Course Introduction
Pathogenic Microbiology Question
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Pathogenic Microbiology explores the biology, mechanisms, and clinical significance of microorganisms that cause disease in humans. This course covers the structure, function, and classification of bacteria, viruses, fungi, and parasites, emphasizing their roles as pathogens. Students will examine host-pathogen interactions, microbial virulence factors, routes of transmission, and the immune response. Additionally, the course addresses strategies for diagnosis, prevention, and treatment of infectious diseases, and discusses the impact of emerging and re-emerging pathogens on global health.
Recommended Textbook
Microbiology An Evolving Science 3rd Edition by Joan Slonczewski
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Microbial Life: Origin and Discovery
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Sample Questions
Q1) How did Sergei Winogradsky grow lithotrophs?
A) enrichment culture
B) organic media
C) pure culture
D) endosymbiosis
E) chain of infection
Answer: A
Q2) What was the major complaint about Lazzaro Spallanzani's experiment to disprove spontaneous generation, and how did Louis Pasteur's swan-neck flasks overcome this?
Answer: Spallanzani's flasks were plugged so as not to let organisms accidentally enter the boiled medium. Opponents argued that no growth was observed simply due to the lack of oxygen. Pasteur's swan-neck flasks did not allow organisms to enter the flask, but did allow oxygen to enter. Growth was still not observed.
Q3) Define attenuation and describe some mechanisms used to attenuate pathogens.
Answer: Attenuation results in a weakened organism that will not produce full-blown disease, but will generate immunity. Answers for mechanisms may vary. See discussion in textbook, Section 1.3, entitled "Immunization Prevents Disease."
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Observing the Microbial Cell
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Sample Questions
Q1) A(n) __________ acts to vary the diameter of the light column in a light microscope.
A) condenser
B) objective
C) ocular
D) diaphragm
E) lens
Answer: D
Q2) Give a few reasons why living organisms may not be observed by transmission electron microscopy (TEM) or scanning electron microscopy (SEM).
Answer: In TEM, the specimens are fixed and embedded into a polymer for sectioning. The specimen is then stained with heavy metal to increase contrast. In SEM, the entire organism is shadowed with heavy metal prior to observation. Most importantly, however, the entire optical column of the EM must be maintained under vacuum, and a living specimen would be quickly destroyed by an electron beam.
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4
Chapter 3: Cell Structure and Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) A medically important example of active transport is that of drug __________ proteins powered by the hydrogen ion gradient.
A) efflux
B) porin
C) membrane-permeant
D) diffusion
E) lysis
Answer: A
Q2) Efflux pumps send antibiotics such as tetracycline, which binds to the 30S subunit of bacterial ribosomes, out of the bacterial cells, enabling them to grow in the presence of antibiotics. Which of the following therapeutic approaches will be least effective?
A) Switch to an antibiotic that is not a substrate of the efflux pump.
B) Augment the treatment with an efflux inhibitor.
C) Increase the concentration of tetracycline.
D) Augment the treatment with an ATP synthase inhibitor.
E) None of the above approaches will be effective.
Answer: C
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Chapter 4: Bacterial Culture, Growth, and Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements is false about the E. coli phosphotransferase system (PTS)?
A) The Enzyme II complex is specific to the substrates being transported.
B) The substrate is phosphorylated during transport by PTS, making it different from the external substrate; thus, the substrate always travels down its concentration gradient.
C) The phosphate group transferred to the sugar comes from phosphoenolpyruvate.
D) The PTS transport requires energy in the form of ATP.
E) The system has a modular design that accommodates different substrates.
Q2) Describe the differences between batch culture and growth in a chemostat. What are the advantages of a chemostat?
Q3) The time between inoculation and the beginning of growth is usually called the:
A) lag phase
B) early log phase
C) late log phase
D) stationary phase
E) death phase
Q4) How do scientists know of the existence of "unculturable" organisms?
Q5) How does Anabaena overcome the challenge of performing both photosynthesis and nitrogen fixation?
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Chapter 5: Environmental Influences and Control of
Microbial Growth
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Sample Questions
Q1) __________ enzymes are stable in part because they contain relatively low amounts of the amino acid glycine.
