Pathogenic Microbiology Mock Exam - 1136 Verified Questions

Pathogenic Microbiology

Mock Exam

Course Introduction

Pathogenic Microbiology explores the biology, genetics, and mechanisms of disease-causing microorganisms, including bacteria, viruses, fungi, and parasites. The course covers pathogen structure, physiology, host-pathogen interactions, virulence factors, modes of transmission, and the molecular basis of microbial pathogenicity.

Students will also examine epidemiology, immune responses to infection, laboratory diagnostics, and current strategies for prevention and control of infectious diseases. Through case studies and laboratory work, learners gain hands-on experience and develop a comprehensive understanding of the challenges and advancements in combating microbial pathogens.

Recommended Textbook

Bailey Scotts Diagnostic Microbiology 13th Edition by Patricia Tille

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Chapter 1: Microbial Taxonomy

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Sample Questions

Q1) Taxonomy can be described as a system that:

A) classifies, names, and identifies microorganisms in a consistent manner.

B) classifies microorganisms, based on their genetic makeup.

C) classifies microorganisms, based on their phenotypic makeup.

D) classifies microorganisms, based on their cellular and colonial traits.

Answer: A

Q2) Which binomial name is correctly written?

A) Staphylococcus Aureus

B) staphylococcus aureus

C) Staphylococcus aureus

D) Staphylococcus aureus.

Answer: C

Q3) The use of a double genus in a microorganism's label, such as Burkholderia (Pseudomonas), indicates that the bacterium:

A) does not fit well in either group but has some characteristics of both groups.

B) is a genetic cross between the two groups.

C) has been moved from one genus (Pseudomonas) to another genus (Burkholderia).

D) has been moved from one genus (Burkholderia) to another genus (Pseudomonas).

Answer: C

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Chapter 2: Bacterial Genetics, Metabolism, and Structure

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Q1) Amino acids, fatty acids, sugars, and nucleotides are produced during which metabolic reaction?

A) Fueling

B) Biosynthesis

C) Polymerization

D) Assembly

Answer: B

Q2) Which organelle is found in eukaryotic cells and is responsible for controlled enzymatic degradation of intracellular substances?

A) Mitochondria

B) Lysosomes

C) Endoplasmic reticulum

D) Golgi body

Answer: B

Q3) All genes within an organism make up that organism's:

A) chromosomes.

B) genome.

C) nucleotides.

D) DNA.

Answer: B

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Chapter 3: Host-Microorganism Interactions

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Q1) Infectious processes that quickly develop are referred to as _________ infections. A) chronic

B) latent

C) acute

D) nosocomial

Answer: C

Q2) IgE is the:

A) first antibody produced when an invading microorganism is initially encountered.

B) antibody that is associated with various parasitic infections.

C) antibody that is secreted in various body fluids and primarily protects those body surfaces lined with mucous membranes.

D) second antibody produced when an invading microorganism is initially encountered and the most abundant.

Answer: B

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Chapter 4: Laboratory Safety

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Q1) The agency that requires health care facilities to provide employees with all devices and mechanisms necessary to protect them from the hazards encountered in the laboratory is:

A) Department of Health and Environmental Control (DHEC).

B) Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA).

C) Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC).

D) Health Emergency Planning Advisor (HEPA).

Q2) To be sterilized in an autoclave, media or instruments should be:

A) packed tightly to avoid dangerous pressure pockets.

B) processed for 15 minutes at 121° C and 15 psi pressure.

C) processed for 30 to 60 minutes at 132° C and 15 psi pressure.

D) processed for at least 1 hour at 121° C and 15 psi pressure.

Q3) The agency that has published a guide to hazardous waste reduction is:

A) DHEC.

B) OSHA.

C) CDC.

D) U.S. Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).

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Chapter 5: Specimen Management

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Q1) Which type of media is designed to support the growth of one group of organisms, but not another, by containing antimicrobials, dyes, or alcohol?

A) Selective

B) Nutritive

C) Differential

D) Definitive

Q2) Colonies of Streptococcus pneumoniae appear alpha-hemolytic on blood agar media.Which one of the following statements explains this discrepancy?

A) The lot of blood agar may be expired.

B) Something may be wrong with the strain of S. pneumoniae since it should be beta-hemolytic on blood agar.

C) Something may be wrong with the strain of S. pneumoniae; it should be gamma-hemolytic on blood agar.

D) No discrepancy is present. S. pneumoniae should be alpha-hemolytic on blood agar.

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Chapter 6: Role of Microscopy

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Q1) Contrast in microscopy is most commonly achieved by:

A) changing objectives for various specimens.

B) increasing the resolution or resolving power.

C) staining techniques.

D) adding a blue filter to the light path.

Q2) In the Kinyoun acid-fast staining method, ______ replaces _____ in the primary stain solution.

A) increased phenol; heat

B) heat; increased phenol

C) mycolic acid; heat

D) carbolfuchsin; phenol

Q3) The acid-fast stain is specifically designed for bacteria whose cell walls contain:

A) teichoic acids.

B) mycolic acids.

C) peptidoglycan.

D) disaccharide-pentapeptide subunits.

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Chapter 7: Traditional Cultivation and Identification

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Q1) What name is given to the type of hemolysis that produces complete hemolysis and a clearing of the medium?

A) Beta

B) Gamma

C) Alpha

D) Kappa

Q2) Which category of media can be described as containing nutrients that support the growth of the most nonfastidious organisms without giving any particular organism a growth advantage?

A) Enrichment

B) Supportive

C) Selective

D) Differential

Q3) In which category of media would MacConkey agar best fit?

A) Selective

B) Differential

C) Selective and differential

D) Supportive only

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Chapter 8: Nucleic Acid-Based Analytic Methods for

Microbial Identification and Characterization

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Q1) The enzyme that is commonly used for primer extensions in the PCR method works best at what temperature?

A) 25º C

B) 56º C

C) 72º C

D) 94º C

Q2) Target nucleic acid amplification (polymerase chain reaction [PCR])methods are based on:

A) the ability of two nucleic acid strands that have complementary base sequences to bond specifically with each other and form a double-stranded molecule.

B) detecting phenotypic traits not detectable by conventional strategies.

C) the principles of complementary nucleic acid hybridization with those of nucleic acid replication that are repeatedly applied through numerous cycles.

D) determining the exact nucleotide sequence of a gene or gene fragment obtained from an organism.

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Chapter 9: Immunochemical Methods Used for Organism

Detection

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Q1) The major advantage of immunofluorescent microscopy assays is that:

A) extensive training is not necessary.

B) it serves as an excellent way to preserve the reaction for referral and archiving.

C) visual assessment of the adequacy of a specimen is possible.

D) fluorescent microscopes are easily accessible to most laboratories.

Q2) Polyclonal antibodies are those that:

A) react with many different types of antigens.

B) react with many species of bacteria within the same genus.

C) react with many different antigens of one specific organism.

D) can be produced from many different species of host organisms.

Q3) A modification of the Ouchterlony method that speeds up the migration of an antigen and antibody by applying an electrical current is referred to as:

A) double immunodiffusion.

B) counterimmunoelectrophoresis.

C) particle agglutination.

D) enzyme immunoassay.

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Chapter 10: Serologic Diagnosis of Infectious Diseases

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Q1) A Western blot assay was performed, and bands were observed at p24, p41, and gp120/160 (kilodaltons).The organism can be identified as:

A) herpes simplex virus.

B) human immunodeficiency virus (HIV).

C) Borrelia burgdorferi.

D) Treponema pallidum.

Q2) Opsonizing antibodies are those that function by:

A) attaching to the surface of pathogens and contributing to their destruction by the lytic action of complement.

B) binding to and blocking surface receptors for host cells.

C) attaching to the surface of pathogens and making the pathogens more amenable to ingestion by phagocytic cells.

D) attaching to the surface of pathogens and contributing to their destruction by chemotaxis.

