Pathogenic Microbiology
Final Test Solutions
Course Introduction
Pathogenic Microbiology explores the biology of microorganisms that cause disease in humans, focusing on the mechanisms by which bacteria, viruses, fungi, and parasites invade and damage host tissues. The course examines the molecular basis of pathogenicity, host-pathogen interactions, epidemiology, and immune responses. Students will investigate diagnostic techniques, modes of transmission, strategies for prevention and control of infectious diseases, and current issues such as emerging pathogens and antibiotic resistance. Through case studies and laboratory work, learners will develop critical thinking skills for identifying pathogenic microorganisms and understanding their impact on public health.
Recommended Textbook
Textbook of Diagnostic Microbiology 5th Edition by Connie R. Mahon
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41 Chapters
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Chapter 1: Bacterial Cell Structure, Physiology, Metabolism, and Genetics
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Q1) Diagnostic microbiologists apply placement and naming of bacterial organisms into all the following categories except:
A)order.
B)family.
C)genus.
D)species.
Answer: A
Q2) What enables the microbiologist to select the correct media for primary culture and optimize the chance of isolating a pathogenic organism?
A)Determining staining characteristics
B)Understanding the cell structure and biochemical pathways of an organism
C)Understanding the growth requirements of potential pathogens for the body site
D)Knowing the differences in cell walls of particular bacteria
Answer: C
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3
Chapter 2: Host-Parasite Interaction
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Q1) The ability of an organism to produce disease in a susceptible individual is called:
A)pathogenicity.
B)iatrogenic infection.
C)parasitic infection.
D)opportunistic infection.
Answer: A
Q2) The most common bacterial characteristic that allows for evasion of phagocytosis by the host is called:
A)exotoxin production.
B)extracellular enzyme production.
C)pili.
D)polysaccharide capsule.
Answer: D
Q3) The major constituents of the adaptive or specific immune response are:
A)neutrophils.
B)macrophages.
C)monocytes.
D)lymphocytes.
Answer: D
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Page 4
Chapter 3: The Laboratory Role in Infection Control
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Q1) Prisoners or people housed in behavioral health facilities are more likely to contract infections with pathogens from their intimate contact with blood and body fluids.A likely pathogen may be:
A)Pseudomonas aeruginosa.
B)hepatitis C.
C)methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA).
D)Clostridium difficile.
Answer: B
Q2) What types of activities have led to the emergence of the microbiology laboratory as the forefront in keeping Americans safe?
A)Terrorist
B)Research
C)Military
D)Educational
Answer: A
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Chapter 4: Control of Microorganisms
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Q1) Why is laboratory-acquired infection an obvious hazard for personnel working in a microbiology laboratory?
A)Microbiology personnel do not always adhere to safety practices.
B)Safety practices are not applicable for the microbiology laboratory.
C)In-service education is not provided for microbiology staff.
D)Personnel deal with a variety of infectious agents: viral, fungal, parasitic, and bacterial.
Q2) After using the phone, the laboratory tech sprayed the receiver with a chemical spray.This process will kill a defined scope of microorganisms.What is this process called?
A)Sterilization
B)Bacteriostatic
C)Disinfection
D)Bactericidal
Q3) Laboratory safety includes all the following areas except:
A)radioactivity.
B)chemical.
C)isolation.
D)fire.
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6
Chapter 5: Performance Improvement in the Microbiology Laboratory
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Q1) A broken process is fixed when:
A)the problem is prevented from happening again.
B)everyone is happy with the process.
C)the process becomes seamless.
D)the hospital administrator determines that the cross-functional team is no longer needed.
Q2) All of the following provide guidelines to ensure the continual correct performance of tests except:
A)accrediting agencies.
B)regulatory agencies.
C)Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC).
D)manufacturers.
Q3) Customers of a laboratory include all the following except:
A)patients.
B)insurers.
C)doctors.
D)accrediting organizations.