A) Psychrophilic
B) Acidophilic
C) Thermophilic
D) Halophilic
E) Barophilic
Q2) A bacterium that thrives in your stomach is probably a(n):
A) thermophile
B) neutrophile
C) alkaliphile
D) acidophile
E) psychrophile
Q3) Which temperature is quickly lethal to any mesophile?
A) its optimum growth temperature
B) its minimum growth temperature
C) its maximum growth temperature
D) refrigeration temperature
E) autoclave temperature
Q4) Describe three mechanisms organisms use to reduce osmotic stress.
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Chapter 6: Viruses
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Q1) If something descended from a common ancestor, it is:
A) monomeric
B) monophyletic
C) monogrammed
D) monosyllabic
E) monolithic
Q2) Why are viruses not affected by antibiotics? Why are there so few antiviral drugs?
Q3) Why was the advent of tissue culture heralded as the end of the "monkey era"? What types of things are we able to do with it?
Q4) How is a plaque assay used to count virions in a solution?
Q5) Virus particles can be observed by standard transmission electron microscopy (TEM), but details of capsid structure require visualization by:
A) phase-contrast microscopy
B) scanning electron microscopy
C) cryo-electron microscopy
D) negative stain
E) bright field microscopy
Q6) How does genome uncoating occur with animal viruses?
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Chapter 7: Genomes and Chromosomes
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Sample Questions
Q1) Pieces of DNA that have been cut with restriction enzymes can then be "grafted" together using the enzyme:
A) DNA gyrase
B) DNA ligase
C) DNA primase
D) RNA polymerase
E) reverse transcriptase
Q2) What determines when DNA replication begins?
Q3) The Sanger method of DNA sequencing involves __________ that bring about chain termination.
A) 2' deoxyribonucleotides
B) 3' deoxyribonucleotides
C) 2', 3' dideoxyribonucleotides
D) 2' deoxyadenosine
E) 3' dideoxyadenosine
Q4) A genome is referred to by its length. If a genome is said to be 5 kb, what does that mean? If it were 5 kb, what would that tell you?
Q5) Humans have an immune system that can distinguish self from nonself. How is the bacterial restriction-modification system similar?
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Chapter 8: Transcription, Translation, and Bioinformatics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a ribozyme?
A) Clp protease
B) release factor
C) trigger factor
D) peptidyl transferase
E) aminoacyl-tRNA transferase
Q2) Molecules of sRNA do not encode proteins, but are used to __________ the translation of specific mRNAs into proteins.
A) start
B) regulate
C) stop
D) speed up
E) slow down
Q3) Signal sequences are found:
A) in the 30S ribosomal subunit
B) in the 50S ribosomal subunit
C) at the N-terminal end of a protein
D) at the C-terminal end of a mRNA
E) upstream of the promoter
Q4) Where is the Shine-Dalgarno sequence located and what is it responsible for?
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Chapter 9: Gene Transfer, Mutations, and Genome
Evolution
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Sample Questions
Q1) A derivative F plasmid that contains host DNA is called an:
A) F plasmid
B) F<sup>+</sup> plasmid
C) F<sup>-</sup> plasmid
D) F' plasmid
E) Hfr plasmid
Q2) Why did Ames modify the test to incorporate treatment of the potential mutagen with rat liver extract?
Q3) When a nonpermissive strain of Salmonella was infected with a P22 phage carrying a tetracycline resistance gene, the Salmonella still became resistant at a high frequency. How did this happen and what suggested this was the case?
Q4) Which of the following is NOT true of a pyrimidine dimer?
A) It can be repaired by photoreactivation.
B) The pyrimidines are base-paired one to another.
C) It is produced by ultraviolet light.
D) It blocks DNA replication.
E) It blocks transcription.
Q5) What is transcription-coupled repair and why is it important for the cell?
Q6) Describe four of the informational classes of mutations.
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Chapter 10: Molecular Regulation
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Q1) Which of the following can be used to study the bacterial proteome?
A) DNA microarrays
B) pyrosequencing
C) two-dimensional gels and mass spectrometry
D) green fluorescent protein
E) networking with nanotubes
Q2) Describe what happens to the lac operon in the presence of both lactose and glucose.