Q3) The difference between latex agglutination and hemagglutination is:

A) the type of particle used to carry the antibody.

B) the type of target organism involved.

C) that hemagglutination is less specific but more sensitive.

D) that hemagglutination procedures are temperature sensitive.

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Page 12

Chapter 11: Principles of Antimicrobial Action and Resistance

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Q1) Vancomycin

A)Cell wall synthesis inhibition

B)Cell membrane function inhibition

C)Protein synthesis inhibition

D)DNA and ribonucleic acid (RNA) synthesis inhibition

Q2) Antibiotic resistance resulting from altered cellular physiologic structure caused by changes in a microorganism's usual genetic makeup is known as __________ resistance.

A) intrinsic

B) inherent

C) acquired

D) environmentally mediated

Q3) Ciprofloxacin

A)Cell wall synthesis inhibition

B)Cell membrane function inhibition

C)Protein synthesis inhibition

D)DNA and ribonucleic acid (RNA) synthesis inhibition

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Page 13

Chapter 12: Laboratory Methods and Strategies for

Antimicrobial Susceptibility Testing

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Q1) Enterococcal resistance to ampicillin predicts resistance to: A) vancomycin.

B) aminoglycoside.

C) cephalosporin.

D) amikacin.

Q2) In the disk diffusion method of antimicrobial susceptibility testing, what is the standard agar base medium used for testing most bacterial organisms?

A) 5% blood agar

B) Mueller-Hinton agar

C) Mueller-Hinton broth

D) Brain-heart infusion broth

Q3) In the microdilution broth dilution method, the interpretive criteria for the susceptible, intermediate, or resistant categories are based on the:

A) amount of turbidity in the test well.

B) correlations of the MIC with serum achievable levels for the antimicrobial agent, particular resistance mechanisms, and successful therapeutic outcomes.

C) size of the zone of inhibition.

D) reciprocal value of the MIC.

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Chapter 13: Staphylococcus Micrococcus and Similar Organisms

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Q1) The tube coagulase test:

A) detects bound coagulase.

B) detects extracellular coagulase.

C) is performed on slide coagulase-positive isolates to confirm a positive result.

D) requires citrated reagent plasma.

Q2) An infected intravenous (IV)catheter tip grew out gram-positive cocci, which were catalase positive and coagulase negative.The zone size of the novobiocin disk measured

18 mm.The most likely organism causing infection is:

A) Staphylococcus saprophyticus.

B) S. epidermidis.

C) S. hominis.

D) S. cohnii.

Q3) The first identification test performed on a clinical isolate of gram-positive, catalase-positive cocci would likely be the:

A) penicillin test.

B) Gram stain.

C) oxidase test.

D) coagulase test.

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Chapter 14: Streptococcus Enterococcus and Similar Organisms

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Q1) The development of glomerulonephritis is a problem that may be encountered by patients infected with:

A) Enterococcus faecalis.

B) Streptococcus pneumoniae.

C) S. pyogenes.

D) S. agalactiae.

Q2) Generally speaking, nutritionally variant streptococci require what ingredient not found in most conventional media?

A) Vitamin B6

B) Nalidixic acid and its components

C) Nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide (NAD) enrichment

D) Blood or blood products

Q3) Streptococcus pneumoniae can be described as:

A) resistant to bile and optochin.

B) beta-hemolytic.

C) catalase-positive.

D) often carrying an antiphagocytic capsule.

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Page 16

Chapter 15: Bacillus and Similar Organisms

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Q1) Which of the following types of anthrax occurs after ingesting the spores and affects the abdominal or oropharyngeal area? (Patients usually die from toxemia and overwhelming sepsis.)

A) Cutaneous

B) Pulmonary

C) Gastrointestinal

D) Bubonic

Q2) Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assays (ELISAs)are available that can serologically identify which Bacillus species?

A) B. cereus

B) B. subtilis

C) B. thuringiensis

D) B. anthracis

Q3) Media that can be used for isolating Bacillus anthracis include:

A) Thayer-Martin agar.

B) 5% sheep blood agar.

C) MacConkey agar.

D) Columbia blood agar with colistin-nalidixic acid (CNA).

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Chapter 16: Listeria Corynebacterium and Similar Organisms

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Q1) Bacteria described as being coryneform have which of the following morphologic features?

A) Squared rods with squared ends arranged in pairs

B) Short gram-positive cocci in branching chains

C) Resemble and are often referred to as Chinese letters

D) Long branching gram-positive bacilli

Q2) The organism that exhibits characteristic end-over-end tumbling motility when incubated in nutrient broth at room temperature for 1 to 2 hours is:

A) Listeria monocytogenes.

B) Corynebacterium diphtheriae.

C) Bacillus anthracis.

D) Bacillus cereus.

Q3) A catalase-positive, gram-positive bacillus that is not acid-fast, does not branch, and does not form spores could possibly belong to which group of bacteria?

A) Corynebacterium

B) Bacillus

C) Actinomyces

D) Mycobacterium

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Chapter 17: Erysipelothrix Lactobacillus and Similar Organisms

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Q1) Which organism is nonhemolytic on 5% sheep blood agar but hemolytic on human blood?

A) Weissella confusa

B) Arcanobacterium haemolyticum

C) Lactobacillus spp.

D) Gardnerella vaginalis

Q2) To test the validity of TSI media, quality control should be performed using which two organisms?

A) Gardnerella and Lactobacillus

B) Erysipelothrix and Gardnerella

C) Propionibacterium and Lactobacillus

D) Actinomyces and Arcanobacterium

Q3) A catalase-negative, non-spore-forming, nonbranching, gram-positive rod that produces hydrogen sulfide when inoculated into triple sugar iron (TSI)agar is most likely:

A) Corynebacterium.

B) Bacillus.

C) Actinomyces.

D) Erysipelothrix.

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Chapter 18: Nocardia Streptomyces Rhodococcus and Similar Organisms

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Q1) Non-acid-fast aerobic actinomycetes include:

A) Nocardia.

B) Rhodococcus.

C) Streptomyces.

D) Gordona.

Q2) Nocardia spp.cause which of the following types of infections in individuals who are immunocompromised?

A) Mycetoma

B) Lymphocutaneous infections

C) Skin abscesses or cellulites

D) Invasive pulmonary infections

Q3) Partially acid-fast aerobic actinomycetes include:

A) Nocardia.

B) Mycobacteria.

C) Streptomyces.

D) Actinomadura.

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Chapter 19: Enterobacteriaceae

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Q1) An organism that appears red with a black center on XLD agar is lactose-_____ and H S-_____.

A) positive; positive

B) positive; negative

C) negative; positive

D) negative; negative

Q2) A green colony with a black center is isolated on HE agar from a stool specimen.It is most likely which organism?

A) Escherichia coli

B) Salmonella spp.

C) Shigella spp.

D) Klebsiella pneumoniae

Q3) Which of correct for the description "acid slant, acid butt, no H S"?

A) Salmonella spp.

B) Escherichia coli

C) Proteus spp.

D) Pseudomonas spp.

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Chapter 20: Acinetobacter, Stenotrophomonas, and Other Organisms

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Q1) Which organism is often isolated in the sputum of patients with cystic fibrosis?

A) Acinetobacter spp.

B) Bordetella trematum

C) Burkholderia gladioli

D) Stenotrophomonas maltophilia

Q2) Which organism may be mistaken for a lactose fermenter on MacConkey agar because of colonies exhibiting a purple hue on the media?

A) Acinetobacter spp.

B) Pseudomonas luteola

C) Stenotrophomonas maltophilia

D) Bordetella holmesii

Q3) For more serious infections caused by Acinetobacter spp., such as pneumonia or bacteremia, effective treatment may require the use of:

A) multiple rounds of penicillin or a similar antibiotic.

B) a beta-lactam agent in combination with an aminoglycoside antibiotic.