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Page 7
Chapter 6: Specimen Collection and Processing
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Q1) The shipment of clinical specimens and cultures of microorganisms is governed by a complex set of national and international guidelines issued by The Department of:
A)Transportation and the U.S.Postal Service.
B)Agriculture and the United Parcel Service.
C)Energy and Federal Express.
D)Defense and Homeland Security.
Q2) If a 0.001 mL quantitative loop is used to inoculate plate media for a urine culture, each colony of growth represents how many organisms per milliliter in the original sample?
A)1 organism
B)10 organisms
C)100 organisms
D)1000 organisms
Q3) How does the Department of Transportation (DOT) define an infectious substance?
A)Any substance capable of transmitting disease
B)A material known to contain or is suspected of containing a pathogen that causes disease in humans or animals
C)Any substance that can cause disease in animals
D)A bacterium, virus, prion, or virion
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Page 8
Chapter 7: Microscopic Examination of Materials From Infected Sites
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Q1) Contaminating materials include all the following except:
A)crystallized Gram stain.
B)materials not coming from the collection site.
C)materials not contributed by the inflammatory response from the tissues.
D)materials not likely to contain the infecting organism.
Q2) Commonly encountered polymicrobial infections are:
A)perirectal abscesses.
B)indwelling catheter infections.
C)infant meningitis.
D)food poisoning.
Q3) To assist the physician and the laboratory professional in interpreting sputum smears, all of the following local materials are quantitated except:
A)microbial flora.
B)neutrophils.
C)epithelial cells.
D)mucus.
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9
Chapter 8: Use of Colony Morphology for the Presumptive
Identification of Microorganisms
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Q1) A microbiologist is reading a vaginal culture.She sees the very white colonies that are g-hemolytic on a blood agar plate but appear to have feet.What organism could this possibly be?
A)Yeast
B)Gram-positive cocci
C)Gram-negative rods
D)Haemophilus influenzae
Q2) A microbiologist is reading stool culture plates.She sees an organism that has a dry, pink colony with a surrounding "halo" of pink on MacConkey (MAC).What is a good presumptive identification of this organism?
A)Enteric pathogen
B)Escherichia/Citrobacter-like organism
C)Klebsiella/Enterobacter-like organism
D)Haemophilus influenzae
Q3) Colony morphology is defined as colony:
A)characteristics and form.
B)size and color.
C)smell and shape.
D)constitution and environmental conditions.
Page 10
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Chapter 9: Biochemical Identification of Gram-Negative Bacteria
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Sample Questions
Q1) A bacterial DNase is a(n):
A)oligonucleotide formed from a native DNA.
B)oligonucleotide formed from a native RNA.
C)proteolytic enzyme that forms extracellular DNA in the bacterial cell.
D)endonuclease that cleaves internal phosphodiester bonds, resulting in smaller subunits of DNA.
Q2) This identification system for Enterobacteriaceae has a series of 20 cupules attached to a plastic strip.Inside the cupules are lyophilized pH-based substrates.What is the name of this system?
A)ID Tri-Panel
B)API 20E
C)Microbact
D)Enterotube II
Q3) What type of medium is used in the motility test?
A)Semisolid
B)Cornmeal
C)Sabouraud dextrose
D)Peptone gel
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Chapter 10: Immunodiagnosis of Infectious Diseases
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Q1) What can cause a false-positive IgM serologic test?
A)The presence of IgG antibodies
B)The presence of rheumatoid factors
C)The presence of Rh factor
D)The presence of cytomegalovirus (CMV) antibodies
Q2) What is ASO used for?
A)To demonstrate serologic response to streptococcal antigen
B)To determine if a strep has been lysogenized
C)To determine if a strep produces a hemolysin
D)To demonstrate serologic response to Streptococcus pyogenes
Q3) All of the following are identifiable viral agents of gastroenteritis except:
A)Norwalk.
B)rotavirus.
C)enteric adenoviruses.
D)cytomegalovirus (CMV).
Q4) What is one of the biggest uses for Western blot tests in the laboratory today?