Q3) Transcriptional attenuation is a common regulatory strategy used to control many operons that code for what?
A) amino acid degradation
B) amino acid biosynthesis
C) carbohydrate degradation
D) carbohydrate biosynthesis
E) lipid degradation
Q4) Explain a way that organisms sense and respond to their environment.
Q5) How is repression of biosynthetic pathways different than repression of a catabolic pathway? Why does repression of these two types of pathways work differently?
Q6) Explain how a repressor protein works with respect to a biosynthetic operon.
12
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Chapter 11: Viral Molecular Biology
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Q1) A cell infected with a bacteriophage T4 mutant in tail fiber assembly will accumulate:
A) individual heads and tails
B) heads only
C) tails only
D) heads joined to tails
E) protein subunits for all components
Q2) The pol open reading frame of HIV encodes:
A) reverse transcriptase
B) integrase
C) protease
D) all of the above
E) none of the above
Q3) Hepatitis C virus belongs to the ___________ group.
A) orthomyxoviruses
B) togaviruses
C) flaviviruses
D) coronaviruses
E) filoviruses
Q4) What is meant by early and late genes of phage T4? What do they encode?
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Chapter 12: Bio-techniques and Synthetic Biology
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Q1) How can a single northern blot reveal differences in size and abundance of the E. coli acid resistance gene gadA with respect to the gadBC operon and the inducible expression of these genes at low pH?
Q2) The following is correct regarding operon fusions:
A) They expose both transcriptional and translational controls.
B) Both target and reporter genes have their own promoter sequences.
C) Both target and reporter genes have ribosome-binding sites.
D) Only the reporter gene has a promoter.
E) They produce a single transcript and a single hybrid reporter-target polypeptide.
Q3) Acid-resistant Escherichia coli cells extrude H<sup>+</sup> through the combined action of two proteins: a decarboxylase enzyme and the transporter:
A) H<sup>+</sup> channel
B) [H<sup>+</sup>]-ATPase
C) GABA/glutamate antiporter
D) all of the above
E) none of the above
Q4) How were GadE and GadX demonstrated to be transcription factors for the gadA gene?
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Page 14
Chapter 13: Energetics and Catabolism
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Q1) In an amphibolic pathway, some enzymes:
A) work only in the biosynthetic direction
B) work only in the catabolic direction
C) work in both directions
D) all of the above
E) none of the above
Q2) The enzyme pyruvate kinase catalyzes the conversion of phosphoenolpyruvate to pyruvate; the phosphate group is transferred to ADP to form ATP. This reaction is an example of:
A) ATP synthesis by substrate-level phosphorylation
B) the use of a proton concentration gradient by [H<sup>+</sup>]-ATPases to synthesize ATP
C) ATP coupled to FADH<sub>2</sub> oxidation
D) a P-Type ATPase activity
E) none of the above
Q3) What are the differences among \(\Delta\)G, \(\Delta\)G°, and \(\Delta\)G°'?
Q4) The flavor and other properties of cheeses derive from the type of fermenting microorganisms used. How do the "eyes" and the characteristic flavor of Swiss cheese originate?
Q5) Define the human metagenome. Why is it important to study it?
Page 15
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Chapter 14: Electron Flow in Organotrophy, Lithotrophy, and Phototrophy
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Q1) What is photoheterotrophy? Give examples of photoheterotrophic organisms.
Q2) In anaerobic soils, some yeasts and filamentous fungi can reduce nitrate to nitrite and nitrite to:
A) ammonia (NH<sub>3</sub>)
B) nitric oxide (NO)
C) urea
D) all of the above
E) none of the above
Q3) What is lithotrophy?
A) breakdown of molecules using light energy
B) oxidation of organic electron donors to CO<sub>2</sub> and H<sub>2</sub>O
C) photolysis of H<sub>2</sub>S or H<sub>2</sub>O coupled to CO<sub>2 </sub>fixation
D) oxidation of inorganic electron donors such as Fe<sup>2+</sup> using O<sub>2</sub> or anaerobic electronic acceptors
E) none of the above
Q4) What are methanotrophs? What is their role in the global carbon cycle?