C) repeated high-level doses of gentamycin.

D) single-drug therapy in combination with a steroid.

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Page 22

Chapter 21: Pseudomonas, Burkholderia, and Similar Organisms

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Q1) Oxidative-fermentative base-polymyxin B-bacitracin-lactose (OFPBL)media is the best media to use to isolate which one of the following organisms from the sputa of patients with cystic fibrosis?

A) Pseudomonas pseudomallei

B) Ralstonia pickettii

C) Burkholderia cepacia

D) Acidovorax delafieldii

Q2) Not including organisms in the Enterobacteriaceae family, the second most common gram-negative bacilli encountered in clinical specimens are:

A) Pseudomonas.

B) Burkholderia.

C) Ralstonia.

D) Vibrio.

Q3) Production of exotoxin A and several proteolytic enzymes and hemolysins are factors that contribute to the pathogenicity of which organism?

A) Pseudomonas aeruginosa

B) Burkholderia cepacia

C) Ralstonia pickettii

D) Burkholderia mallei

Page 23

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Chapter 22: Rhizobium, Ochrobactrum, and Similar Organisms

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Q1) Although validated susceptibility testing methods do not exist for this group of organisms, in vitro data suggest that certain cephalosporins and aminoglycosides are effective against which one of the following groups of organisms?

A) Ochrobactrum anthropi

B) Shewanella putrefaciens

C) Paracoccus yeei

D) Rhizobium radiobacter

Q2) Which of the following organisms is oral and respiratory flora of animals and is transmitted by bites or scratches from dogs and cats?

A) Achromobacter group

B) Alcaligenes xylosoxidans

C) Paracoccus yeei

D) Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) group EF-4b

Q3) Which two organisms should be used to determine the validity of the nitrate reduction test?

A) Achromobacter and Alcaligenes

B) Psychrobacter and Rhizobium

C) CDC group Ic and CDC group O-3

D) CDC group OFBA-1c and Shewanella

Page 24

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Q1) Which two organisms should be used for quality control purposes to determine the validity of the indole reagent?

A) Elizabethkingia meningoseptica and Empedobacter brevis

B) Chryseobacterium spp. and Elizabethkingia meningoseptica

C) Elizabethkingia meningoseptica and Sphingobacterium multivorum

D) Agrobacterium group and Sphingobacterium spiritivorum

Q2) On Gram stain, which organism appears thin in the center and thicker at the ends?

A) Agrobacterium yellow group

B) CDC groups EO-3 and EO-4

C) Elizabethkingia meningoseptica

D) Empedobacter brevis

Q3) The natural habitat of the bacterium Sphingobacterium is:

A) environment.

B) animal oral and respiratory flora.

C) environment, cold climates.

D) human normal flora.

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Comamonas, and Similar Organisms

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Q1) The mode of transmission of Achromobacter denitrificans can best be described as:

A) person-to-person contact.

B) exposure to contaminated water.

C) contaminated fluids or medical solutions.

D) close contact with animals.

Q2) The organism most frequently associated with various infections in humans is:

A) Bordetella.

B) Oligella.

C) Achromobacter.

D) Roseomonas.

Q3) Gram-stain morphologic features, motility, and flagellar placement are important identifying characteristics of:

A) Chryseobacterium.

B) Flavobacterium.

C) Pseudomonas.

D) Bordetella.

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26

Chapter 25: Vibrio, Aeromonas, Chromobacterium, and Related Organisms

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Q1) Which of the following species of Aeromonas is oxidase-positive, sucrose-positive, and can decarboxylate ornithine?

A) A. caviae

B) A. schubertii

C) A. hydrophila

D) A. veronii biovar veronii

Q2) An organism suspected of being one of the Vibrio spp.grew on MacConkey agar.To determine whether it was a vibrio cell or in the Enterobacteriaceae family, an oxidase test was performed on the colony.The results of the oxidase test, however, were negative.Which one of the following statements explains this discrepancy?

A) The oxidase test should be performed on TCBS agar, not MacConkey agar.

B) The oxidase test should be performed on a sheep blood agar plate to avoid false-negative results.

C) The pH of the MacConkey agar is most likely elevated to alkaline conditions.

D) No discrepancy is present. All vibrio cells are oxidase-negative.

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Page 27

Chapter 26: Sphingomonas Paucimobilis and Similar Organisms

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Q1) Although no definitive guidelines are available for the treatment of Sphingomonas paucimobilis infections, which antibiotic appears to have potential activity against this organism?

A) Penicillin

B) Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole combination

C) Flagyl

D) Imipenem

Q2) Oxidase-positive, glucose-positive, (oxidatively)gram-negative bacilli that cannot grow on MacConkey agar include:

A) Pseudomonas.

B) Vibrio.

C) Stenotrophomonas.

D) Sphingomonas.

Q3) Which of the following statements best describes the habitats of Acidovorax, Sphingobacterium, and Sphingomonas?

A) Habitats are limited to the upper respiratory tract of various mammals.

B) Habitats are unknown.

C) Habitats are limited to the soil and water environment.

D) Habitats are limited mostly to water sources.

Page 28

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Chapter 27: Moraxella and Related Organisms

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Q1) The species of Moraxella that is most commonly associated with human infections, primarily of the respiratory tract, is:

A) M. catarrhalis.

B) M. lacunata.

C) M. canis.

D) M. atlantae.

Q2) The virulence of this organism(s), which is transmitted via a dog bite, is attributed to:

A) protease production.

B) various toxins.

C) hemolysins.

D) something unknown.

Q3) Which organism appears clear on MacConkey agar and resembles some colonies of the Enterobacteriaceae family?

A) Moraxella lacunata

B) M. lincolnii

C) M. canis

D) M. nonliquefaciens

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Chapter 28: Eikenella and Similar Organisms

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Q1) Which of the following organisms is negative for catalase, indole, and arginine dihydrolase tests and pits the agar on a sheep blood agar plate?

A) Eikenella corrodens

B) Weeksella virosa

C) Pseudomonas maltophilia

D) Sphingomonas paucimobilis

Q2) The organism that is found in vegetation and occasionally in the hospital environment grows best at which temperature?

A) 4º C

B) 25º C

C) 35º C

D) 56º C

Q3) Eikenella corrodens can be easily recognized in culture by its:

A) pink pigmentation.

B) grapelike odor.

C) large spreading colonial morphologic characteristic.

D) bleachlike odor.

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Chapter 29: Pasteurella and Similar Organisms

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Q1) An organism that causes infection as a result of a dog or cat bite was tested for catalase, resulting in a positive reaction.What could be the possible source of the error?

A) The catalase reagent could be expired.

B) This organism is normally negative for catalase; therefore a mutation may have occurred.

C) A false-positive result occurred because of the catalase production of the red blood cells in the 5% sheep blood agar.

D) No error is present. This organism is catalase-positive.

Q2) Which of the following bacterial species is part of animal flora and transmitted to humans during close animal contact, including bites?

A) Sphingomonas paucimobilis

B) Eikenella corrodens

C) Pasteurella multocida

D) Weeksella virosa

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Chapter 30: Actinobacillus, Aggregatibacter, Kingella,

Cardiobacterium, Capnocytophaga, and Similar Organisms

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Q1) Kingella spp.can be distinguished from Neisseria spp.by its:

A) negative test for catalase.

B) positive test for lactose fermentation.

C) positive test for catalase.

D) negative test for oxidase.

Q2) Which antimicrobial regimen should be administered to a patient suspected of having endocarditis as a result of infection with Cardiobacterium hominis?

A) Chloramphenicol and tetracycline

B) Erythromycin and ciprofloxacin

C) Ampicillin and ceftriaxone

D) Penicillin, with or without an aminoglycoside agent

Q3) Which organism is slightly alpha-hemolytic after 48 hours and is commonly associated with individuals with anatomic heart defects?