A)Confirming antibodies to HIV
B)Confirming antibodies to cytomegalovirus (CMV)
C)Confirming antibodies to rubella
D)DNA sequencing from herpes
Page 12
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Chapter 11: Applications of Molecular Diagnostics
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Sample Questions
Q1) PCR requires all of the following components except:
A)DNA helicase.
B)DNA polymerase.
C)oligonucleotides (primers).
D)deoxynucleotide triphosphates.
Q2) NASBA stands for:
A)nucleic acid sequence-based assay.
B)nucleic acid short-base amplification.
C)nucleic acid sequence-based amplification.
D)nucleotide amplification subsequent-base assay.
Q3) How is the stability of a given hybrid calculated?
A)By calculating the number of certain types of bases in its structure
B)By calculating the length of the hybrid
C)By determining the melting temperature of a probe
D)By determining the ionic strength of the test solution
Q4) The target nucleic acid strand is the:
A)one to which the extra nucleic acid attaches.
B)DNA or RNA sequence unique to the organism of interest.
C)strand that is used as the oligonucleotide primer.
D)one that is labeled with a chromogen.
Page 13
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Chapter 12: Antimicrobial Agent Mechanisms of Action and Resistance
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Q1) Acquired antibiotic resistance mechanisms include:
A)efflux mechanisms.
B)acquisition of new targets.
C)modification of existing antibiotic targets.
D)all of the above.
Q2) The primary mechanism of resistance to this antimicrobial class is modification by mutations encoding single amino acid changes in these targets.What antibiotic class is this?
A)Macrolides
B)Quinolones
C)Peptidoglycans
D)Aminoglycosides
Q3) Both gram-positive and gram-negative bacteria have an inner cytoplasmic membrane that is composed of:
A)nucleotides.
B)phospholipids and proteins.
C)cholesterol and carbohydrates.
D)lipopolysaccharides.
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Chapter 13: Antimicrobial Susceptibility Testing
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Q1) In terms of MIC microdilution trays, a skipped well occurs when:
A)a well on the tray is skipped with inoculum and it does not grow.
B)the inoculator is turned around and the sterility well is accidentally inoculated and the growth well is accidentally skipped.
C)there is growth at higher concentrations and no growth at one or more of the lower concentration wells.
D)none of the above.
Q2) Why would normal flora isolates from immunosuppressed patients undergo antimicrobial susceptibility testing?
A)These are not normal flora; they are other potential pathogens that have the same colonial morphology as normal flora.
B)Species usually viewed as normal flora may be responsible for an infection in an immunosuppressed patient.
C)All bacteria isolated from immunosuppressed patients must have antimicrobial susceptibility tests performed.
D)Cultures from immunosuppressed patients only grow pathogenic organisms that must undergo antimicrobial susceptibility testing.
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Chapter 14: Staphylococci
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Q1) A young, healthy woman was rushed to the hospital with a high fever, hypotension, and shock.She had not been feeling well that day, but her condition progressively worsened throughout the day.She was feeling fine until a couple days after she started menstruating.What condition could this woman be exhibiting?
A)Scalded skin syndrome
B)Toxic epidermal necrolysis
C)Toxic shock syndrome
D)Food poisoning
Q2) How is Staphylococcus saprophyticus presumptively identified?
A)Latex agglutination test for clumping factor
B)Rabbit plasma test for coagulase
C)Novobiocin susceptibility
D)All of the above
Q3) What are the effects of the b-hemolysin produced by Staphylococcus aureus?
A)It acts on sphingomyelin in the plasma membrane of red blood cells.
B)It kills polymorphonuclear leukocytes.
C)It kills macrophages.
D)It lyses red blood cells, damages platelets and macrophages, and can cause severe tissue damage.
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Page 16
Chapter 15: Streptococcus, Enterococcus, and Other
Catalase-Negative, Gram-Positive Cocci
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Q1) Why do Streptococcus pneumoniae colonies on sheep blood agar (SBA) appear like a coin-raised edges and a depressed center?
A)The older growth at the center is smaller due to lack of nutrients.
