Pathogenic Microbiology Practice Exam
Course Introduction
Pathogenic Microbiology explores the biology, genetics, and mechanisms of disease-causing microorganisms, including bacteria, viruses, fungi, and parasites. The course focuses on understanding microbial pathogenesis, host-pathogen interactions, and the immune response, as well as the epidemiology, diagnosis, prevention, and control of infectious diseases. Students will gain insight into virulence factors, antimicrobial resistance, and modern techniques in pathogen identification, preparing them for advanced study or careers in health sciences, research, or public health.
Recommended Textbook
Microbiology for the Healthcare Professional 2nd Edition by VanMeter
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Chapter 1: Scope of Microbiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) The taxonomic resource for information on bacteria is __________.
Answer: Bergey's Manual of Systematic Bacteriology
Q2) Which of the following sites of the human body does not have a normal flora?
A)Intestine
B)Skin
C)Vagina
D)Blood
Answer: D
Q3) Fossils of prokaryotes go back __________ billion years.
A)4.0 to 5.0
B)3.5 to 4.0
C)2.5 to 3.0
D)2.2 to 2.7
Answer: B
Q4) Cells that contain a nucleus are __________ cells. Answer: eukaryotic
Q5) A relationship in which two organisms benefit is referred to as __________. Answer: mutualism
Q6) Another term for spontaneous generation is __________.
Answer: abiogenesis
Page 3
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Chapter 2: Chemistry of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) A positively charged ion is a(n)__________. Answer: cation
Q2) Cytosine always undergoes complementary base pairing with A)adenine.
B)guanine.
C)thymine.
D)uracil.
Answer: B
Q3) The formation of polymers from simpler substances is referred to as __________. Answer: synthesis
Q4) Molecules that can absorb hydrogen ions and not change the pH of the substance are __________.
Answer: buffers
Q5) Sucrose is composed of A)glucose and galactose. B)glucose and fructose.
C)fructose and maltose.
D)glucose and maltose.
Answer: B
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Chapter 3: Cell Structure and Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) The fluidlike portion of a cell is referred to as A)inclusion.
B)cytoplasm.
C)cytosol.
D)nucleoplasm.
Answer: C
Q2) Binary fission is a form of reproduction used by A)viruses.
B)bacteria.
C)fungi.
D)helminths.
Answer: B
Q3) Stroma is a component of A)mitochondria.
B)chloroplasts.
C)lysosomes.
D)peroxisomes.
Answer: B
Q4) Cells without a nucleus are __________ cells. Answer: prokaryotic
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Chapter 4: Bacteria and Archaea
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Q1) The time required for doubling of the population is called the________________ .
Q2) Comma-shaped rods
A)Psychrotrophs
B)Thermophiles
C)Chemoautotrophs
D)Chemoheterotrophs
E)Sarcinae
F)Tetrads
G)Vibrios
H)Spirillium
I)Cocci
Q3) Which of the following is a host-dependent bacterium?
A)Mycoplasma
B)Ureaplasma
C)Rickettsia
D)Micrococcus
Q4) Rhizobium is an organism typically used in the field of __________.
Q5) Microorganisms that grow only in the presence of oxygen are called __________.
Q6) Methanogens are __________ that grow in anaerobic environments such as swamps.
6
Q7) Staphylococci are _______________ facultative anaerobes.
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Chapter 5: Viruses
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Q1) Capsids forming multifaced structures having 20 triangular faces are called __________.
Q2) Viral capsomeres are composed of subunits called
A)envelopes.
B)protomeres.
C)capsids.
D)nucleoids.
Q3) Kaposi's sarcoma is caused by human herpesvirus number __________.
Q4) Epstein-Barr virus
A)Polyarthritis
B)Plantar warts
C)Chickenpox
D)Common cold
E)Infectious mononucleosis
F)Gastroenteritis
G)Hemorrhagic fever
Q5) Picornaviridae are __________ viruses.
Q6) The stage of viral multiplication during which the virus attaches to the host cell is called __________.
Q7) A virus that infects bacteria is referred to as a __________.
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Chapter 6: Eukaryotic Microorganisms
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Sample Questions
Q1) The protozoan that lacks a cyst stage and therefore must be transferred quickly from host to host is
A)Giardia lamblia.
B)Trichomonas vaginalis.
C)Balantidium coli.
D)Entamoeba histolytica.
Q2) The vegetative structure of algae is referred to as a __________.
Q3) The mold responsible for the production of penicillin belongs to the subgroup of A)Basidiomycota.
B)Ascomycota.
C)Zygomycota.
D)Deuteromycota.
Q4) Fungi that help the roots of plants to absorb minerals and water from the soil are A)decomposers.
B)mycorrhizae.
C)yeasts.
D)molds.
Q5) The study of fungi is called __________.
Q6) Trematodes are commonly called __________.
