Pathogenic Microbiology
Final Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Pathogenic Microbiology explores the molecular and cellular basis of diseases caused by microorganisms, including bacteria, viruses, fungi, and parasites. The course examines the mechanisms of microbial pathogenesis, host immune responses, and the epidemiology, diagnosis, treatment, and prevention of infectious diseases. Emphasis is placed on understanding the interactions between pathogens and their hosts, virulence factors, and the development of antimicrobial resistance. Through case studies and laboratory techniques, students gain practical experience in identifying pathogens and studying infectious disease outbreaks.
Recommended Textbook
Textbook of Diagnostic Microbiology 5th Edition by Connie R. Mahon
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Bacterial Cell Structure, Physiology, Metabolism, and Genetics
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following statements are true about viruses except viruses:
A)consist of DNA or RNA but not both.
B)are acellular but are surrounded by a protein coat.
C)can infect bacteria, plants, and animals.
D)do not need host cells to survive and grow.
Answer: D
Q2) When performing a Gram stain on a gram-negative organism, the crystal violet is absorbed into this outer cell wall layer, then washed away with the acetone alcohol.What is the main component of the outer layer of the cell wall?
A)Peptidoglycan
B)Mycolic acid
C)N-acetyl-d-muramic acid
D)Lipopolysaccharide
Answer: D
Q3) _____ enzymes cut the bacterial DNA at specific locations.
A)Bacteriophage
B)Restriction
C)Temperate lysogeny
D)Conjugation
Answer: B
Page 3
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Chapter 2: Host-Parasite Interaction
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Q1) Lysozyme is a(n):
A)antibody produced by the skin.
B)low-molecular-weight enzyme that hydrolyzes the peptidoglycan layer of bacterial cell walls.
C)exotoxin that digests the lipopolysaccharide layer of the bacterial cell wall.
D)radical similar to hydrogen peroxide.
Answer: B
Q2) Changes in what host structures can result in lower virulence of a microorganism?
A)Pili
B)Adhesin receptors
C)Surface polysaccharides
D)Phagocytes
Answer: B
Q3) The classic example of a bite-wound infection is: A)rabies.
B)S.aureus.
C)plague.
D)Ebola.
Answer: A
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Page 4
Chapter 3: The Laboratory Role in Infection Control
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Q1) Although environmental cultures are not usually performed because the environment is rarely implicated in disease transmission, they occasionally are useful.Samples will be taken from all of the following except: A)air.
B)water.
C)hands.
D)surfaces.
Answer: C
Q2) To keep abreast of all infections that occur in the hospital, infection control practitioners set up surveillance programs.These surveillance programs look at which parameter to determine if there are more or fewer infections in a given period?
A)Antimicrobial susceptibility reports
B)Infection rates
C)Handwashing rates
D)Glove usage
Answer: B
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Chapter 4: Control of Microorganisms
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Q1) Disinfectants are usually used at temperatures of:
A)50° to 100° C.
B)0° to 10° C.
C)25° to 50° C.
D)20° to 22° C.
Q2) What two alcohols are effective in killing the hepatitis B virus (HBV)?
A)50% isopropyl and 50% butanol
B)95% propanol and 70% ethanol
C)70% isopropyl and 95% ethanol
D)70% pentanol and 70% isopropyl
Q3) Which topical antiseptic disrupts the microbial cell membrane and precipitates the cellular contents?
A)Chlorhexidine gluconate
B)Povidone-iodine
C)95% Ethanol
D)60% Isopropyl alcohol
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6
Chapter 5: Performance Improvement in the Microbiology
Laboratory
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Q1) When choosing a test to perform in your laboratory, an in-house verification is always performed.Verification of a test:
A)serves to establish that the performance parameters of the test are satisfactory.
B)lets technicians actually perform the test.
C)lets physicians perform the test.
D)allows laboratory management to view positive results.
Q2) When a medium needs to be quality controlled because it was prepared in-house or because it is complex, all the following rules must be followed except:
A)only media not specified in Clinical and Laboratory Standards Institute (CLSI) guidelines should be tested.
B)the medium should be tested for sterility and pH.
C)the organism selected for quality control testing should represent most fastidious organisms for which the medium is designed.
D)testing techniques should be different for primary plating media than for biochemical or subculturing media.
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Chapter 6: Specimen Collection and Processing
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Q1) All of the following are questions that the microbiology technologist will ask while reading and interpreting the growth of cultures except:
A)What is the source of the culture?
B)How long has this culture been incubated?