B)The newer growths on the outside of the colony undergo the quellung reaction.
C)The older growth at the center is killed due to autolysis.
D)The newer growth has a thicker capsule, therefore it appears raised.
Q2) What organism on sheep blood agar (SBA) has colonies that are small and transparent, surrounded by a wide zone of b-hemolysis?
A)Streptococcus agalactiae
B)Streptococcus pyogenes
C)Enterococcus
D)Viridans strep
Q3) Streptokinase is an enzyme produced by group A streptococci that:
A)breaks down staphylococci.
B)breaks down connective tissue.
C)produces a maculopapular rash in rheumatic fever.
D)lyses fibrin clots.
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Page 17
Chapter 16: Aerobic Gram-Positive Bacilli
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Q1) What is one of the most frequently isolated, clinical significant corynebacteria?
A)Corynebacterium ulcerans
B)C.pseudotuberculosis
C)C.urealyticum
D)C.diphtheriae
Q2) What is the name of the bacteria that plays an important role in the health of the female vaginal tract, protecting it against pathogens?
A)Diphtheroids
B)Gardnerella vaginalis
C)Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae
D)Lactobacillus
Q3) What bacteria's morphology is described as large, square-ended, gram-positive or gram-variable rods found singly or in chains?
A)Streptococcus pneumoniae
B)Nocardia asteroids
C)Listeria monocytogenes
D)Bacillus anthracis
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Chapter 17: Neisseria Species and Moraxella Catarrhalis
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Q1) How is Neisseria meningitidis spread?
A)Contaminated food
B)Respiratory droplets
C)Airborne
D)Bloodborne
Q2) All of the following include disadvantages of nucleic acid probes for Neisseria gonorrhoeae except:
A)similar detection sensitivity for cervical cultures in females.
B)not approved for pharyngeal or rectal specimens.
C)do not allow for recovery of an organism to be used for antimicrobial susceptibility testing.
D)are able to identify all N.gonorrhoeae isolates, including b-lactamase-positive strains.
Q3) What does bloodborne dissemination of Neisseria gonorrhoeae usually result in?
A)Pharyngitis
B)Meningitis
C)Purulent arthritis
D)Pelvic inflammatory disease
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19
Chapter 18: Haemophilus and Other Fastidious
Gram-Negative Bacilli
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Q1) All of the following are normal inhabitants of the human oral cavity except Capnocytophaga:
A)fusofurium.
B)gingivalis.
C)ochracea.
D)haemolyticus.
Q2) A microbiologist is reading a sputum culture and notices that there is no growth on the sheep blood and MacConkey agars, but there is growth on the chocolate plate.The colonies on the plate are translucent, moist, smooth, and convex, with a mousy odor.What is the most likely identification of the organism?
A)Haemophilus parainfluenzae
B)H.influenzae
C)H.aegyptius
D)H.ducreyi
Q3) Which species are associated with infections in humans?
A)Haemophilus influenzae
B)H.aegyptius
C)H.ducreyi
D)All of the above
Page 20
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Chapter 19: Enterobacteriaceae
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Q1) In the carrier state, where are pathogenic salmonella carried?
A)Gallbladder
B)Liver
C)Intestines
D)Stomach
Q2) All of the following are characteristics of Shigella spp.except:
A)nonmotile.
B)urea positive.
C)hydrogen sulfide negative.
D)lysine decarboxylase negative.
Q3) Why is it that most cases of salmonella food poisoning are not treated with antibiotics?
A)The organisms are very resistant to antibiotics.
B)Antibiotics cannot reach the organisms, because they are deeply embedded in the intestinal walls.
C)Antibiotics would only kill the bacteria, then release the endotoxins into the blood, making things worse.
D)The disease is self-limiting and will subside on its own.
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Chapter 20: Vibrio, Aeromonas, Plesiomonas, and
Campylobacter Species
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Q1) What is the drug of choice for treating intestinal campylobacteriosis?