Q5) Describe how an uncoupler functions. Can it be used as an antibiotic to treat bacterial infections?
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Chapter 15: Biosynthesis
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Q1) Which of the following is correct regarding the biosynthesis of purines and pyrimidines?
A) 5-phosphoribosyl-1-pyrophosphate (PRPP) is a precursor to both purines and pyrimidines.
B) The pyrimidine ring is synthesized first, and then linked to 5-phosphoribosyl-1-pyrophosphate.
C) The purine ring is built around the C1 of 5-phosphoribosyl-1-pyrophosphate.
D) All of the above.
E) None of the above.
Q2) Industrial nitrogen fixation is achieved through the Haber process in which:
A) N<sub>2</sub> is reduced catalytically by H<sub>2</sub> at ambient temperature
B) N<sub>2</sub> is hydrogenated by CH<sub>4</sub> at extreme temperature and pressure
C) nitrate and nitrite are chemically converted to NH at ambient temperature
D) all of the above
E) none of the above
Q3) How do ammonium and oxygen regulate the expression of nitrogen fixation genes?
Q4) Describe the dual roles of the arginine repressor in the regulation of intracellular arginine levels.
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Chapter 16: Food and Industrial Microbiology
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Q1) Natto is a fermented Japanese food made primarily from __________ and fermented with __________.
A) cabbage; Leuconostoc
B) soybean; Leuconostoc
C) cabbage; Bacillus
D) soybean; Bacillus
E) cabbage; lactic acid bacteria
Q2) Tempeh is produced by fermentation of soybeans with ________, initially followed by __________.
A) lactic acid bacteria; Aspergillus
B) lactic acid bacteria; Rhizopus
C) Propionibacterium; Aspergillus
D) Propionibacterium; Leuconostoc
E) Propionibacterium; Rhizopus
Q3) Which of the following food products is NOT produced by alkaline fermentation?
A) natto
B) kimchi
C) dawadawa
D) pidan
E) thousand-year eggs
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Chapter 17: Origins and Evolution
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Q1) Calibration of phylogenic trees with respect to time since divergence is based on:
A) fossil and/or geological records
B) the frequency of mutations
C) the number of nodes and branches
D) whether the tree is rooted or unrooted
E) "housekeeping" genes
Q2) The earliest catalytic components present in early life can still be found in which subcellular structure?
A) chromosomes
B) carboxysomes
C) vacuole
D) plasmids
E) ribosomes
Q3) If you performed a \(\delta\)<sup> 13</sup>C isotope analysis on an unknown geological sample and determined a negative \(\delta\)<sup> 13</sup>C % value, would you conclude that life had existed or not in that sample and why?
Q4) Why and how is the small subunit ribosomal RNA (SSU 16S rRNA) used to determine molecular phylogeny?
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Page 19
Chapter 18: Bacterial Diversity
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Q1) In sewage-treatment systems, nitrifiers such as __________ are used to remove toxic ammonia.
A) Neisseria gonorrhoeae and N. meningitidis
B) Thiobacillus spp.
C) Nitrosomonas, Nitrosolobus, and Nitrosovibrio
D) all of the above
E) none of the above
Q2) Bacteria in the genera __________ produce durable endospores that remain viable for millennia.
A) Carboxydothermus and Listeri
B) Lactobacillus and Streptococcus
C) Bacillus and Clostridium
D) all of the above
E) none of the above
Q3) Among the mechanisms to avoid nitrogenase inhibition by oxygen, cyanobacteria:
A) produce organic acids; aerobic heterotrophs consume available oxygen
B) develop heterocysts, thick-walled cells specialized in fixing nitrogen
C) perform photosynthesis by day and nitrogen fixation at night
D) form cell aggregates, favoring nitrogen fixation in the anaerobic interior
E) all of the above
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Chapter 19: Archaeal Diversity
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Q1) If archaea are distinct from bacteria, why is the major haloarchaeal order called Halobacteriales, and why do most contain bacteriorhodopsin?
