Course Introduction
Pathogenic Microbiology
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Pathogenic Microbiology introduces students to the fundamental principles of microorganisms that cause diseases in humans, animals, and plants. The course explores the biology, classification, and mechanisms of pathogenic bacteria, viruses, fungi, and parasites, emphasizing their modes of transmission, virulence factors, and strategies for evading the host immune response. Students will also examine diagnostic techniques, antimicrobial therapies, epidemiology, and current challenges in controlling infectious diseases, providing a comprehensive understanding of the impact of pathogens on public health.
Recommended Textbook
Microbiology A Systems Approach 4th Edition by Marjorie Kelly
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Page 2
Chapter 1: The Main Themes of Microbiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) When assigning a scientific name to an organism,
A)the species name is capitalized.
B)the species name is placed first.
C)the species name can be abbreviated.
D)both genus and species names are capitalized.
E)both genus and species names are italicized or underlined.
Answer: E
Q2) The smallest and most significant taxon is A)genus.
B)species.
C)kingdom.
D)family.
E)phylum.
Answer: B
Q3) The names of the three proposed domains are: Bacteria,Protista,and Eukarya.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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3
Chapter 2: The Chemistry of Biology
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Q1) All of the following are monosaccharides except A)glucose.
B)glycogen.
C)fructose.
D)ribose.
E)deoxyribose.
Answer: B
Q2) Anything that occupies space and has mass is called A)atomic.
B)living.
C)matter.
D)energy.
E)space.
Answer: C
Q3) The concentration of a solution expresses the amount of solvent present.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Tools of the Laboratory: Methods for the
Culturing of Microscopic Analysis of Microorganisms
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Q1) Which type of microscope is the most widely used and shows cells against a bright background?
A)bright-field
B)dark-field
C)phase-contrast
D)fluorescence
E)electron
Answer: A
Q2) The specimen preparation that is best for viewing cell motility is A)hanging drop.
B)fixed,stained smear.
C)Gram stain.
D)negative stain.
E)flagellar stain.
Answer: A
Q3) Mixed cultures are also referred to as contaminated cultures.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Page 5
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Chapter 4: Prokaryotic Profiles: The Bacteria and Archaea
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Q1) A client has a serious respiratory infection.A random sample of sputum was taken from the patient coughing up blood.The lab technician said they had isolated a bacterium that did not have any peptidoglycan.You hypothesize that the identity of this microbe could possibly be
A)Mycobacterium tuberculosis.
B)Borrelia burgdorferi.
C)Streptococcus pneumoniae.
D)Mycoplasma pneumoniae.
E)Staphylococcus aureus.
Q2) A prokaryotic cell wall that has primarily peptidoglycan with small amounts of teichoic acid and lipoteichoic acid is
A)gram-negative.
B)gram-positive.
C)a protoplast.
D)a spheroplast.
E)acid-fast.
Q3) Flagella move in a whip-like motion.
A)True
B)False
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Page 6
Chapter 5: Eukaryotic Cells and Microorganisms
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Q1) What two categories of fungi cause human diseases?
A)primary and secondary
B)primary and vegetative
C)opportunistic and primary
D)secondary and opportunistic
E)vegetative and reproductive
Q2) You are looking at an organism of some sort under the microscopic lens.It is obviously multicellular,with no cell wall.Your prediction would be that this organism is a:
A)bacterium
B)fungus
C)alga
D)protozoan
E)helminth
Q3) Eukaryotic mitochondria have their own 70S ribosomes and circular DNA.
A)True
B)False
Q4) All fungi cause some kind of disease in plants and animals.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 6: An Introduction to the Viruses
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Q1) Some animals can become infected with multiple influenza virus strains usually associated with other animals.Which statement below describes the result of these infections?
A)A new novel strain of flu may be produced,for which the human population has no immunity.
B)Major genetic variations in the flu viruses can be reproduced.
C)The viral genomes within the host cells can become recombined.
D)All of the above are possible outcomes.
Q2) Infectious naked strands of RNA that affect plants are called A)viroids.
B)phages. C)prions.
D)oncogenic viruses. E)spikes.
Q3) Lysogeny refers to A)altering the host range of a virus.
B)latent state of herpes infections.
C)virion exiting host cell.
D)viral genome inserting into bacterial host chromosome.
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Page 8
Chapter 7: Microbial Nutrition, Ecology, and Growth
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Q1) The direct cell count,using a cytometer,can calculate viable cell numbers from a sample without the use of dyes.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The term facultative refers to
A)the ability to exist in a wide range of conditions.