A)Erythromycin
B)Gentamicin
C)Vancomycin
D)Imipenem
Q2) How is cholera treated?
A)Tetracycline
B)Copious amounts of intravenous fluids
C)Aminoglycosides with a large amount of intravenous fluids
D)Rest and cold showers
Q3) How is Helicobacter pylori presumptively identified?
A)A culture of a gastric biopsy
B)A culture of gastric scrapings
C)A rapid oxidase test done on gastric scrapings
D)A rapid urease test done on a gastric biopsy
Q4) All of the following are biochemical characteristics of Vibrio spp.except:
A)ferments glucose.
B)reduces nitrate to nitrite.
C)halophilic.
D)oxidase negative.
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Chapter 21: Nonfermenting and Miscellaneous
Gram-Negative Bacilli
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Q1) All of the following are characteristics of nonfermenters except:
A)thin gram-negative bacilli or coccobacilli.
B)oxidase positive.
C)indole positive.
D)resistance to a variety of antimicrobials, such as aminoglycosides, third-generation cephalosporins, penicillins, and fluoroquinolones.
Q2) What is the name of the organisms that colonize 45% of all tracheotomy patients?
A)Acinetobacter spp.
B)Pseudomonas aeruginosa
C)P.mendocina
D)P.fluorescens
Q3) Characteristics of Moraxella include:
A)oxidase positive and nonmotile.
B)biochemically inert and aerobic.
C)susceptible to penicillin and opportunistic pathogens.
D)all of the above.
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Chapter 22: Anaerobes of Clinical Importance
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Q1) How long are anaerobic cultures routinely held in the laboratory?
A)1 to 2 days
B)3 to 4 days
C)5 to 7 days
D)7 to 9 days
Q2) All of the following techniques are used for making definitive identification of anaerobes except:
A)PRAS and non-PRAS tubed biochemical test media.
B)gas-liquid chromatography of metabolic end products.
C)preexisting enzyme-based minisystems.
D)mass spectroscopy.
Q3) What disease does Clostridium botulinum cause?
A)Botulism
B)Tetanus
C)Food poisoning
D)Myonecrosis
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Chapter 23: The Spirochetes
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Q1) An untreated patient develops tertiary syphilis _____ after the initial infection.
A)decades
B)2 to 3 years
C)1 year
D)5 years
Q2) A man is taking a shower and notices this lesion on his penis that is not tender but is firm with a clean surface and raised edges.He is quite dismayed, so he goes to his physician.The physician does a rapid plasmin reagin (RPR) and a darkfield microscopy.Both tests are positive.What is the physician's probable diagnosis?
A)Gonorrhea
B)Nongonococcal urethritis (NGU)
C)Syphilis
D)Human papillomavirus (HPV)
Q3) Where on the body is the secondary syphilis rash typically seen?
A)Chest and back
B)Back and soles
C)Buttocks and palms
D)Palms and soles
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Chapter 24: Chlamydia, Rickettsia and Similar Organisms
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Q1) What organism has been established as a risk factor for Guillain-Barré syndrome?
A)Chlamydophila pneumoniae
B)C.trachomatis
C)C.psittaci
D)C.urealyticum
Q2) What has an outer membrane similar to that of many gram-negative bacteria, with the most prominent feature being the major outer membrane protein?
A)Haemophilus
B)Reticulate body
C)Elementary body (EB)
D)Intracellular parasites
Q3) Fifty years after his release from a concentration camp, a man develop signs and symptoms of typhus.He has no known contacts or source of disease exposure at this time; however, he may have had it in 1945.What is the most likely current diagnosis?
A)Oroya fever
B)Q fever
C)Rocky Mountain spotted fever
D)Brill Zinsser syndrome
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Chapter 25: Mycoplasma and Ureaplasma
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Q1) Mycoplasmas are a different type of bacteria because they do not have a:
A)cell wall.
B)cell membrane.
C)nuclear membrane.
D)messenger transporter.
Q2) When transporting specimens for Mycoplasma culture to the laboratory, extreme care must be taken so that the specimen does not:
A)become contaminated.