Q2) Haloarchaea can regulate their buoyancy through the production of:
A) contractile vacuoles
B) pigments
C) salt
D) gas vesicles
E) carbon dioxide
Q3) Compare and contrast the supercoiling in hyperthermophilic archaeal species with bacteria and eukaryotes. What is responsible for this feature and what does it accomplish for these archaea?
Q4) What are "vent polymerases," why are they better than previously used polymerases, and from where are they acquired?
Q5) Which division is the most divergent from the rest?
A) Crenarchaeota
B) Euryarchaeota
C) Thaumarchaeota
D) Ancient Archaeal Group
E) all the above are about the same
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Chapter 20: Eukaryotic Diversity
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Q1) All protists share which trait?
A) the presence of cilia on the cell membrane
B) a nuclear membrane around the cell DNA
C) the presence of mitochondria
D) all of the above
E) none of the above
Q2) The fungus Neocallomastix sp. is found in animal rumens and directly helps with:
A) methanogenesis
B) digestion of tough plant material
C) nutrient absorption through the intestinal wall
D) fermentation processes
E) preventing ulcer formation
Q3) Enterocytozoon bieneusi is an organism classified as a microsporidia; this organism is of clinical importance because it:
A) causes severe allergic reactions in some people
B) causes trypanosomiasis
C) causes ringworm infections
D) is an opportunistic pathogen in immunocompromised individuals
E) infects catheters by producing biofilms
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Page 22
Chapter 21: Microbial Ecology
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Q1) What are endoliths, and what do they feed on inside rocks?
Q2) In which of the following ways do rhizosphere bacteria benefit their host plant?
A) degrade plant lignin
B) attract symbiotic nematodes
C) improve water uptake
D) produce large amounts of photosynthate
E) discourage growth of plant pathogens
Q3) Metagenomics is one of the newer techniques in microbial ecology. It is useful for obtaining data regarding:
A) diversity of microbes within habitats and over time
B) metabolic flux through trophic levels
C) interactions among organisms
D) community gene expression and function
E) ultrastructure of newly discovered bacteria
Q4) The depth of the photic zone in the coastal shelf of marine habitats is:
A) 100-200 m
B) 10-20 m
C) about 1 m
D) about 0.1 m
E) about 2 m
23
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Chapter 22: Microbes in Global Elemental Cycles
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Q1) Describe the difference between a source, sink, and reservoir of an element.
Q2) Household septic systems include a tank that collects sludge and a porous leaching field that receives clarified effluent. How is this similar to or different from municipal wastewater treatment plants?
Q3) Which of the following is assimilated almost entirely in the oxidized state?
A) sulfur
B) nitrogen
C) phosphate
D) carbon
E) none of the above
Q4) Which reservoir of carbon, nitrogen, and sulfur has the highest rate of cycling? Why is this so?
Q5) Much of the carbon and nitrogen in wetlands is cycled by:
A) aerobic respiration
B) plants and aerobic heterotrophs
C) wild fire
D) anaerobic bacteria and archaea such as methanogens
E) cyanobacteria and phototrophs
Q6) Describe the wetland system set up by a hog farmer to treat his hog-farm waste.
Q7) Discuss the impact of deforestation on atmospheric carbon dioxide levels.
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Chapter 23: Human Microbiota and Innate Immunity
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Q1) A man has been taking excessive amounts of antacids for heartburn. These tablets are very alkaline. Which innate defense mechanism might be altered by his actions?
A) mucociliary elevator
B) lysozyme
C) pH of stomach
D) flushing action of urine
E) skin pH
Q2) Which the following creates a channel in target cell membranes?
A) complement
B) defensins
C) natural killer cells
D) A and B
E) all of the above
Q3) A bacterium can live inside a phagocyte by preventing:
A) complement activation
B) interferon production
C) defensin production
D) fusion of the phagosome with a lysosome
E) inflammation
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Chapter 24: The Adaptive Immune Response
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Q1) An activated T<sub>C</sub> cell trying to kill off influenza infection in the lungs would:
A) release pro-inflammatory cytokines throughout the entire lung
B) produce monoclonal anti-influenza antibodies
C) activate B cells to make influenza-specific plasma cells
D) bind to the infected host cells, then release perforin and granzymes
E) travel to the thymus and undergo positive selection
Q2) A baby will receive antibodies from its mother before birth through the umbilical cord, and then through the breast milk after birth. What classes of antibodies will it receive, respectively?