B)existing in a very narrow niche.
C)using chemicals for energy production.
D)using light for energy production.
E)using oxygen for metabolism.
Q3) Bacteria living in a freshwater stream that are moved to salty seawater would A)be in a hypotonic solution.
B)gain water.
C)be in an isotonic solution.
D)become dehydrated due to the loss of water.
Q4) The majority of microbes live and grow in habitats between pH 7 and 9.
A)True
B)False
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9
Chapter 8: Microbial Metabolism: the Chemical Crossroads of Life
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Q1) The cell's metabolic reactions involve the participation of _____ that lower the activation energy needed for the initiation of a reaction.
A)cofactors
B)vitamins
C)enzymes
D)ATP
E)coenzymes
Q2) The property of organisms to integrate catabolic and anabolic pathways to improve cell efficiency is called A)metabolism.
B)amphibolism.
C)anabolism.
D)catabolism.
E)biosynthesis.
Q3) ATP molecules are catalysts that lower the activation energy needed to initiate a reaction.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 9: Microbial Genetics
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Sample Questions
Q1) The site where the old DNA strands separate and new DNA strands will be synthesized is called the
A)primer.
B)Okazaki fragment.
C)template.
D)rolling circle.
E)replication fork.
Q2) Excised introns form structures called lariats.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Structural genes code for
A)ribosomal RNA molecules.
B)transfer RNA molecules.
C)cellular proteins.
D)gene expression elements.
Q4) The lactose repressor
A)is transcribed with the structural lac genes.
B)is activated by binding lactose.
C)is inactivated by binding lactose.
D)requires lactose for its transcription.
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Chapter 10: Genetic Engineering and Recombinant Dna
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Q1) What type of DNA map is most detailed?
A)linkage
B)sequence
C)physical
D)geographical
E)chromosomal
Q2) Which of the following it a list of the materials required for PCR?
A)reverse transcriptase,Taq RNA polymerase,nucleotides
B)reverse transcriptase,Taq DNA polymerase,nucleotides
C)primers,Taq DNA polymerase,nucleotides
D)primers,Taq RNA polymerase,nucleotides
Q3) DNA strands can be clipped crosswise at selected positions by using enzymes called A)palindromes.
B)reverse transcriptases.
C)restriction endonucleases.
D)ligases.
E)DNA polymerases.
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Chapter 11: Physical and Chemical Control of Microbes
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Q1) The shortest time required to kill or inactivate all the microbes in a sample at a specified temperature is called the
A)thermal death point (TDP).
B)thermal death time (TDT).
C)sporicidal time.
D)death phase point.
Q2) HEPA filters are used to remove microbes from A)air.
B)liquids.
C)human tissues.
D)medical instruments.
E)All of the choices are correct.
Q3) The compound that is an organic base containing chlorine and two phenolic rings,and is used increasingly for wound degerming,neonatal washes,hand scrubbing,and prepping surgical skin sites is
A)carbolic acid.
B)chlorhexidine.
C)triclosan.
D)formalin.
E)quaternary ammonium compounds.
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Chapter 12: Drugs, Microbes, host-The Elements of Chemotherapy
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which antibiotic is used to treat MRSA and VRE infections?
A)synercid
B)clindamycin
C)linezolid
D)azithromycin
E)clarithromycin
Q2) Acyclovir is used to treat infections caused by:
A)influenza A virus.
B)HIV.
C)herpes simplex virus.
D)respiratory syncytial virus.
E)hepatitis C virus.
Q3) Sulfonamides
A)interfere with elongation of peptidoglycan.
B)are metabolic analogs of PABA and block folic acid synthesis.
C)attach to the 30S ribosomal subunit and disrupt protein synthesis.
D)damage cell membranes.
E)block peptidases that cross-link glycan molecules.
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Chapter 13: Microbe-Human Interactions: Infection and Disease
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is the endotoxin?
A)hemolysin
B)hyaluronidase
C)streptokinase
D)collagenase
E)lipopolysaccharide
Q2) The intermediary object or individual from which the infectious agent is actually acquired is termed the A)fomite.
B)carrier.
C)vector.
D)reservoir.
E)source.
Q3) Which of the following does not illustrate the use of universal precaution methods in the handling of patients and body substances?
A)mask and gloves
B)proper disposal of needles
C)healthcare worker with active,open lesions handling patients
D)hand washing
E)sterilizing or disinfection of dental hand pieces
Page 15
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Chapter 14: Host Defenses I: Overview and Nonspecific Defenses
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Q1) The production of interferon will protect the host cell from a viral infection.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following is not a type of phagocyte?