C)Does this source have normal flora, or is it a sterile source?
D)What are the most likely pathogens in this specimen?
Q2) Data generated by the laboratory is directly influenced by:
A)the quality of the specimen and its condition when received.
B)the physician's decision to do the test.
C)quality control performed on a monthly basis.
D)the air quality in the laboratory.
Q3) The goal of the specimen collector when collecting specimens for culture should be to:
A)make sure the specimen gets to the laboratory.
B)avoid hurting the patient when collecting the specimen.
C)maintain the viability of the living organisms at the site with minimal contamination. D)get the specimen quickly to get the doctor off the collector's back.
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Chapter 7: Microscopic Examination of Materials From Infected Sites
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Q1) Because cell wall-damaged bacteria, antibiotic-treated bacteria, or dead bacteria may appear falsely gram-negative, what are "critical cocharacteristics"?
A)Color and cell wall composition
B)Growth characteristics
C)Shape and size
D)Size and color
Q2) Culture results:
A)confirm the correctness of the therapeutic choices already made and implemented.
B)help the physician select an antibiotic for treatment.
C)must be confirmed before initiating antibiotic treatment for a patient.
D)help confirm the patient's high white blood count.
Q3) Commonly encountered polymicrobial infections are:
A)perirectal abscesses.
B)indwelling catheter infections.
C)infant meningitis.
D)food poisoning.
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9
Chapter 8: Use of Colony Morphology for the Presumptive
Identification of Microorganisms
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Q1) Colony morphology is defined as colony:
A)characteristics and form.
B)size and color.
C)smell and shape.
D)constitution and environmental conditions.
Q2) All of the following characteristics are used to describe bacterial colony characteristics except:
A)temperature.
B)hemolysis.
C)color.
D)elevation.
Q3) The elevation of bacterial colonies is described by all the following except: A)raised.
B)pointed.
C)convex.
D)umbilicate.
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Chapter 9: Biochemical Identification of Gram-Negative Bacteria
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Q1) Bacteria demonstrating weak decarboxylase activity:
A)will have a false-negative test.
B)may take up to 4 days to be positive.
C)require extra reagents to show the positive reaction.
D)will have a false-positive test.
Q2) Decarboxylase tests exist for all the following amino acids except: A)lysine.
B)tyrosine.
C)ornithine.
D)arginine.
Q3) Which test determines if an organism is a delayed lactose-fermenter?
A)b-Galactosidase
B)Dihydroxylase
C)Nitrate
D)Ortho-nitrophenyl-b-D-galactopyranoside (ONPG) test
Q4) The methyl red test detects metabolic by-products from what pathway?
A)Mixed acid fermentation pathway
B)Butylene glycol pathway
C)Citrate pathway
D)Clark and Lubs pathway
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Chapter 10: Immunodiagnosis of Infectious Diseases
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Q1) What tests are performed on newborns to detect congenital infections?
A)TORCH
B)TWAR
C)CMV
D)HIV
Q2) Indirect agglutination is also referred to as:
A)passive agglutination.
B)incomplete agglutination.
C)active agglutination.
D)flocculation.
Q3) In precipitation assays, what is the precipitate made out of?
A)Complement and protein complex
B)Antibody and protein complex
C)Antigen and antibody complex
D)Antigen and protein complex
Q4) Antibodies for many antigens can be passively acquired in:
A)vaccinations.
B)flu shots.
C)intravenous immunoglobulin therapy.
D)all of the above.
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Chapter 11: Applications of Molecular Diagnostics
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Q1) NASBA stands for:
A)nucleic acid sequence-based assay.
B)nucleic acid short-base amplification.
C)nucleic acid sequence-based amplification.
D)nucleotide amplification subsequent-base assay.
Q2) How do higher probe concentrations affect a given hybridization reaction?
A)Increase the temperature.
B)Lower the reaction time.
C)Lower the ionic strength.
D)Increase the pH.
Q3) Many hybridization assay conditions are based on the expectation that a probe:
A)will quickly react with the complementary target sequence.
B)is not sterically hindered in the reaction.
C)has exact complementarity to the target nucleic acid.
D)will not require any oligonucleotides to attach to the target.
Q4) What cation is required for the proper function of the Taq DNA polymerase?
A)Ca
B)Na
C)K
D)Mg
Page 13
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Chapter 12: Antimicrobial Agent Mechanisms of Action and Resistance
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Q1) Integrons are:
A)circular structures present in bacteria that contain genes encoding proteins and RNA and have the capacity to self-replicate and portion into daughter cells during cellular division.