A) IgG and IgA
B) IgM and IgD
C) IgG and IgM
D) IgM and IgA
E) IgE and IgG
Q3) Some patients suffering from bare lymphocyte syndrome (BLS), a rare immunodeficiency, have a genetic mutation in their TAP1/TAP2 genes causing the production of a defective TAP transporter. Describe what effect this has on antigen processing and in what cells.
Q4) Why are antihistamines good for allergic rhinitis, but NOT for atopic asthma?
Page 26
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Chapter 25: Microbial Pathogenesis
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Q1) Type III and type I pili:
A) are similar to type IV in mode of secretion
B) are both mannose-resistant
C) both have an assembly that involves the secA general secretory pathway
D) are encoded by a pathogenicity island
E) are exclusively used for pathogenesis
Q2) Which of the following statements is NOT correct about a patient who died from endotoxin pathologies?
A) Disseminated intravascular coagulation may have contributed to death.
B) The methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus, or MRSA, superbug is a likely suspect.
C) The patient may have died from hypotension.
D) The patient may not have run a fever if AIDS was present.
E) The lipid A in the endotoxin is responsible for the virulence.
Q3) Which of the following statements is NOT correct about disease reservoirs?
A) Reservoirs are mammals or birds, but not insects.
B) A vector can be the reservoir of a disease.
C) A reservoir is an integral part of the disease cycle.
D) Disease-control measures must consider the biological reservoir.
E) A reservoir is ultimately the source of infection in a population.
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Chapter 26: Microbial Diseases
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Q1) The major challenge with treating flesh-eating disease caused by Streptococcus pyogenes is that:
A) the bacterium is a multidrug-resistant pathogen
B) no antibiotic is useful, because it's a mixed infection
C) toxin-encoding phage also encode antibiotic degrading enzymes
D) the causative agent is a MRSA
E) rapid necrosis of infected tissue limits treatment access
Q2) Explain how Clostridium botulinum, an obligate anaerobe, secretes its potent toxins in food.
Q3) The presence of leukocytes in a fecal smear would best indicate which type of infection?
A) hepatitis B
B) varicella
C) enteroinvasive
D) meningococcal
E) tuberculosis
Q4) Why is reinfection with Neisseria gonorrhoeae possible?
Q5) Giardia causes more diarrhea than any other protozoan globally. Describe the reasons for its success in causing disease.
Page 28
Q6) What is a multivalent vaccine? Give examples.
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Chapter 27: Antimicrobial Therapy
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Q1) Which of the following statements about the Kirby-Bauer assay is true?
A)It is used to test multiple bacteria simultaneously on a single plate.
B)It uses serial dilutions of specific antibiotics to determine MIC.
C)Zones of inhibition that are smaller are better antibiotics than antibiotics that form larger zones.
D)It can test up to 12 different antibiotic disks at one time.
E)It cannot be correlated with in vivo tissue concentrations.
Q2) A drug designed to poke holes into the plasma membrane of a Pseudomonas aeruginosa bacteria would best be considered:
A) bactericidal
B) microbe-sensitive
C) semiselective
D) bacteriostatic
E) bacteriocompetent
Q3) Describe the mechanism by which the influenza virus enters OR exits a host cell and one potential drug target that is being used to prevent infection.
Q4) Why are bacteria that create biofilms so hard to destroy or clear by antibiotics or the immune system? What discoveries are being made to combat biofilm infections?
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Chapter 28: Clinical Microbiology and Epidemiology
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Q1) How can reverse transcriptase PCR (RT-PCR) be used to determine the presence and viral load of HIV infection?
Q2) A defining commonality between biosafety risk group II handling techniques and a biosafety IV facility would be the need for:
A) a personal positive-pressure suit
B) an isolation facility
C) a negative-pressurized lab space
D) directional air flow in room
E) the use of aseptic techniques
Q3) How have changes within our human culture caused new diseases to emerge? Explain your answer using a specific example that supports your statements.