A)neutrophils
B)macrophages
C)Kupffer cells
D)monocytes
E)lymphocytes
Q3) Which white blood cells comprise 20% to 30% of the circulating WBCs and are the cells that function in the body's specific immune system?
A)basophils
B)eosinophils
C)neutrophils
D)monocytes
E)lymphocytes
Q4) Monocytes and lymphocytes are agranular leukocytes.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 15: Host Defenses II: Specific Immunity and Immunization
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Sample Questions
Q1) Small foreign molecules that are too small by themselves to elicit an immune response are termed A)epitopes.
B)haptens.
C)antigen binding sites.
D)variable regions.
Q2) Acquired specific immunity involves the response of A)skin barriers.
B)B and T lymphocytes.
C)lysozyme.
D)mucus membranes.
E)interferon.
Q3) Acellular vaccines and subunit vaccines
A)contain modified bacterial exotoxin molecules.
B)are always genetically engineered.
C)contain select antigenic components of a pathogen rather than whole cells or viruses.
D)confer passive immunity.
E)utilize DNA strands that will produce the antigen.
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Chapter 16: Disorders in Immunity
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Sample Questions
Q1) AIDS is a secondary immunodeficiency disease that affects several types of immune cells.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A person who is Rh<sup>-</sup> will have anti-Rh antibodies in his/her serum from early infancy.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Allergic reactions to penicillins are considered a/n _____ hypersensitivity.
A)T-cell-mediated
B)antibody-mediated
C)immune complex-mediated
D)immediate
E)Both T-cell-mediated and antibody-mediated are correct.
Q4) Epinephrine
A)is an antihistamine.
B)reverses constriction of airways.
C)causes desensitization.
D)inhibits the activity of lymphocytes.
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Chapter 17: Diagnosing Infections
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Q1) In your microbiology lab,your class is identifying bacteria.You are using dichotomous keys to aid in the identification process using the data from a variety of biochemical tests.What problems do you foresee in this procedure,using the key?
A)Dichotomous keys are too sophisticated to read properly,so you are worried that there will be a large degree of error in your identification.
B)Dichotomous keys are not valid for identification.
C)The dichotomous key does not contain information on your bacterium.
D)If you misread a biochemical test or write down the wrong result,the key will likely take you to an alternative organsm that is not your unknown bacterium.
Q2) A serum titer involves
A)quantifying the number of infectious particles in a specimen.
B)determining the lowest dilution of serum that produces a visible reaction.
C)determining the highest dilution of serum that produces a visible reaction.
D)the Western blot method.
Q3) The polymerase chain reaction requires endonuclease to cut samples of DNA.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 18: Infectious Diseases Affecting the Skin and Eyes
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Q1) Cutaneous anthrax is
A)found in humans only.
B)transmitted by contact.
C)a high mortality disease.
D)seen in epidemic proportions in the United States.
Q2) The integument includes all of the following except A)skin.
B)hair.
C)nails.
D)sweat glands.
E)surface capillaries.
Q3) What is the only way to prevent conjunctivitis?
A)wear insect repellent
B)good hygiene
C)trifluridine or acyclovir treatment
D)ivermectin treatment
Q4) Propionibacterium acnes is considered normal biota of sebaceous glands of the skin.
A)True
B)False
Page 20
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Chapter 19: Infectious Diseases Affecting the Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is incorrect about rabies?
A)Rabies is a zoonotic disease.
B)Wild populations of bats,skunks,raccoons,cats,and canines are primary reservoirs.
C)Transmission can involve bites,scratches,and inhalation.
D)The average incubation period in human is 1 week.
E)Symptoms include anxiety,agitation,muscle spasms,convulsions,and paralysis.
Q2) Treatment for Neisseria meningitidis consists of
A)vancomycin.
B)penicillin G orally.
C)penicillin G intravenously.
D)rifampin.
E)tetracycline.
Q3) Production of a neurotoxin that prevents acetylcholine release from motor neurons at neuromuscular junctions is a characteristic of
A)Clostridium botulinum.
B)Clostridium perfringens.
C)Clostridium difficile.
D)Clostridium tetani.
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Chapter 20: Infectious Diseases Affecting the
Cardiovascular and Lymphatic Systems
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Q1) All of the following pertain to HIV except A)the virus attaches primarily to host cells with CD4 receptors.
B)viral DNA integrates into the host DNA.
C)the virus becomes latent in host cells.
D)ELISA and Western blot tests detect HIV antigens.