B)DNA elements that encode transposition and excision function and can transpose from one place on the chromosome to another.
C)genetic elements capable of integrating resistance genes (cassettes) by an integron-encoded, site-specific recombinase.
D)DNA elements found in bacteria that carry genes only for the enzymes needed to promote their own transposition.
Q2) All of the following are b-lactam antibiotics except: A)penems.
B)monobactams.
C)carbapenems.
D)monoterpenes.
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Chapter 13: Antimicrobial Susceptibility Testing
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Q1) Once zone measurements have been made, the millimeter reading for each antimicrobial agent is:
A)sent to the physician to determine the appropriateness of antibiotic therapy for his patient.
B)converted into minimal inhibitory concentration (MIC) units.
C)interpreted as susceptible, intermediate, or resistant.
D)none of the above.
Q2) What is the storage temperature for frozen panels?
A)0° C
B)-20° to -70° C
C)-75° to -100° C
D)273 K
Q3) In the Kirby-Bauer test, what is used to grow streptococci that do not grow adequately on unsupplemented Mueller-Hinton agar?
A)Chocolate agar
B)PEA agar
C)Mueller-Hinton agar with 5% sheep blood
D)Mueller-Hinton agar with 5% rabbit blood
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15
Chapter 14: Staphylococci
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Q1) A young man goes to his physician complaining of large, raised, suppurative abscesses on his neck.The man denies having a fever or the chills.What is the name of the lesions on his neck, and what organism causes this type of lesions?
A)Staphylococcus epidermidis and boils
B)S.aureus and furuncles
C)S.saprophyticus and carbuncles
D)S.sciuri and folliculitis
Q2) Automated antimicrobial susceptibility testing methods are not reliable in detecting these resistant staphylococci.What antibiotic are the bacteria resistant to?
A)Vancomycin
B)Erythromycin
C)Clindamycin
D)All of the above
Q3) Infections caused by Staphylococcus aureus are suppurative, meaning:
A)these infections ooze lymph fluid.
B)the infection is filled with pus and necrotic tissues.
C)the acute inflammatory response gorges the area with red blood cells.
D)the toxins activate the coagulation system, which isolates the infection.
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Chapter 15: Streptococcus, Enterococcus, and Other
Catalase-Negative, Gram-Positive Cocci
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Q1) Which of the following is the drug of choice for treating most streptococcal infections?
A)Erythromycin
B)Cephalothin
C)Penicillin
D)Gentamicin
Q2) What causes the red spreading rash in scarlet fever?
A)Hyaluronidase
B)Streptolysin O
C)Streptococcal pyrogenic exotoxins
D)Streptolysin S
Q3) What is the hemolysin responsible for hemolysis on SBA incubated anaerobically?
A)Hyaluronidase
B)Streptolysin O
C)Streptolysin D
D)Hemolysin O
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Chapter 16: Aerobic Gram-Positive Bacilli
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Q1) What is the name of the Nocardia sp.that causes a chronic confluent bronchopneumonia?
A)Nocardia nova
B)N.brasiliensis
C)N.asteroides
D)N.transvalensis
Q2) What organism shows diphtheroid gram-positive rods with traces of branching on a Gram stain?
A)Rothia dentocariosa
B)Rhodococcus equi
C)Listeria monocytogenes
D)Corynebacterium diphtheriae
Q3) What is the name of the genus whose members are called nocardioforms?
A)Gordonia
B)Weimeronia
C)Rhodococcus
D)Tsukamurella
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18
Chapter 17: Neisseria Species and Moraxella Catarrhalis
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Q1) A microbiologist reading genital cultures on a Martin-Lewis plate should look for what colonial morphology if Neisseria gonorrhoeae is suspected?
A)Large, white, creamy
B)Small, tan, translucent
C)Small, white, transparent
D)Small, rough, transparent
Q2) The symptoms of meningococcal meningitis include all of the following except:
A)frontal headache.
B)stiff neck.
C)backache.
D)fever.
Q3) A microbiologist is reading CTA sugars from a vaginal culture that grew an oxidase-positive, gram-negative cocci.Only the glucose tube is yellow.What is the organism?
A)Neisseria meningitidis
B)N.sicca
C)N.gonorrhoeae
D)N.lactamica
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19
Chapter 18: Haemophilus and Other Fastidious
Gram-Negative Bacilli
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Q1) A mother brings her lethargic, feverish baby into the emergency department.The baby is diagnosed with meningitis and the doctor does a spinal tap.The cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) Gram stain shows many tiny gram-negative rods.What is the most probable identification of this organism?