Q4) Compare and contrast the dichotomous key approach to bacterial determination with the seven-digit-number approach when using the API strip system.
Q5) Compare and contrast the handling of rabies (a category III organism) with Lassa fever (a category IV organism).
Q6) Compare and contrast the use of the serum antibody ELISA with the antigen-capture ELISA in the detection of Ebola.
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Page 30
Chapter 29: What Do Winning Organizations Do Well
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Q1) Marketing is not influential in corporate decisions when cost reduction and labour productivity are top-management priorities.
A)True
B)False
Q2) In order to develop an offer that resonates with the customer and differentiates the company's position in the marketplace, marketers must look at
A) cross-functional alignment.
B) sales training and execution.
C) the marketing mix.
D) the product mix.
E) the marketing communications strategy.
Q3) The very first step in the marketing process is to understand customer needs.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Define the term "marketing strategy" and provide an example.
Q5) Having the store go to the mechanic is an example of Snap-on Tools' channel strategy.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 30: Understanding Customer Needs
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Q1) When the sales department drops prices to secure a contract, while the marketing function is trying to build the brand and maintain price premiums, the brand is
A) more competitive.
B) using a pull strategy.
C) using a push strategy.
D) devalued in the marketplace.
E) number one in the marketplace.
Q2) How do companies co-create value with the customer, and which medium is helping to facilitate this?
Q3) Unlike qualitative research methods, survey research is used to collect data from A) a small group of customers
B) a large sample of respondents
C) focus group participants
D) depth interview participants
E) researchers who become the customer
Q4) List the advantages of secondary research.
Q5) How did Starbucks decommoditize the coffee industry and broaden its appeal to customers?
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Chapter 31: Choosing Which Customers to Serve
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Q1) To overcome the limitations of demographics as a segmentation variable, researchers turned to geographic segmentation.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The Body Shop gained a competitive advantage in combining profits with ethics when its segmentation efforts uncovered
A) an emerging segment.
B) a customer need.
C) a changing segment.
D) the largest segment.
E) a product segment.
Q3) Market segmentation has a profound impact on
A) the rest of the organization.
B) competitive activity.
C) emerging markets.
D) new product development.
E) the size of the target group.
Q4) Market segmentation is a pillar of any business' success or failure. A)True
B)False
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Chapter 32: Developing a Strong Marketing Plan
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Q1) In order to respond to opportunities and threats that have been identified, a business has to look at its
A) strengths and weaknesses.
B) marketing strategies.
C) marketing-sales linkages.
D) objectives.
E) customer needs.
Q2) If Disney wants to develop a new market for participatory vacations, it will need to develop _____________ as specific guidelines.
A) a list of strengths
B) a list of weaknesses
C) a list of opportunities
D) a list of threats
E) a set of objectives
Q3) The section of the marketing plan that addresses technological factors is the
A) market analysis.
B) competitor analysis.
C) customer analysis.
D) marketing--sales linkage.
E) marketing plan control.
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Chapter 33: Product and Brand Strategies
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Q1) Companies should think of themselves as North American with international operations, rather than take the mindset of a truly global company.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Nike's athletic shoes provide its customers with the ability to be their best, regardless of what level of athlete they are. This is an example of its A) core product.
B) functional product.
C) augmented product.
D) potential product.
E) product attributes.
Q3) The set of associations the marketing strategist wants to create or maintain in the minds of customers is known as the A) brand identity.
B) product life cycle.
C) customer segmentation strategy.
D) product concept.
E) functional strategy.
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Chapter 34: Pricing Strategies
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Q1) There is a strong possibility that your brand image could be hurt if you drop your price.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Most managers fail to grasp that there is a strong correlation between price and A) product innovation.
B) product distribution.
C) brand equity.
D) brand image.
E) marketing strategy.
Q3) Strong, differentiated brands command A) price premiums.
B) large advertising budgets.
C) national distribution.
D) a strong sales force.
E) an emphasis on product development.
Q4) The costs that actually determine the profit impact of the pricing decision are the incremental costs.
A)True
B)False
Page 36
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Chapter 35: Channel Strategies
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Q1) The first step in channel design is to realistically define a set of channels.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Given its low cost, the internet is always a great channel to reach customers.