B)leak from the specimen container.
C)become overgrown with bacterial normal flora.
D)dry out.
Q3) What test method is used to detect antibodies to Mycoplasma spp.?
A)Complement fixation (CF)
B)Enzyme immunoassay (EIA)
C)Direct fluorescent antibody (DFA)
D)Cellulose ion exchange (CIE)
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Chapter 26: Mycobacterium Tuberculosis and Nontuberculous Mycobacteria
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Q1) What classifies an organism as a multidrug-resistant Mycobacterium tuberculosis?
A)Organisms resistant to at least isoniazid and rifampin
B)Organisms resistant to isoniazid, rifampin, ethambutol, and streptomycin
C)Organisms resistant to streptomycin and rifampin
D)Organisms resistant to ciprofloxacin and imipenem
Q2) What is the purpose of the digestion-decontamination processing of specimens submitted for mycobacterial culture?
A)To release all bacteria in the sample
B)To make the specimen easier to plate
C)To allow chemical decontaminants to kill nonmycobacterial organisms
D)To liquefy the outer cell wall of the mycobacteria so that they will grow faster
Q3) How are mycobacterial infections transmitted?
A)By blood
B)By fomites
C)By sexual contact
D)By air
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Chapter 27: Medically Significant Fungi
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Q1) What organism is found in the San Joaquin Valley region of California?
A)Sporothrix schenckii
B)Penicillium marneffei
C)Coccidioides immitis
D)Paracoccidioides brasiliensis
Q2) A patient with very pale patches on his arms and legs is examined at his physician's office.His physician orders a fungal culture.The fungus shows a spaghetti-and-meatball appearance on the direct smear.What organism is it?
A)Microsporum canis
B)Malassezia furfur
C)Trichophyton rubrum
D)Epidermophyton floccosum
Q3) All of the following organisms cause cutaneous mycoses except:
A)Sporothrix schenckii.
B)Trichophyton beigelii.
C)Microsporum canis.
D)Epidermophyton floccosum.
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Chapter 28: Diagnostic Parasitology
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Q1) When a request is submitted to examine a blood sample for malaria, which of the following procedures should be performed?
A)A thick smear for maximum detection and to determine morphology
B)A PVA trichrome-stained blood smear
C)A Giemsa thick blood smear preparation for maximum detection and a thin smear for speciation
D)A formalin-ethyl acetate concentration for detection and a thin smear for speciation
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Chapter 29: Clinical Virology
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Q1) What virus is the most common cause of arboviral encephalitis in the world?
A)Ebola
B)Japanese encephalitis virus
C)Venezuelan equine encephalitis virus
D)Eastern equine encephalitis virus
Q2) All of the following methods are used as culture techniques to detect viruses except:
A)cell culture.
B)animal inoculation.
C)embryonated eggs.
D)media culture.
Q3) All the following are direct methods for diagnosing viral infections except:
A)indirect fluorescent antibody (IFA).
B)direct fluorescent antibody (DFA).
C)radioimmunoassay (RIA).
D)enzyme immunoassay (EIA).
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Chapter 30: Agents of Bioterror and Forensic Microbiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) How is smallpox diagnosed?
A)Through a Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) algorithm
B)By clinical signs
C)Through cell culture
D)All of the above
Q2) Viral hemorrhagic fevers include all the following except:
A)Ebola.
B)Crimean-Congo.
C)Lassa fever.
D)black fever.
Q3) What organism caused the disease known as the Black Death?
A)Brucella mallei
B)Bacillus anthracis
C)Yersinia pestis
D)Burkholderia cepacia
Q4) How can biological weapons enter the host?
A)Through the respiratory tract
B)Through the gastrointestinal (GI) tract
C)Through the mucous membranes
D)All of the above
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Chapter 31: Biofilms: Architects of Disease
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Sample Questions
Q1) Biofilms can protect its members from all of the following except:
A)antibodies.
B)oxygen-reactive molecules.
C)antimicrobial drugs.