A)Haemophilus influenzae serotype b
B)H.parainfluenzae
C)H.aegyptius
D)H.aphrophilus
Q2) What is the name of the disease that is characterized by rapid onset, acute inflammation, and intense edema that may cause complete airway obstruction in 2- to 4-year-olds?
A)Cellulitis
B)Epiglottitis
C)Meningitis
D)Conjunctivitis
Q3) What is the most frequently isolated Pasteurella species?
A)P.multocida
B)P.septica
C)P.gallicida
D)P.canis
Page 20
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Chapter 19: Enterobacteriaceae
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Q1) All of the following are members of the Citrobacter genus except:
A)Citrobacter freundii.
B)C.koseri.
C)C.asteroides.
D)C.braakii.
Q2) What substance, when produced by the Salmonella spp., which cause gastroenteritis, has been implicated as a significant virulence factor?
A)Hyaluronidase
B)Protease
C)Enterotoxin
D)Endotoxin
Q3) Which animals are a common source of Salmonella serotypes?
A)Dogs
B)Cold-blooded animals (fish)
C)Cats
D)Horses
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Chapter 20: Vibrio, Aeromonas, Plesiomonas, and
Campylobacter Species
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Q1) All of the following are biochemical characteristics of Vibrio spp.except:
A)ferments glucose.
B)reduces nitrate to nitrite.
C)halophilic.
D)oxidase negative.
Q2) What type of an atmosphere do campylobacters require for growth?
A)Microaerophilic and capnophilic
B)Anaerobic and moist
C)Capnophilic and halophilic
D)Microaerophilic and high nitrogen content
Q3) Campy-BAP contains:
A)Brucella agar base, 10% sheep red blood cells, vancomycin, trimethoprim, polymyxin B, amphotericin B, and cephalothin.
B)Columbia agar base, 5% sheep red blood cells, erythromycin, spectinomycin, Diflucan, and ampicillin.
C)Brucella agar base, 5% sheep red blood cells, Zithromax, sulfamethoxazole, nystatin, amphotericin B, and imipenem.
D)Columbia agar base, glycerol, L-cysteine, hemin, streptomycin, amphotericin B, and gentamicin.
Page 22
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Chapter 21: Nonfermenting and Miscellaneous
Gram-Negative Bacilli
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Q1) What is unique about the Sphingobacterium spp.?
A)Sphingomyelin in the cell wall
B)Cholesterol in the cell wall
C)Sphingophospholipids in the cell wall
D)Collagen in the cell wall
Q2) What substances do nonfermenters fail to ferment in traditional media?
A)Lipids
B)Carbohydrates
C)Proteins
D)Alkaloids
Q3) What organism is associated with pneumonia in patients with cystic fibrosis or chronic granulomatous disease (CGD)?
A)Stenotrophomonas maltophilia
B)Pseudomonas putida
C)Pseudomonas fluorescens
D)Burkholderia cepacia
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23
Chapter 22: Anaerobes of Clinical Importance
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Q1) All of the following techniques are used for making definitive identification of anaerobes except:
A)PRAS and non-PRAS tubed biochemical test media.
B)gas-liquid chromatography of metabolic end products.
C)preexisting enzyme-based minisystems.
D)mass spectroscopy.
Q2) An obligate anaerobe is an organisms that:
A)requires some oxygen but moderate concentrations of CO2 to live.
B)requires small amounts of oxygen and carbon dioxide to live.
C)grows only in the absence of molecular oxygen.
D)can live with very little oxygen.
Q3) Gram stains of specimens for anaerobic cultures should be examined for all the following reasons except:
A)the Gram stain reveals various types and relative number of bacteria present.
B)certain morphotypes may provide a presumptive identification and will guide media selection.
C)the Gram stain often reveals the presence of leukocytes.
D)the Clinical and Laboratory Standards Institute (CLSI) guidelines recommend Gram stains on all anaerobic specimens.
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Page 24
Chapter 23: The Spirochetes
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Q1) What is a confirmatory test for a positive rapid plasmin reagin (RPR)?
A)Venereal Disease Research Laboratory (VDRL)
B)Fluorescent treponemal antibody, absorbed (FTA-ABS)
C)Enzyme immunoassay (EIA)
D)Darkfield
Q2) Spirochetes are made up of all the following except:
A)Helicobacter.
B)Leptospira.
C)Borrelia.
D)Treponema.
Q3) What diseases do Borrelia spp.cause?