A) Kingella kingae

B) Cardiobacterium hominis

C) Actinobacillus suis

D) Capnocytophaga spp.

Page 32

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Chapter 31: Haemophilus

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Q1) Isolates from CSF that are gram-negative coccobacilli, grow on chocolate agar in CO but not blood agar, require factor V but not X, and are nonhemolytic on rabbit or horse blood may be identified as:

A) Haemophilus parainfluenzae.

B) H. influenzae.

C) H. aphrophilus.

D) H. ducreyi.

Q2) Which of the following media provides the factors necessary for the growth of Haemophilus spp.?

A) 5% sheep blood agar

B) Brain-heart infusion agar

C) Chocolate agar

D) Nutrient agar

Q3) In a phenomenon known as satelliting, tiny colonies of Haemophilus spp.may be observed growing on sheep blood agar close to colonies of bacteria that can produce:

A) hemin.

B) NAD.

C) vitamin K.

D) cystine.

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Page 33

Chapter 32: Bartonella and Afipia

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Q1) Trench fever, bacteremia, endocarditis, chronic lymphadenopathy, and bacillary angiomatosis can be caused by:

A) Afipia felis.

B) Bartonella quintana.

C) B. clarridgeiae.

D) B. henselae.

Q2) Of the clinically significant Bartonella species, which is transmitted via a fleabite with the reservoir being rats?

A) B. bacilliformis

B) B. henselae

C) B. elizabethae

D) B. clarridgeiae

Q3) Although molecular methods are available, such as polymerase chain reaction (PCR)for identifying the Bartonella species, limitations exist.One limitation to testing is the specificity of:

A) probes.

B) polymerases.

C) primers.

D) restriction enzymes.

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Chapter 33: Campylobacter, Arcobacter, and Helicobacter

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Q1) A gram-negative, spiral-shaped organism is isolated from a stool sample that was hippurate-positive, catalase-positive, susceptible to nalidixic acid, and resistant to cephalothin.The organism can be identified as:

A) Campylobacter coli.

B) C. jejuni subsp. doylei.

C) C. jejuni subsp. jejuni.

D) C. fetus subsp. fetus.

Q2) Ensuring that all foods derived from animal sources are thoroughly cooked, all milk is pasteurized, and all drinking water is chlorinated are ways to avoid becoming infected with:

A) Helicobacter.

B) Arcobacter.

C) Enterobacter.

D) Campylobacter.

Q3) Antimicrobial therapy for Helicobacter pylori infection consists of:

A) penicillin, gentamycin, and imipenem.

B) clindamycin, ceftriazone, and carbapenem.

C) metronidazole, bismuth salt, and tetracycline.

D) azithromycin alone.

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Page 35

Chapter 34: Legionella

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Q1) Organisms belonging to the genus Legionella are:

A) gram-positive diplococci.

B) gram-positive diphtheroid bacilli.

C) gram-negative coccobacilli.

D) faintly staining, thin gram-negative bacilli.

Q2) The medium or media of choice used to recover Legionella is:

A) buffered charcoal yeast extract (BCYE).

B) Regan-Lowe agar.

C) Löwenstein-Jensen medium.

D) blood and chocolate agars.

Q3) To cultivate Legionella in the laboratory, a medium supplemented with what ingredient(s)is necessary?

A) L-cysteine and iron

B) Blood and cysteine

C) Dopa-cysteine

D) Nicotinic adenine

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Chapter 35: Brucella

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Q1) The animal reservoir for Brucella melitensis is:

A) cattle.

B) sheep or goats.

C) swine.

D) dogs.

Q2) Individuals considered at greatest risk for contracting brucellosis are:

A) dairy farmers.

B) fishermen.

C) prison guards.

D) those working with exotic birds.

Q3) Organisms belonging to the genus Brucella are:

A) gram-positive diplococci.

B) gram-positive diphtheroid bacilli.

C) gram-negative coccobacilli.

D) gram-negative bacilli.

Q4) Facultative, intracellular parasitic bacteria are those that are able to:

A) be cultured with or without oxygen but in cell cultures only.

B) exist in both intracellular and extracellular environments.

C) be cultured only with oxygen and in cell cultures.

D) be cultured only inside living organisms such as mice.

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Chapter 36: Bordetella Pertussis, Bordetella Parapertussis, and

Related Species

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Q1) Pertussis (whooping cough)is an epidemic disease that is a highly contagious, acute infection of the upper respiratory tract caused by the:

A) Brucella spp.

B) Bordetella spp.

C) Pasteurella spp.

D) Francisella spp.

Q2) A nasopharyngeal aspirate is cultured on Bordet-Gengou agar, and growth is observed.The colonies are also subjected to a direct fluorescent antibody (DFA)stain, which is also positive.On the basis of these findings, the antimicrobial therapy that should be administered to the patient is:

A) azithromycin.

B) gentamycin.

C) streptomycin.

D) imipenem.

Q3) Acceptable specimens for the detection of Bordetella pertussis are:

A) throat swabs.

B) sputum.

C) nasopharyngeal aspirates.

D) anterior nose swabs.

Page 38

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Chapter 37: Francisella

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Q1) Which assay is available to identify Francisella tularensis serologically?

A) Complement fixation

B) Direct fluorescent antibody test

C) Immunodiffusion assays

D) Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assays (ELISAs)

Q2) The specimen of choice to collect in suspected cases of Francisella tularensis is:

A) blood.

B) cerebrospinal fluid (CSF).

C) lymph nodes.

D) urine.

Q3) Tularemia, characterized by glandular, ulceroglandular, oculoglandular, oropharyngeal, systemic, and pneumonic presentations, is caused by which of the following species?

A) Brucella

B) Bordetella

C) Pasteurella

D) Francisella

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Chapter 38: Streptobacillus Moniliformis and Spirillum

Minus

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Q1) The name given to rat-bite fever when the illness is acquired by the ingestion of the bacterium is:

A) Sodoku.

B) Haverhill fever.

C) monillic fever.

D) monillic gastritis.

Q2) Which of the following cause rat-bite fever, or Haverhill fever, which is characterized by acute onset of chills, fever, headache, vomiting, and often severe joint pains, as well as a rash on the palms, soles of the feet, and other extremities?

A) Streptobacillus moniliformis

B) Brucella abortus

C) Bordetella spp.

D) Pasteurella spp.

Q3) Rat-bite fever caused by Spirillum minus can be differentiated from that caused by Streptobacillus moniliformis by:

A) chills, fever, headache, vomiting, and often severe joint pains.

B) a granulomatous lesion.

C) septic arthritis.

D) endocarditis.

Page 40

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Chapter 39: Neisseria and Moraxella Catarrhalis

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Q1) The gram-negative coccus that can be described as oxidase-positive, glucose-negative, maltose-negative, sucrose-negative, lactose-negative, and DNase-positive is:

A) Neisseria meningitidis.

B) Moraxella catarrhalis.

C) N. cinerea.

D) N. gonorrhoeae.

Q2) MTM, Martin-Lewis (ML), and New York City (NYC)media were all developed for the selective isolation of which organism?

A) Moraxella catarrhalis

B) Neisseria meningitidis

C) N. gonorrhoeae

D) N. mucosa

Q3) Moraxella catarrhalis may be described as:

A) oxidase-positive.

B) a glucose utilizer.

C) a major cause of venereal disease.

D) often carrying an antiphagocytic capsule.

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Chapter 40: Overview and General Considerations

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Q1) During specimen collection, an important thing to remember when handling a collection device with an oxygen-free atmosphere is to:

A) take care not to tip the container.

B) hold the collected specimen in the refrigerator until processing.

C) hold the collected specimen in the incubator until processing.

D) avoid opening the container in an aerobic atmosphere.

Q2) Urine via catheter is:

A) acceptable.

B) not acceptable.

Q3) Percutaneous lung aspirate is:

A) acceptable.