A)True
B)False
Q3) One of the benefits of Dell's direct channel model is that it allows
A) Dell to receive payment after the product is shipped.
B) for just-in-time inventory management.
C) for face-to-face selling.
D) for a positive cash conversion cycle.
E) Dell to stockpile parts for its computers.
Q4) Nokia is taking on Apple's iPhone not by making changes to its core product, but by focusing on the
A) functional product.
B) augmented product.
C) potential product.
D) advertising strategy.
E) media strategy.
Q5) What is examined when calculating channel economics?
Page 37
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Chapter 36: Marketing Communications Strategies
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Q1) The percentage of mass-marketed ads actively ignored on television ranges from 4.8% for beer to 45% for fast food.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Trade shows are used to
A) generate revenue.
B) generate new customer leads.
C) keep in touch with current market trends.
D) overcome customer resistance.
E) support community involvement.
Q3) The right encoding mechanism for the message
A) suits the needs of the target.
B) has a broad appeal.
C) is the least expensive channel.
D) is mass media.
E) focuses on short-term promotions.
Q4) To be truly effective, communication should be a continuous activity. Explain this statement.
Q5) List and briefly describe the five steps for developing winning marketing communications.
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Chapter 37: Delivering Customer Value
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Q1) One of the roles of sales is to measure customer satisfaction.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Although marketing and sales thought worlds are different, an organization suffers when
A) marketing and sales are aligned.
B) the focus is on the customer.
C) the two functions work together.
D) only one skill set is emphasized.
E) sales and marketing are considered equally important.
Q3) Recognizing that its sales and marketing functions were not aligned, IBM introduced a new function called channel enablement. This function's role was to
A) conduct marketing research.
B) execute sales strategies.
C) track competitive activity.
D) mediate conflicts between sales and marketing.
E) focus everyone's attention on the customer.
Q4) How is the sales function responsible for creating value for the customer?
Q5) What is examined in a sales review?
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Chapter 38: Building a Customer-Focused Business
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Q1) McDonald's was the first organization in its industry to offer breakfast. By offering the customer a range of meal options, it wants to
A) introduce new products.
B) access new channels.
C) capture an increasing portion of the customer's wallet.
D) increase profitability per product.
E) increase market share by product.
Q2) The organizational focus of a product-centric company is A) external.
B) internal.
C) relationship oriented.
D) based on customer satisfaction.
E) on its portfolio of customers.
Q3) The organizational structure of a customer-centric company includes customer segment centres, customer relationship managers, and customer segment sales teams. A)True B)False
Q4) List the four key building blocks of building a customer-focused business.
Q5) List three of the common traps to avoid in building a customer-focused business.
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Chapter 39: Customer Attraction, Satisfaction, and Retention Strategies
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Q1) Customers classified as at risk represent
A) loyal customers who have been swayed by competitors.
B) low-margin customers, therefore unattractive customers.
C) high-cost, price-sensitive customers.
D) an opportunity to bring immediate payback.
E) customers at the last stage of the product life cycle.
Q2) Using social media, customers can instantly communicate with the world about problems with a brand.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The final step of sustaining improvement is the most important step in developing customer loyalty.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A typical customer satisfaction survey measures a customer's intention to repurchase from the firm.
A)True
B)False
Page 41
Q5) Describe three different types of usage occasions on the web.
Q6) Describe the segmentation approach required for customers on the web.
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Chapter 40: Building the Marketing Organization of the Future
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Q1) A prime marketing role is to drive activity in technological research and development.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The purchasing funnel acknowledges that while customers have a problem to solve, they are
A) loyal to a competitor's product.
B) loyal to your brand.
C) initially unaware of your product.
D) price-sensitive.
E) price-insensitive.
Q3) Marketing can track return on investment (ROI) by instituting A) metrics.
B) objectives.
C) a budget.
D) marketing research.
E) financial planning.
Q4) Which factors force reductions in marketing spending and accelerate the transfer of funds and responsibilities to the field sales organization?
Page 43
Q5) Discuss how Bata has placed an emphasis on corporate sustainability.
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