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Chapter 7: Physical and Chemical Methods of Control
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Sample Questions
Q1) Halogen
A)Iodine
B)Triclosan
C)Aldehydes
D)Quaternary compounds
E)Damage to DNA
F)Mercury
G)Osmotic pressure
H)Penicillin
Q2) The destruction of vegetative organisms by chemical or physical methods is called __________.
Q3) The cleaning of glassware and tableware in restaurants falls into the category of A)degermation.
B)sterilization.
C)disinfection.
D)sanitization.
Q4) The lowest temperature by which all microorganisms in a particular liquid will be killed within 10 minutes is the __________.
Q5) Agents that kill microbes are classified as __________.
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Chapter 8: Microbiological Laboratory Techniques
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Sample Questions
Q1) A saucer-shaped liquefaction in a gelatin stab is referred to as
A)napiform.
B)saccate.
C)crateriform.
D)stratiform.
Q2) Bacteria that show variation in cellular size and shape as a result of environmental conditions or age of the organisms are referred to as __________ bacteria.
Q3) Which of the following is considered to be a macronutrient for microorganisms?
A)Folic acid
B)Nitrogen
C)Copper
D)Riboflavin
Q4) Which of the following microorganisms can be cultured only in the footpads of mice or a species of armadillo?
A)Mycobacterium tuberculosis
B)Mycobacterium leprae
C)Neisseria gonorrhoeae
D)Mycoplasma
Q5) Bacteria that appear red after gram staining are said to be gram-__________.
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Chapter 9: Microbiological Laboratory Safety Issues
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Sample Questions
Q1) Hand-washing guidelines have been established by A)OSHA.
B)CDC.
C)NIAD.
D)WHO.
Q2) Fires from flammable metals require type __________ fire extinguishers.
A)A
B)B
C)C
D)D
Q3) Proprietary name of drugs
A)Chemical name
B)Structural formula
C)Synonyms
D)Trade name
E)CAS number
F)RTECS number
G)DOT ID number
Q4) A form that contains data regarding the properties of a particular substance is the __________ form.
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Chapter 10: Pharmacology
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Sample Questions
Q1) The branch of pharmacology that addresses drug amounts at various sites in the body after drug administration is called
A)pharmacodynamics.
B)pharmacokinetics.
C)pharmacotherapeutics.
D)pharmacy.
Q2) Drugs and substances with a high probability for abuse with no therapeutic use and a lack of safety controls are classified as Schedule __________.
Q3) The federal agency that approves the use of a specific drug is the __________.
Q4) The discipline addressing issues associated with the choice and application of drugs to be used for disease prevention,treatment,and/or diagnosis is
A)pharmacotherapeutics.
B)toxicology.
C)pharmacokinetics.
D)pharmacy.
Q5) The study of the body's response to poisons and their harmful effect is referred to as
Q6) The body's metabolism of drugs is called __________.
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Chapter 11: Antimicrobial Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) Isoniazid
A)Vancor
B)Vancocin
C)Sansac
D)Cipro
E)Dalacin
F)Rofact
G)Nydrazid
H)Etibi
Q2) Prontosil,a dye,was first used as an antibiotic by
A)Pasteur.
B)Domagk.
C)Bovet.
D)Fleming.
Q3) Another term for the effectiveness of a drug is __________.
Q4) An ideal antimicrobial drug will kill harmful microbes without significant damage to the host.This principle is referred to as __________.
Q5) The range of pathogen type that a given drug is effective against is referred to as the drug's __________.
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Chapter 12: Infection and Disease
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Sample Questions
Q1) A flora found in the same location as resident flora but that remains only for a given amount of time is called a __________ flora.
Q2) An organism that does not normally cause disease in a healthy individual but that can cause disease when there is an imbalance in the normal flora or when the host becomes immunocompromised is called a(n)__________ pathogen.
Q3) Animals,usually arthropods,that carry pathogens from one host to another are called __________.
Q4) All of the following areas of the human body contain normal flora except
A)Peritoneum
B)Urethra
C)Vagina
D)Mouth
Q5) The presence of microbes in or on the body is a(n)
A)infection.
B)disease.
C)contamination.
D)adhesion.
Q6) A worldwide epidemic is considered a(n)__________ disease.
Q7) A microorganism capable of causing disease is called a(n)__________.
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Chapter 13: The Immune Response and Lymphatic System
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Sample Questions
Q1) GALT is an example of a collection of lymphatic nodules in the A)respiratory tract.
B)small intestine.
C)stomach.
D)female reproductive system.
Q2) The category of immunoglobulins that can also be found in colostrum and mother's milk is
A)IgG.
B)IgA.
C)IgD.
D)IgE.
Q3) Which of the following provide defense against viral infections?