B) not acceptable.

Q4) Prereduced, anaerobically sterilized (PRAS)media:

A) are produced, packaged, shipped, and stored under anaerobic conditions.

B) have a short shelf life of only 2 weeks.

C) enable the culture to be incubated in the regular incubator under aerobic conditions.

D) contain peroxides that enhance the growth of certain anaerobes.

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Chapter 41: Overview of Anaerobic Organisms

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Q1) The most likely identification of a bile-resistant, kanamycin-resistant, colistin-resistant, and vancomycin-resistant anaerobic gram-negative bacilli is:

A) nonpigmented Prevotella.

B) Porphyromonas spp.

C) Bacteroides fragilis group.

D) Fusobacterium spp.

Q2) Bacteroides ureolyticus

A)Are kanamycin-resistant, colistin-resistant, and vancomycin-resistant and grow in 20% bile

B)Are bile-sensitive, kanamycin-resistant, catalase-negative, and indole-negative

C)Fluoresce brick red or have a brown-to-black pigment

D)Reduces nitrate, and requires formate and fumarate for growth in broth culture

E)Are sensitive to kanamycin, and fluoresce a chartreuse color

Q3) Incubation conditions for anaerobic cultures include:

A) 30° to 35° C.

B) incubation for 48 hours before exposing the culture to air.

C) incubation for at least 3 days before discarding.

D) aerobic incubation of the broth medium with the cap loose.

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43

Chapter 42: Mycobacteria

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Q1) Fluorescent staining is more sensitive than conventional carbolfuchsin stains.What counterstain is used during the procedure?

A) Methylene blue

B) Crystal violet

C) Potassium permanganate

D) Auramine-rhodamine

Q2) Negative mycobacterial cultures are reported final and the cultures are discarded after what period?

A) 7 days

B) 2 weeks

C) 4 weeks

D) 8 weeks

Q3) The 3-day test that is useful for identifying the rapid growers, M.fortuitum and M.chelonae, and that measures the rate by which this enzyme breaks down phenolphthalein disulfate into phenolphthalein and other salts is the ____________ test.

A) niacin.

B) phenolphthalein.

C) arylsulfatase.

D) Tween 80.

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Chapter 43: Obligate Intracellular and Non-culturable Bacterial Agents

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Q1) Tropheryma whipplei is characterized by the presence of periodic acid-Schiff (PAS)-staining macrophages, which indicates mucopolysaccharide or glycoprotein, in almost every organ system.Without treatment, this disease is uniformly fatal.Identification is achieved using:

A) enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA).

B) IFA.

C) immunoblotting.

D) real-time polymerase chain reaction (PCR).

Q2) Of the following organisms, which can be described as a fastidious obligate intracellular parasite that multiplies by binary fission in the cytoplasm of host cells and infects humans as accidental hosts in most cases?

A) Rickettsia

B) Chlamydia

C) Calymmatobacterium

D) Coxiella

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Chapter 44: Cell Walldeficient Bacteria: Mycoplasma and Ureaplasma

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Q1) The definitive identification of which of the following organisms is accomplished by hemadsorption techniques?

A) Chlamydia trachomatis

B) Mycoplasma hominis

C) Mycoplasma pneumoniae

D) Mycoplasma genitalium

Q2) Incorporation of urea into media is used to enhance the detection of which organism?

A) Ureaplasma urealyticum

B) Mycoplasma pneumonia

C) M. hominis

D) M. genitalium

Q3) Media that can be used for the isolation of Mycoplasma include:

A) Thayer-Martin agar with vitamin K.

B) 5% sheep blood and IsoVitaleX.

C) beef or soybean protein with serum and fresh yeast extract.

D) hemin and nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide (NAD) supplements.

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Page 46

Chapter 45: The Spirochetes

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Q1) A self-limiting illness and the most common clinical syndrome associated with leptospirae that includes fever, headache, myalgia, and aseptic meningitis in the immune stage is called:

A) icteric leptospirosis.

B) anicteric leptospirosis.

C) Weil's disease.

D) syphilis.

Q2) Nontreponemal antibodies are those that are:

A) produced against antigens of the organisms themselves.

B) produced by infected patients against components of mammalian cells.

C) produced by the organism that causes the systemic destruction of the disease.

D) also called heterophile antibodies.

Q3) A test that uses gelatin particles sensitized with T.pallidum subsp.pallidum antigens to detect specific antitreponemal antibodies in patient serum is called the __________ test.

A) RPR

B) FTA-ABS

C) VDRL

D) TP-PA

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Page 47

Chapter 46: Laboratory Methods for Diagnosis of Parasitic

Infections: Overview

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Q1) A 4-year-old boy who is in day care 3 days per week is irritable and scratching the area around his anus.What morphologic characteristics would most likely be observed on microscopic examination of the appropriate specimen?

A) Large eggs, proglottid shape

B) Large eggs with a terminal spine

C) Two individual hooklets

D) Football-shaped eggs with one flattened side

Q2) The permanent stained smear protocol of the O&P examination:

A) requires freshly passed, unpreserved stool.

B) is designed to allow the detection of protozoan cysts, coccidian oocysts, microsporidial spores, and helminth eggs and larvae.

C) is microscopically examined at low, high dry, and oil immersion magnifications.

D) is designed to facilitate the identification of intestinal protozoa.

Q3) Wuchereria, Brugia, Loa, and Onchocerca are all classified as:

A) intestinal cestodes.

B) tissue nematodes.

C) filarial nematodes.

D) blood trematodes.

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Chapter 47: Intestinal Protozoa

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Q1) Entamoeba coli, a protozoan that ranges from 15 to 25 microns in diameter, can contain up to eight nuclei in mature cysts.How would the karyosome expect to appear on a stained slide?

A) Small, usually compact

B) Large, usually compact

C) Small, irregularly shaped

D) Large, not compact

Q2) When cooking meat, an internal temperature of ____° C must be reached to kill organisms such as Toxoplasma and Sarcocystis.

A) 38

B) 48

C) 58

D) 68

Q3) The drug of choice for the parasite Blastocystis hominis, which is believed to produce proteases and is considered a virulence factor responsible for its pathogenesis, is:

A) metronidazole.

B) albendazole.

C) tetracycline.

D) nitazoxanide.

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Chapter 48: Blood and Tissue Protozoa

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Q1) Plasmodium vivax is suspected in a patient who has been traveling for months in the tropics.Blood was collected in a lavender top tube; however, the slide was not prepared for examination until the next day because the specimen came in on the night shift.Once the slide was prepared and examined, Schüffner dots were not visible.Which one of the following statements explains this discrepancy?

A) Schüffner dots are not characteristic of P. vivax infections.

B) The blood film was most likely incorrectly prepared.

C) The blood should have been collected in a red top tube.

D) The blood remained in the tube too long, yielding false-negative results.

Q2) Stage I of trypanosomiasis characteristically involves systemic trypanosomiasis infection without central nervous system (CNS)involvement.Lymphadenopathy is also a feature of this disease.The trypomastigotes of which protozoa are involved?

A) Trypanosoma cruzi

B) T. rangeli

C) T. brucei rhodesiense

D) T. brucei gambiense

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Chapter 49: Other Protozoa

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Q1) A 15-year-old male was diving in a lake when he inhaled some of the stagnate water.Five days later he was admitted to the hospital, comatose and in critical condition.A cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)specimen was taken, and several motile amoebae were observed.The patient would most likely be diagnosed with which of the following conditions?

A) Granulomatous amebic encephalitis

B) Primary amebic meningoencephalitis

C) Secondary amebic encephalitis

D) Chronic granulomatous meningitis

Q2) The Acanthamoeba organism is motile and has spinelike pseudopods, a single round nucleus in the cyst form, and a large karyosome in the nucleus of the troph.An estimated 70% of clinical cases of Acanthamoeba keratitis are misdiagnosed as __________ keratitis.

