RNA
B) change its peptidoglycan linkages
C) create an MDR pump
D) change its DNA structure
E) only produce the antibiotic during the death phase
Q2) You are designing a new antibiotic to treat infections caused by the fungal agent Cryptococcus neoformans, a potentially fatal lung infection in patients on long-term corticosteroid therapy. What issues could you run into with selective toxicity and what strategies would you use in your development?
Q3) Genes within any one given bacteria that control growth and metabolism both under laboratory conditions and pathogenic conditions within a host are considered to be:
A) housekeeping genes
B) in vitro expressed genes
C) total translatable genomic genes
D) in vivo expressed genes
E) in situ expressed genes
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Chapter 28: Clinical Microbiology and Epidemiology
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Q1) The use of a laminar flow hood when studying the organism Francisella tularensis is an example of:
A) level 0 biological safety
B) level I biological safety
C) level II biological safety
D) level III biological safety
E) level IV biological safety
Q2) Real-time polymerase chain reaction on a clinical sample from a suspected hantavirus patient can determine both:
A) antibodies to hantavirus and viral resistance
B) viral resistance and viral load
C) presence of hantavirus and viral load
D) antibodies to hantavirus and strength of immune response
E) hanta serotype and strength of immune response
Q3) Which of the following organisms falls within biosafety category II?
A) Ebola virus
B) SARS
C) Mycobacterium tuberculosis
D) Escherichia coli K-12
E) Campylobacter jejuni
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