D)phagocytosis.
Q2) In which step of the infectious process could biofilms help bacteria when it comes to developing colonization of indwelling medical devices?
A)Downregulation
B)Phenotypic variation
C)Genotypic variation
D)Attachment
Q3) What is a biofilm?
A)Communities of organisms attached to a solid surface
B)The resulting thick, slimy mucous produced in cystic fibrosis
C)A slime factor that can be found in your gastrointestinal tract
D)The resulting film that is produced by necrotic tissue, bacteria, and immune cells
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Chapter 32: Upper and Lower Respiratory Tract Infections
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the cause of reduced clearance of respiratory secretions that predisposes people to respiratory infections?
A)Obstruction of a foreign body
B)Alterations in the viscosity of the mucus
C)Immature anatomic development
D)All of the above
Q2) Chronic pneumonia is a:
A)viral pneumonia that lasts for months.
B)pneumonia that is caused by a slow-growing bacteria such as Bacillus anthracis and takes months to resolve.
C)bacterial pneumonia that becomes resistant to antibiotic therapy.
D)pneumonia that appears to resolve clinically, but where radiographic lung abnormalities persist for a long period.
Q3) Empyema is a collection of:
A)fluid in the lung resulting from the pathogenesis of bacterial pathogens.
B)fluid in the lung resulting from the pathogenesis of viral pathogens.
C)purulent fluid in the pleural space between the lung and the chest wall.
D)purulent fluid in the bronchii and alveoli.
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34
Chapter 33: Skin and Soft Tissue Infections
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Sample Questions
Q1) A group of swim team members breaks out in a rash (folliculitis) the day after swimming at the pool.What organism is probably responsible for this outbreak?
A)Staphylococcus aureus
B)Enterococcus
C)Escherichia coli
D)Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Q2) What happens in the late stages of toxic shock syndrome as a result of the production of TSST-1?
A)Bruising
B)Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)
C)Desquamation
D)Bacteremia
Q3) What is the most common bacterium found on the skin?
A)Coagulase-negative staphylococci
B)Coagulase-negative streptococci
C)Escherichia coli
D)Pseudomonas aeruginosa
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Chapter 34: Gastrointestinal Infections and Food Poisoning
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Sample Questions
Q1) What organism grows best at 42° C and in a reduced oxygen atmosphere (5% to 10%)?
A)Shigella sonnei
B)Clostridium difficile
C)Campylobacter jejuni
D)Escherichia coli
Q2) All the following organisms invade the bowel mucosal surface to produce diarrhea except:
A)Salmonella spp.
B)Vibrio cholerae.
C)Campylobacter spp.
D)Shigella spp.
Q3) Why is the travel history of the patient important when evaluating a person with acute diarrhea?
A)Travel to different countries puts one at risk for various infections.
B)Some countries are dirtier than others.
C)The United States is clean, and usually bad infections cannot be contracted here.
D)All of the above.
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Chapter 35: Infections of the Central Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the volume of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) in an average adult?
A)90 to 150 mL
B)15 to 45 mL
C)40 to 80 mL
D)200 to 300 mL
Q2) All of the following are common causes of viral encephalitis except:
A)herpes viruses.
B)enteroviruses.
C)arboviruses.
D)toroviruses.
Q3) What condition is characterized by lymphocytic pleocytosis in the cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) but a lack of identifiable organism after routine culture and Gram stain?
A)Purulent meningitis
B)Septic meningitis
C)Aseptic meningitis
D)Malignant meningitis
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Chapter 36: Bacteremia and Sepsis
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Sample Questions
Q1) How does a biofilm protect the organism from host defenses?
A)By inhibiting phagocytosis
B)By inhibiting chemotaxis
C)By suppressing the lymphoproliferative response
D)All of the above
Q2) What condition leads to most (75%) of the cases of bacteremia arising from intra-abdominal infections?
A)Pleurisy
B)Cholecystitis
C)Peritonitis
D)Irritable bowel syndrome
Q3) Lipopolysaccharide in gram-negative bacteria and the lipoteichoic acid and peptidoglycan in gram-positive bacteria cause which of the following to be released in the human body?