A) bacterial

B) fungal

C) prion

D) viral

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Chapter 50: Intestinal Nematodes Roundworms

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Q1) The larvae of the worm Strongyloides stercoralis are the most common found in human stool specimens.Depending on the fecal transit time through the intestine and the patient's condition, both rhabditiform and rare filariform may be present.The treatment of choice for uncomplicated infections is:

A) metronidazole.

B) ivermectin.

C) pyrantel pamoate.

D) combination antihelminthic and board-spectrum antibiotics.

Q2) A 36-year-old man entered the emergency department with bleeding and weight loss several weeks after returning from a trip to South America.A stool sample was taken and microscopically examined.Barrel-shaped eggs with bipolar plugs were observed.The organism can be identified as:

A) Trichuris trichiura.

B) Ancylostoma duodenale.

C) Necator americanus.

D) Strongyloides stercoralis.

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Chapter 51: Tissue Nematodes Roundworms

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Q1) A definitive diagnosis can be made in a Trichinella infection on the basis of which of the following findings?

A) Presence of adult worms in the feces

B) Identification of encysted larvae through muscle biopsy

C) Presence of cutaneous larvae migrans in the skin

D) Identification of unembryonated eggs in the feces

Q2) Swine

A)Dracunculus medinensis

B)Parastrongylus cantonensis

C)Trichinella spp.

D)Parastrongylus costaricensis

Q3) A child is believed to have a Toxocara cati infection in his eye, which he acquired after playing with a stray cat for several weeks.A serum titer was performed, which revealed a titer of 1:8.This laboratory value can be interpreted as:

A) normal.

B) insignificant.

C) diagnostic.

D) negative.

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Chapter 52: Blood and Tissue Filarialnematodes

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Q1) A skin snip is performed, and microfilariae with tapered tails, no nuclei, and unsheathed are microscopically observed.The recommended therapy for this infection is:

A) ivermectin.

B) diethylcarbamazine.

C) antihistamines.

D) mebendazole.

Q2) Brugia spp.

A)Tabanid fly

B)Biting midges

C)Anopheles mosquito

D)Black fly

E)Biting midges.

Q3) The definitive host and reservoir for Wuchereria bancrofti is:

A) mosquito.

B) microfilaria.

C) humans.

D) tabanid fly.

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Chapter 53: Intestinal Cestodes

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Q1) The mode of infection for which of the following organisms is the ingestion of cysticercoid in an infected arthropod or by the direct ingestion of the egg? Autoinfection may also occur.

A) Diphyllobothrium latum

B) Hymenolepis nana

C) Taenia saginata

D) Taenia solium

Q2) The Diphyllobothrium latum tapeworm can reach up to 10 meters in length and can have more than 3000 to 4000 proglottids.The definitive host and reservoir host, respectively, are:

A) fish and copepods.

B) crustaceans and humans.

C) copepods and crustaceans.

D) humans and fish.

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Chapter 54: Tissue Cestodes

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Q1) Hydatid disease is associated with which tapeworm?

A) Taenia solium

B) Echinococcus granulosus

C) Spirometra mansonoides

D) Echinococcus multilocularis

Q2) Epileptic seizures, headaches, and mental disturbances all result from infection with the Taenia solium organism.The definitive diagnosis is based on:

A) positive direct fluorescent antibody test.

B) observance of eggs in the stool.

C) positive India ink stain.

D) identification of cysts in tissue.

Q3) In Echinococcus granulosus infections, the hydatid cysts usually occur in which organ?

A) Stomach

B) Brain

C) Intestines

D) Liver

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Chapter 55: Intestinal Trematodes

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Q1) The Heterophyes heterophyes worm, which has a genital sucker that surrounds the genital pore, has a variety of reservoir hosts including dogs, cats, and birds and a second intermediate host of freshwater:

A) snails.

B) fish.

C) crabs.

D) shrimp.

Q2) The adult form of the fluke, Fasciolopsis buski, is elongated in shape and ranges from 20 to 75 mm long and 8 to 20 mm wide with an oral sucker at the anterior and a ventral sucker approximately midway to the posterior.The reservoir host for the fluke is: A) snails.

B) birds.

C) rodents.

D) dogs.

Q3) The intermediate host of the Platyhelminthes is freshwater: A) fish.

B) snails.

C) crabs.

D) crayfish.

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Page 57

Chapter 56: Liver and Lung Trematodes

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Q1) Sheep liver fluke

A)Opisthorchis viverrini

B)Fasciola spp.

C)Clonorchis (Opisthorchis) sinensis

D)Paragonimus westermani

Q2) Lung fluke

A)Opisthorchis viverrini

B)Fasciola spp.

C)Clonorchis (Opisthorchis) sinensis

D)Paragonimus westermani

Q3) The adult worm of Fasciola measures 2 to 5 cm by 0.8 to 1.3 cm with a cephalic cone at the anterior end that contains the oral sucker.The drug of choice to treat Fasciola infections is:

A) praziquantel.

B) bithionol.

C) albendazole.

D) benzimidazole.

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Chapter 57: Blood Trematodes

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Q1) Rodents, marsupials, and nonhuman primates are all reservoirs for which Schistosoma species?

A) S. japonicum

B) S. haematobium

C) S. mansoni

D) S. intercalatum

Q2) An egg of the organism of Schistosoma mansoni is isolated from the feces of an adult man who has been traveling in Africa.An unoperculated egg with a large lateral spine is recovered.The patient is administered the standard dose of praziquantel; however, his infection does not improve.Which one of the following statements explains this discrepancy?

A) Metrifonate should have been administered.

B) Bilarcil is the drug of choice for this type of infection.

C) Steroids should have been initially administered.

D) A larger dose may be required to be effective against this organism.

Q3) The only intermediate host required in the life cycle of blood flukes is a:

A) copepod.

B) crustacean.

C) freshwater snail.

D) freshwater fish.

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Chapter 58: Overview of Fungal Identification Methods and Strategies

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Q1) Microscopically, this fungus appears barrel shaped with thick walls, which best describes which type of conidia?

A) Macroconidia

B) Chlamydoconidia

C) Arthroconidia

D) Blastoconidia

Q2) A 59-year-old patient with cancer who was receiving high doses of chemotherapy developed a secondary lung infection that was identified as a fungus.The organism disseminated, which ultimately was fatal to the patient.The organism isolated from sputum exhibited septate hyphae that were dichotomous.The organism is most likely which of the following?

A) Candida

B) Cryptococcus

C) Aspergillus

D) Zygomycetes

Q3) The mode of transmission for most of the dimorphic fungi is:

A) inoculation.

B) inhalation.

C) arthropod.

D) blood.

60

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Chapter 59: Hyaline Molds, Mucorales Zygomycetes,

Dermatophytes, and Opportunitistic and Systemic Mycoses

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Q1) A fungus is recovered from a nail scrapping.Microscopic examination reveals numerous smooth, thin-walled, club-shaped, multiseptate macroconidia; however, microconidia are absent.The organism can be identified as:

A) Microsporum canis.

B) Epidermophyton floccosum.

C) Trichophyton rubrum.

D) Microsporum gypseum.

Q2) A hair perforation test is performed using Trichophyton mentagrophytes and T.rubrum.The expected results are:

A) positive for both organisms.

B) positive for T. rubrum and negative for T. mentagrophytes.

C) positive for T. mentagrophytes and negative for T. rubrum.

D) negative for both organisms.

Q3) The term used to describe ringworm of the nail is:

A) Tinea cruris.

B) Tinea pedis.

C) Tinea capitis.

D) Tinea unguium.

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Chapter 60: Dematiaceous Melanizedmolds

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Q1) Conidial heads with a sympodial arrangement of conidia exhibit primary conidia giving rise to secondary conidia.