A)Histamines
B)Antibiotics
C)Prostaglandins
D)Interferons
Q4) The body's decreased ability to fight infections is called __________.
Q5) Delayed hypersensitivity is a result of ___________.
Q6) Enzymes that attack the peptidoglycan layer of bacteria and are present in perspiration,nasal secretions,saliva,and tears are __________.
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Chapter
Tissue, and Musculoskeletal System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The papillary layer of the skin is part of the A)epidermis.
B)dermis.
C)hypodermis.
D)subcutaneous layer.
Q2) A chronic localized subcutaneous infection characterized by verrucoid lesions on the skin is
A)candidiasis.
B)leprosy.
C)shingles.
D)chromoblastomycosis.
Q3) Chickenpox and shingles are caused by the __________ virus.
Q4) Variola virus of the orthopoxvirus family causes the acute,highly contagious disease A)shingles.
B)smallpox.
C)jock itch.
D)ringworm.
Q5) Leprosy is also known as ____________________________.
Q6) Fungal infections of the skin are referred to as __________.
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Chapter 15: Infections of the Respiratory System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Strep throat is caused by which of the following organisms?
A)Streptococcus pyogenes
B)Streptococcus pneumoniae
C)Streptococcus agalactiae
D)Streptococcus faecalis
Q2) Influenza is caused by two species of __________.
Q3) __________ is a gram-negative coccobacillus and a common cause of bronchiolitis in children,bronchitis in adults,and occasionally meningitis.
Q4) Legionella pneumophila is a gram-negative bacillus that causes disease occurring in two distinct forms: __________ and __________.
Q5) Parrot fever is caused by __________.
Q6) Which of the following geographic areas contains reservoirs for Coccidioides immitis?
A)France
B)South Africa
C)Arizona
D)Iowa
Q7) Streptococcus pneumoniae is a gram-__________ bacterium.
Q8) SARS stands for __________.
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Chapter 16: Infections of the Gastrointestinal System
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Sample Questions
Q1) "Rice water stool" is a characteristic symptom of the disease __________.
Q2) The human pinworm Enterobius vermicularis lives in the __________ of humans.
A)duodenum
B)ileum
C)transverse colon
D)rectum
Q3) Giardiasis is a waterborne gastrointestinal disease caused by Giardia intestinalis,which is a A)protozoan.
B)bacterium.
C)fungus.
D)virus.
Q4) __________ is the largest protozoan parasite of humans.
Q5) (+)ssRNA viruses that have been isolated from birds,cats,dogs,pigs,sheep,cows,and humans and are a major cause of gastroenteritis are the A)rotaviruses.
B)caliciviruses.
C)adenoviruses.
D)noroviruses.
Q6) Staphylococcal intoxication is caused by Staphylococcus __________.
Page 18
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Chapter 17: Infections of the Nervous System and Sensory
Structures
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Sample Questions
Q1) In bacterial meningitis,some antibiotics are prevented from reaching the infection due to
A)chemical degradation of the antibiotic.
B)blood-brain barrier.
C)scar tissue formation.
D)degradation of local blood vessels.
Q2) One of the first signs of the onset of tetanus is trismus,also referred to as
Q3) Pneumococcal meningitis is caused by __________.
Q4) The first oral polio vaccine was introduced by Albert Sabin in A)1934.
B)1952.
C)1959. D)1961.
Q5) The toxin produced by the bacterium Clostridium botulinum is classified as a __________.
Q6) At present,the leading causes of bacterial meningitis are __________ and
.
. Page 19
Q7) The nervous system is divided into two components: the __________ and the
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Chapter 18: Infections of the Cardiovascular and Circulatory System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Rocky Mountain spotted fever is caused by
A)Borrelia burgdorferi.
B)Rickettsia rickettsii.
C)Rickettsia prowazekii.
D)Ehrlichia chaffeensis.
Q2) The toxic condition caused by the spread of bacteria or bacterial toxins from the site of infection is called __________.
Q3) Yersinia pestis
A)Plague
B)Rat-bite fever
C)Severe malaria
D)Lyme disease
E)VHF
F)Leprosy
G)Common cold
Q4) Animals that are capable of transmitting infectious disease are called A)vectors.
B)pathogens.
C)carriers.
D)parasites.
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Chapter 19: Infections of the Urinary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The primary bacterium responsible for most UTIs is
A)Staphylococcus aureus.
B)Bacillus subtilis.
C)Lactobacillus acidophilus.
D)Escherichia coli.
Q2) Urethritis
A)Staphylococcus epidermidis
B)Polyomaviruses JC and BK
C)Mycoplasma
D)Adenovirus
E)Pseudomonas aeruginosa
F)Leptospira
G)Trichomonas
Q3) The following are typical symptoms of a UTI
A)Vomiting, blood in the urine
B)Painful urination, cloudy urine
C)Swollen abdomen, rapid heart rate
D)Painful bowel movements, tightness in chest
Q4) For patients with a catheter,the best measures to prevent a UTI are frequent cleaning and __________.