A)Tumor necrosis factor
B)Interleukin (IL)-1
C)IL-6
D)All of the above
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Chapter 37: Urinary Tract Infections
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Sample Questions
Q1) The symptoms of pyelonephritis include all the following except:
A)flank pain.
B)costovertebral angle tenderness.
C)fevers.
D)septicemia.
Q2) Urine cultures are performed for all the following reasons except to:
A)test for Chlamydia.
B)confirm a cure.
C)detect asymptomatic bacteriuria in pregnant women.
D)evaluate for bacteremia.
Q3) All of the following are reasons why institutionalized patients have more urinary tract infections (UTIs) than noninstitutionalized patients except:
A)general ill condition of institutionalized patients.
B)less frequent emptying of the bladder.
C)higher probability of urinary tract instrumentation.
D)higher incidence of urinary tract anatomic or functional abnormalities.
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Chapter 38: Genital Infections and Sexually Transmitted Diseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is required for culturing Chlamydia?
A)Embryonated chicks
B)Thayer-Martin, modified (MTM) media
C)Martin-Lewis (ML) media
D)Tissue cultures
Q2) What cells are found in bacterial vaginosis?
A)Clue cells
B)Lymphocytes
C)Macrophages
D)Squamous epithelial cells
Q3) What test is sufficient for a diagnosis of Neisseria gonorrhoeae in men?
A)Culture
B)Gram stain
C)Enzyme immunoassay (EIA)
D)Radioimmunoassay (RIA)
Q4) How is genital herpes spread?
A)Hot tubs infected with herpes
B)Towels used by people with herpes
C)Contaminated toilet seats
D)Sexual contact with secretions from infected sites
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Chapter 39: Infections in Special Populations
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Q1) What are patients called who have a serious disease and who are highly predisposed to infections by a variety of opportunistic bacterial, fungal, parasitic, and viral pathogens?
A)Elderly compromised
B)Immunocompromised
C)Defective responders
D)Extraneous responders
Q2) What two parasitic agents commonly affect patients with malignancy?
A)Giardia lamblia and Listeria monocytogenes
B)Strongyloides stercoralis and Giardia lamblia
C)Pneumocystis jirovecii (carinii) and Toxoplasma gondii
D)Toxoplasma gondii and Wuchereria bancrofti
Q3) Organisms that are commonly associated with ventilator-associated pneumonia include:
A)Pseudomonas aeruginosa.
B)Streptococcus pyogenes.
C)Mycobacterium tuberculosis.
D)Clostridium difficile.
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Chapter 40: Zoonotic Diseases
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Q1) All of the following organisms cause cat scratch disease in humans except:
A)Bartonella henselae.
B)Bartonella clarridgeiae.
C)Borrelia burgdorferi.
D)Bartonella vinsonii subsp.vinsonii.
Q2) What disease is transmitted by Ixodes dammini?
A)Plague
B)Lyme disease
C)Rocky Mountain spotted fever
D)Colorado tick fever
Q3) Zoonotic infections that jump from animal to human and then can be transmitted human to human, include all the following except:
A)human immunodeficiency virus (HIV).
B)tularemia.
C)Ebola virus.
D)severe acute respiratory syndrome (SARS).
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Chapter 41: Ocular Infections
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Sample Questions
Q1) What condition is considered a true ocular emergency?
A)Conjunctivitis
B)Blepharitis
C)Microbial keratitis
D)Yellowing of the sclera
Q2) Which of the following make up the majority of indigenous ocular microbial flora?
A)Mobiluncus and Lactobacillus
B)Coagulase-negative Staphylococcus and Corynebacteria
C)Coagulase-negative Staphylococcus and Lactobacillus
D)Moraxella and Corynebacteria
Q3) What contains enzymes and other factors that protect the conjunctiva from microbial invasion?
A)Skin
B)Tears
C)Upper lid
D)Lower lid
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