A)Phialophora

B)Fonsecaea

C)Alternaria

D)Bipolaris

E)Cladosporium

F)Culvaria

G)Exophiala

Q2) Sinusitis

A)Exophiala jeanselmei

B)Pseudallescheria boydii

C)Piedraia hortae

D)Hortaea werneckii

E)Alternaria

Q3) Which dematiaceous fungus causes a condition known as chromoblastomycosis?

A) Pseudallescheria boydii

B) Hortaea werneckii

C) Phialophora spp.

D) Exophiala jeanselmei

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Chapter 61: Opportunistic Atypical Fungus: Pneumocystis

Jiroveci

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Q1) In patients who do not have HIV, which underlying condition is considered a risk factor for acquiring PCP?

A) Malaria

B) Cystic fibrosis

C) Cytomegalovirus

D) Myasthenia gravis

Q2) Which type of molecular assay has been developed to identify Pneumocystis jirovecii but is not yet available in commercial kits?

A) Nucleic acid sequence-based amplification (NASBA)

B) Strand displacement amplification (SDA)

C) Transcription-mediated amplification (TMA)

D) Real-time polymerase chain reaction (PCR)

Q3) Which therapy has decreased the incident of pneumocystis infection in patients with human immunodeficiency virus or acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (HIV/AIDS)?

A) Metronidazole

B) Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole combination

C) Aminoglycosides with fluconazole

D) Highly active antiretroviral therapy (HAART)

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Chapter 62: The Yeasts

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Q1) Cryptococcus neoformans is widely distributed in nature, and aerosolization is a prerequisite to most infections.This organism is most often associated with exposure to:

A) contaminated soil.

B) pigeon excreta.

C) contaminated food.

D) rat excreta.

Q2) Determining urease activity and growth on niger seed agar is helpful in determining which type of yeast?

A) Candida albicans

B) Trichosporon

C) Cryptococcus neoformans

D) Malassezia furfur

Q3) Agar medium overlaid with olive oil will enhance the growth of which organism?

A) Malassezia

B) Candida

C) Trichosporon

D) Cryptococcus

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Chapter 63: Anti-fungal Susceptibility Testing, Therapy, and Prevention

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Q1) The Reference Method for Broth Dilution Antifungal Susceptibility Testing of Filamentous Fungi; Approved Standard (M38-A)describes the guidelines for antifungal susceptibility testing for molds.The suspension must be standardized with a spectrophotometer.Susceptibility testing is determined by which method?

A) Disk diffusion

B) Microdilution

C) Broth dilution

D) Immunodiffusion

Q2) Alters membrane permeability

A)Amphotericin B

B)Griseofulvin

C)5-Fluorocytosine

D)Echinocandin

E)Azole

Q3) Interferes with ergosterol synthesis

A)Amphotericin B

B)Griseofulvin

C)5-Fluorocytosine

D)Echinocandin

E)Azole

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Chapter 64: Overview of the Methods and Strategies in Virology

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Q1) Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)

A)Adenovirus

B)HSV

C)HBV

D)Arbovirus

Q2) Skin and mucous membranes

A)Varicella zoster virus

B)Enterovirus

C)Human papilloma virus (HPV)

D)Parainfluenza virus

E)CMV

Q3) Adenovirus serotypes 40 and 41

A)RSV

B)HIV

C)CMV

D)Adenovirus

E)HSV

F)Pediatric respiratory virus

G)Hepatitis B virus (HBV)

H)Influenzas A and B

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Chapter 65: Viruses in Human Disease

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Q1) Burkitt lymphoma

A)Herpes simplex virus (HSV) type 1

B)HSV type 2

C)Zoster

D)Varicella

E)Epstein-Barr virus (EBV)

F)CMV

G)Human herpesvirus (HHV) 8

Q2) Herpangina

A)Coxsackie A

B)Coxsackie B

Q3) Shingles

A)Herpes simplex virus (HSV) type 1

B)HSV type 2

C)Zoster

D)Varicella

E)Epstein-Barr virus (EBV)

F)CMV

G)Human herpesvirus (HHV) 8

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Page 67

Chapter 66: Antiviral Therapy, Susceptibility Testing, and Prevention

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Q1) Ribavirin

A)HSV

B)Influenza A

C)Hepatitis B virus (HBV)

D)Respiratory syncytial virus (RSV)

E)HIV

Q2) At the end of the 2008-2009 influenza season, 100% influenza A H3N2 and the novel 2009 influenza A H1N1 were resistant to:

A) adamantane.

B) oseltamivir.

C) Tamiflu.

D) Relenza.

Q3) Detects resistance genes.

A)Phenotypic assay

B)Plaque reduction assay

C)Du assay

D)Flow cytometry

E)Genotypic susceptibility assay

F)Pyrosequencing

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Chapter 67: Bloodstream Infections

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Q1) A 26-year-old woman who has a Gardnerella vaginalis infection becomes immunocompromised, which causes the organism to enter the bloodstream.She has several fever spikes; therefore blood cultures are drawn and placed in blood culture media containing sodium polyanethol sulfonate (SPS).After 5 days of incubation, the blood cultures are negative.Which of the following statements explains this discrepancy?

A) G. vaginalis stays localized in the female genital tract and does not enter the bloodstream.

B) The blood culture media is most likely expired.

C) The automated blood culture system is most likely not correctly functioning.

D) G. vaginalis is usually inhibited by this anticoagulant, making recovery difficult.

Q2) Patients receiving lipid-supplemented parenteral nutrition are at risk for developing fungemia caused by which organism?

A) Histoplasma capsulatum

B) Malassezia furfur

C) Coccidioides immitis

D) Candida albicans

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69

Chapter 68: Infections of the Lower Respiratory Tract

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Q1) Bacterial pneumonia in children is most commonly caused by:

A) Mycoplasma pneumoniae.

B) Chlamydia pneumonia.

C) parainfluenza virus.

D) Staphylococcus aureus.

Q2) One of the most common causes of bacterial pneumonia in school-age children (5 to 14 years of age)is:

A) Haemophilus influenzae type B.

B) Corynebacterium diphtheriae.

C) Streptococcus pyogenes.

D) Mycoplasma pneumoniae.

Q3) The sputum of a patient with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS)is stained with Kinyoun carbolfuchsin stain.Which organism would test positive using this stain?

A) Streptomyces spp.

B) Pneumocystis jiroveci

C) Staphylococcus aureus

D) Cryptosporidium spp.

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Chapter 69: Upper Respiratory Tract Infections and Other

Infections of the Oral Cavity and Neck

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Q1) Epiglottitis is a potentially life-threatening disease because the patient's airway can become completely obstructed (blocked)if not treated.Which bacterium usually causes this disease?

A) Haemophilus influenzae type B

B) Corynebacterium diphtheriae

C) Streptococcus pyogenes

D) Type A influenza virus

Q2) An inflammation of the mucous membranes of the oral cavity caused mostly by herpes simplex virus is:

A) laryngitis.

B) pharyngitis.

C) Vincent angina.

D) stomatitis.

Q3) Clinical specimens from suspected cases of epiglottitis should be plated at least to _______ agar(s).

A) sheep blood

B) sheep blood and chocolate

C) Regan-Lowe

D) charcoal horse blood

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Chapter 70: Meningitis, Encephalitis, and Other Infections of

the Central Nervous System

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Q1) A collective term used for the three layers of membranes surrounding the brain and spinal column is the:

A) dura mater.

B) meninges.

C) arachnoid.

D) pia mater.

Q2) An inflammation of the brain parenchyma that is usually a result of viral infection is:

A) meningoencephalitis.

B) aseptic meningitis.

C) encephalitis.

D) meningitis.

Q3) The outermost layer of membranes surrounding the brain and spinal column is the:

A) dura mater.

B) meninges.

C) arachnoid.

D) pia mater.