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Chapter 20: Infections of the Reproductive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) In cases of endometritis,the two bacteria most often responsible for the infection are __________ and __________ .
Q2) The most common bacterial nonsexually transmitted infection of the male reproductive system is A)cystitis.
B)prostatitis.
C)mastitis.
D)nephritis.
Q3) The organism that is responsible for the vast majority of cases of fungal vaginitis is A)Escherichia coli.
B)Streptococcus agalactiae.
C)Klebsiella oxytoca.
D)Candida albicans.
Q4) Vaginal infections that are resulting from an overgrowth of normal flora are called A)endogenous infections.
B)chronic infections.
C)iatrogenic infections.
D)fatal infections.
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Chapter 21: Sexually Transmitted Infectionsdiseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is NOT true for STDs?
A)STDs are an unending epidemic in the U.S.
B)All viral STIs can be prevented by vaccination.
C)There are currently about 20 million new cases reported to the CDC annually.
D)Many STDs are undiagnosed.
Q2) Typically the first step in testing for the presence of HIV antibodies in a blood sample is the __________.
Q3) The only STI transmitted by a protozoan is __________.
Q4) Syphilis is caused by the microorganism __________ and the disease occurs in __________ stages.
Q5) _______________________ is the most reported STI in the United States.
Q6) The causative agent for chancroid is
A)Neisseria gonorrhoeae.
B)Treponema pallidum.
C)Ureaplasma urealyticum.
D)Haemophilus ducreyi.
Q7) HIV is the abbreviation for __________.
Q8) The bacteria typically responsible for causing nongonococcal urethritis (NGU)are __________, __________,and __________.
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Chapter 22: Human Age and Microorganisms
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Q1) The most critical time of infection with the rubella virus during pregnancy is during the __________ trimester of pregnancy.
Q2) Infectious diseases in the adult population are responsible for about one third of all deaths in individuals over the age of
A)50 years.
B)55 years.
C)60 years.
D)65 years.
Q3) The decline in functioning of the immune system during aging is referred to as
.
Q4) Most common form of impetigo in infants
A)Congenital toxoplasmosis
B)Micrococcus
C)Cytomegalovirus
D)Staphylococcus aureus
E)Neisseria
F)Congenital rubella
G)Streptococcus
Q5) Chickenpox is caused by the __________ virus.
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Chapter 23: Microorganisms in the Environment and Effects on
Human Health
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Q1) Brucellosis is a Category __________ disease.
Q2) EPA stands for __________.
Q3) The bacterial genus Rhizobium is involved primarily in the __________ cycle.
Q4) The physical location where organisms are found is called a(n)__________.
Q5) A region or regions of the earth populated by living organisms is/are referred to as the __________.
Q6) Symbiotic nitrogen-fixing
A)Biomass
B)Eutrophication
C)Denitrification
D)Thiobacillus
E)Yersinia
F)Biodiversity
G)Rhizobium
Q7) Specific small niches in which populations and guilds within a community reside are referred to as
A)habitats.
B)biospheres.
C)ecosystems.
D)microhabitats.
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Chapter 24: Emerging Infectious Diseases
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Q1) Which of the following infectious diseases is considered to be a reemerging disease?
A)AIDS
B)Ebola
C)West Nile virus
D)Tuberculosis
Q2) Which of the following organisms belongs in the group I category?
A)Francisella tularensis
B)Clostridium difficile
C)Helicobacter pylori
D)Bacillus anthracis
Q3) Group II category diseases as established by the NIAID include A)new foodborne pathogens.
B)diseases considered eradicated.
C)diseases used specifically as bioterrorism agents.
D)reemerging diseases.
Q4) Small changes in the viral coat that happen over time are referred to as antigenic
Q5) "Fifth disease" is caused by __________.
Q6) The Hendra virus is transmitted by __________.
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Chapter 25: Biotechnology
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Q1) The "workhorse" in genetic engineering
A)cDNA
B)Eukaryotic genes
C)Prokaryotic genes
D)Escherichia coli
E)Transformation
F)DNA ligase
G)Staphylococcus aureus
H)Hemophilia
Q2) When a single bacterium can produce millions of identical cells,the population is called a(n)__________.
Q3) The hormone produced by the kidney to stimulate stem cells of the bone marrow to mature into red blood cells is __________.
Q4) Which of the following is a true statement about recombinant DNA technology?
A)It is a single technique for genetic manipulation.
B)It involves the modification of an organism's genome.
C)It will replace biotechnology in the future.
D)It manipulates only the genotype.
Q5) Enzymes that can cleave DNA at a particular site are __________.
Q6) Recombinant DNA technology is also referred to as __________.
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