E)the virus can enter into nervous tissues and cause abnormalities.
Q2) The gram-negative bacillus associated with abscesses from cat bites or scratches is
A)Salmonella typhimurium.
B)Yersinia enterocolitica.
C)Bartonella henselae.
D)Brucella suis.
E)Francisella tularensis.
Q3) The reservoir for Lassa fever is the A)monkey.
B)rat.
C)gorilla.
D)cat.
E)cow.
22
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Chapter 21: Infectious Diseases Affecting the Respiratory System
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Q1) Which of the following is not true of whooping cough?
A)Secondary infections can occur during the convalescent phase.
B)It is caused by a small,aerobic,gram-negative rod.
C)Incubation period is 3 - 21 days.
D)Cold-like symptoms are common for the paroxysmal stage.
E)An uncontrollable cough occurs during the paroxysmal stage.
Q2) Pertussis outbreaks still occur in the United States.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following is true about sinusitis caused by allergy?
A)greenish or yellowish mucous discharge
B)caused by Streptococcus pneumoniae
C)introduced by trauma
D)clear,watery discharge
E)preceded by viral rhinitis
Q4) Which of the following pertains to diphtheria?
A)results in meningitis
B)symptoms include vomiting and diarrhea
C)can be transmitted from mother's birth canal to neonate
D)prevented by the DTaP immunization
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Chapter 22: Infectious Diseases Affecting the
Gastrointestinal Tract
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Sample Questions
Q1) Ascaris lumbricoides
A)is an intestinal roundworm.
B)spreads to humans by ingestion of Ascaris eggs in food.
C)larvae penetrate into lymphatics and capillaries around intestines.
D)larvae migrate to the pharynx,get swallowed,and return to intestines to mature.
E)All of the choices are correct.
Q2) Despite acidic conditions,some microorganisms have been found residing within the human stomach.
A)True
B)False
Q3) There are vaccines for immunity to the Hepatitis B virus.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which statement does not accurately describe Salmonella typhi?
A)It multiplies within phagocytes and lymph nodes.
B)The bacterium is a gram-negative bacillus.
C)The disease can be treated with antimicrobials.
D)It is the cause of typhoid fever.
E)It produces a mild gastrointestinal disease.
Page 24
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Chapter 23: Infectious Diseases Affecting the Genitourinary System
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Q1) Infection of the urinary bladder is called A)urethritis.
B)pyelonephritis.
C)cystitis.
D)vaginitis.
E)PID.
Q2) The following are characteristics of Chlamydia except A)gram-negative.
B)obligate parasites that need host cells for growth.
C)elementary bodies are the infectious form.
D)elementary bodies lack enzyme systems for making ATP.
E)reticulate bodies differentiate into elementary bodies.
Q3) The antivirals used for herpes simplex infections have the ability to completely destroy the virus and permanently cure the latent infection.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Gardasil prevents infection by group B Streptococcus types 6,11,16,and 18.
A)True
B)False
25
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Chapter 24: Microbes and the Environment
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Q1) The energy of the sun is converted into chemical energy during A)ammonification.
B)nitrogen fixation.
C)photosynthesis.
D)nitrification.
E)denitrification.
Q2) Mycorrhizae are the mutualistic relationship between fungi and the roots of certain plants.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The conversion of nitrate (NO<sub>3</sub><sup>-</sup>)to nitrogen gas (N<sub>2</sub>)is called A)ammonification. B)nitrogen fixation. C)photosynthesis.
D)nitrification. E)denitrification.
Q4) The primary role of producers is the recycling of nutrients in an ecosystem. A)True
B)False
Page 26
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Chapter 25: Applied Microbiology and Food and Water Safety
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Q1) Picking a nice sirloin roast,you ask the meat manager to grind it up into ground beef,to be used for hamburger meat.Since your husband likes his hamburgers rare,you undercooked the meat just as he likes it.Unfortunately,within 2 days he develops the signs and symptoms of gastrointestinal disease--diarrhea,bloating,and vomiting.Which of the following statements best describes what might have happened?
A)The meat grinder was not cleaned well with disinfectant.When the sirloin was ground up with the grinder,bacteria were transferred to the meat and thoroughly distributed throughout the meat.
B)The sirloin was already contaminated when it was in the whole animal,probably due to the animal being sick.
C)The hamburger meat became contaminated by bacteria that were in other foods in your refrigerator.
D)The meat became contaminated by bacteria on the barbeque grill,coating both sides of the hamburger patties.
Q2) Irradiated food becomes radioactive.
A)True
B)False
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Page 27