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72

Chapter 71: Infections of the Eyes, Ears, and Sinuses

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Q1) Dacryoadenitis

A)Acute infection of the orbital contents most often caused by bacteria

B)Inflammation of the lacrimal canal

C)Infection of the lacrimal gland characterized by pain of the upper eyelid with erythema

D)Infection of the cornea

Q2) Blepharitis

A)Haemophilus influenzae and Streptococcus pneumoniae

B)Bacteria, viruses, and occasionally lice

C)Staphylococcus aureus, S. pneumoniae, and Pseudomonas aeruginosa

D)Any bacterium, including those considered to be primarily saprophytic

E)Chlamydia

F)Actinomyces and Propionibacterium

G)S. aureus and Streptococcus pyogenes

Q3) The organism that can be encountered in the conjunctival sac and that exists as indigenous flora is:

A) Staphylococcus epidermidis.

B) Bacteroides fragilis.

C) Staphylococcus aureus.

D) Moraxella lacunata.

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Chapter 72: Infections of the Urinary Tract

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Q1) The term acute urethral syndrome is used to describe a syndrome of symptoms that include:

A) greater than 105 colony-forming units of bacteria per milliliter (CFU/mL) of urine, dysuria, and frequent urination.

B) dysuria, frequency, and urgency but a specimen yielding fewer organisms than 105 CFU/mL urine on culture.

C) fever and flank pain, dysuria, vomiting, diarrhea, chills, increased heart rate, and lower abdominal pain.

D) dysuria, frequency and urgency along with tenderness and pain over the area of the bladder.

Q2) The resident microflora that can colonize the bladder and other structures of the urinary tract are:

A) Enterobacteriaceae.

B) yeast.

C) Propionibacterium acnes.

D) Corynebacteria.

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Chapter 73: Genital Tract Infections

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Q1) Bacterial vaginosis

A)Anaerobic and polymicrobic infections originating from normal genital flora

B)Chlamydia trachomatis

C)Gardnerella, Prevotella spp., Porphyromonas spp., Peptostreptococcus spp.,

Mobiluncus spp.

D)Neisseria gonorrhoeae

E)Neisseria gonorrhoeae and Chlamydia trachomatis

F)Escherichia coli and other enteric organisms

G)Mumps virus

Q2) Proper design of a urogenital swab expressly intended for the collection of urethral discharge should include what feature?

A) Charcoal-treated cotton or rayon

B) Antibiotic-treated calcium alginate

C) Nonflexible Shaft of wood and not flexible

D) Dacron-tipped swabs

Q3) The flora of the female genital tract:

A) consists primarily of staphylococci, corynebacteria, and Neisseria.

B) consists primarily of Enterobacteriaceae, streptococci, and staphylococci.

C) consists primarily of Streptococcus agalactiae and staphylococci.

D) varies with the pH and estrogen concentration of the mucosa.

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Chapter 74: Gastrointestinal Tract Infections

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Q1) Stool received for routine culture in most clinical laboratories in the United States should be examined for the presence of at least:

A) Campylobacter, Salmonella, and Shigella spp.

B) Salmonella and Shigella spp.

C) Campylobacter and Vibrio spp.

D) Salmonella, Shigella, and Vibrio spp.

Q2) Gram-negative broth serves which purpose when used in the bacterial fecal culture?

A) Evaluation of general flora and predominant species

B) Selection of enteric pathogens such as Salmonella, Aeromonas, and others

C) Inhibition of normal flora and selection of enteric pathogens

D) Enrichment for enteric pathogens such as Salmonella and others

Q3) Cultures for isolation of Campylobacter jejuni and Campylobacter coli should be incubated in:

A) a capnophilic atmosphere at 42° C and examined at 24 and 48 hours.

B) a microaerophilic atmosphere at 35° C and examined at 24 and 48 hours.

C) regular room air at 35° C and examined at 48 and 72 hours.

D) a microaerophilic atmosphere at 42° C and examined at 24 and 48 hours.

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Chapter 75: Skin, Soft Tissue, and Wound Infections

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Q1) Meleney ulcer

A)Extensive necrosis of muscle caused by infectious agents

B)Infection of the fascia overlying muscle groups, often with the involvement of the overlying soft tissue

C)Slowly progressive infection of the subcutaneous tissue with associated ulceration of portions of the overlying skin

D)Chronic gangrenous condition of the skin most often encountered as a postoperative complication, particularly after abdominal or thoracic surgery

Q2) Necrotizing fasciitis

A)Extensive necrosis of muscle caused by infectious agents

B)Infection of the fascia overlying muscle groups, often with the involvement of the overlying soft tissue

C)Slowly progressive infection of the subcutaneous tissue with associated ulceration of portions of the overlying skin

D)Chronic gangrenous condition of the skin most often encountered as a postoperative complication, particularly after abdominal or thoracic surgery

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Marrow, and Solid Tissues

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Q1) The proper technique for processing clotted body fluids sent to the laboratory for fungal culture is:

A) grinding them in a mortar and pestle or glass tissue grinder.

B) placing small amounts of whole material from the clot directly onto media.

C) centrifugation with glass beads.

D) filtration under pressure.

Q2) The most common etiologic agent of septic arthritis accounting for approximately 70% of infections is:

A) Streptococcus pyogenes.

B) Haemophilus influenza.

C) Staphylococcus aureus.

D) Streptococcus mitis.

Q3) Most cases of peritonitis in patients on continuous ambulatory peritoneal dialysis (CAPD)are caused by:

A) Staphylococcus epidermidis and S. aureus.

B) Escherichia coli.

C) Klebsiella pneumoniae.

D) Streptococcus spp.

E) viral agents.

Page 78

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Chapter 77: Quality in the Clinical Microbiology Laboratory

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Q1) Defining the process from the patient's perspective, which is what the patient knowingly pays for, or the attributes of service

A)Value

B)Value stream

C)Flow

D)Pull

E)Continuous improvement

Q2) If a clinical laboratory receives a "blind unknown" for proficiency testing (PT), it is most likely sent by which private accrediting agency?

A) CLSI

B) National Accrediting Agency for Clinical Laboratory Sciences (NAACLS)

C) College of American Pathologists (CAP)

D) American Society of Consultant Pharmacists (ASCP)

Q3) In addition to recording the lot number, date received, condition received, and expiration date, antisera should be:

A) discarded after each use.

B) frozen upon arrival.

C) dated when opened.

D) tested by the supervisor first before anyone uses it.

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Page 79

Chapter 78: Infection Control

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Q1) A patient should be placed in a private room that has monitored negative air pressure if he or she is infected with which organism?

A) Haemophilus influenza

B) Mycoplasma pneumonia

C) Parvovirus B19

D) Mycobacterium tuberculosis

Q2) A phenotypic technique of typing microbial strains that consists of analyzing antimicrobial susceptibility patterns of the organism of interest is:

A) biotyping.

B) antibiograms.

C) serotyping.

D) bacteriophage typing.

Q3) A phenotypic technique that examines the ability of bacteriophages, which are viruses capable of infecting and lysing bacterial cells, to attack certain strains is:

A) biotyping.

B) antibiograms.

C) bacteriocin typing.

D) bacteriophage typing.

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Chapter 79: Sentinel Laboratory Response to Bioterrorism

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Q1) The difference between an overt and a covert bioterrorism event is that a(n):

A) covert event is one that is carried out against undercover agents.

B) covert event is announced, and an overt event is not announced.

C) overt event is announced, and a covert event is not announced.

D) overt event is one that is carried out in the air.

Q2) The act of using microorganisms to harm the civilian population intentionally is referred to as:

A) biosecurity.

B) biocrime.

C) microterrorism.

D) cactiterrorism.

Q3) Bioterrorism is a term used to describe the act of using:

A) horrific events to deliver harm to living beings.

B) microorganisms to harm the civilian population intentionally.

C) microorganisms to wage war in peacetime.

D) living beings to wage war in peacetime.

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