A)Undulant and hemorrhagic fevers
B)Lyme disease and parrot fever
C)Rocky Mountain spotted fever and relapsing fever
D)Lyme disease and relapsing fever
Q4) What is the drug of choice for treating Borrelia infections?
A)Aminoglycosides
B)Macrolides
C)Tetracyclines
D)Penicillins
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Chapter 24: Chlamydia, Rickettsia and Similar Organisms
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Q1) Why are antibody detection methods for Chlamydia trachomatis infection severely limited in the knowledge they provide the physician?
A)Because C.trachomatis is an intracellular parasite, the body does not produce antibodies against it.
B)Only IgE antibodies are produced against C.trachomatis.
C)Many people have antibodies from previous infections, and local infections do not cause great increases in antibody levels.
D)All of the above.
Q2) What organism has been established as a risk factor for Guillain-Barré syndrome?
A)Chlamydophila pneumoniae
B)C.trachomatis
C)C.psittaci
D)C.urealyticum
Q3) Infants can contract all the following chlamydial infections when passing through the birth canal except:
A)conjunctivitis.
B)nasopharyngeal infections.
C)pneumonia.
D)endocarditis.
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Page 26
Chapter 25: Mycoplasma and Ureaplasma
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Q1) If a newborn has symptoms of meningitis but the cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) is negative for both Gram stain and a routine culture, what organisms should be suspected?
A)Neisseria gonorrhea and Chlamydia trachomatis
B)Treponema pallidum and Borrelia burgdorferi
C)Mycoplasma hominis and Ureaplasma urealyticum
D)M.pneumoniae and C.trachomatis
Q2) Which factor is added to media to provide cholesterol for mycoplasma-like organisms?
A)Trypticase soy digest
B)20% fetal calf serum
C)X and V factor supplement
D)5% sheep blood
Q3) Which antibiotic is added to mycoplasma isolation and transport media to minimize bacterial contamination?
A)Tetracycline
B)Penicillin
C)Erythromycin
D)Gentamicin
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Page 27
Chapter 26: Mycobacterium Tuberculosis and Nontuberculous Mycobacteria
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Q1) A child visits his doctor because he has had a fever and a nonproductive cough.The child is also short of breath.The doctor orders a routine sputum culture and an acid-fast bacillus (AFB) culture and smear.The smear shows red organisms arranged in ropes.What is the most probable cause of this child's fever and cough?
A)Mycobacterium leprae
B)M.avium
C)M.intracellulare
D)M.tuberculosis
Q2) What is the optimum culture incubation time for most mycobacteria associated with human disease?
A)2 to 6 weeks
B)1 to 2 weeks
C)5 to 7 days
D)3 to 5 days
Q3) How long does it take to detect Mycobacterium spp.with the BACTEC method?
A)Less than 2 weeks
B)3 weeks
C)4 weeks
D)6 weeks
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Chapter 27: Medically Significant Fungi
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Q1) A patient with very pale patches on his arms and legs is examined at his physician's office.His physician orders a fungal culture.The fungus shows a spaghetti-and-meatball appearance on the direct smear.What organism is it?
A)Microsporum canis
B)Malassezia furfur
C)Trichophyton rubrum
D)Epidermophyton floccosum
Q2) What organism is one of the primary opportunistic infections in AIDS patients?
A)Pneumocystis jirovecii
B)Hortaea werneckii
C)Coccidioides immitis
D)Paracoccidioides brasiliensis
Q3) All of the following are examples of dimorphic fungi except:
A)Candida albicans.
B)Coccidioides immitis.
C)Histoplasma capsulatum.
D)Sporothrix schenckii.
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Chapter 28: Diagnostic Parasitology
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Q1) When a request is submitted to examine a blood sample for malaria, which of the following procedures should be performed?
A)A thick smear for maximum detection and to determine morphology
B)A PVA trichrome-stained blood smear
C)A Giemsa thick blood smear preparation for maximum detection and a thin smear for speciation
D)A formalin-ethyl acetate concentration for detection and a thin smear for speciation
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Chapter 29: Clinical Virology
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Q1) Which of the following is the description of cytopathic effects in viral culture?
A)The way viruses kill the infected host cell
B)The visual changes produced in an infected cell by a virus
C)The tears that the virus puts in an infected host cell's membrane
D)The way the virus lyses the infected cell after all the new virus particles are formed and ready to be released.
Q2) What disease does the varicella zoster virus (VZV) cause?
A)Mumps
B)Genital warts
C)Chickenpox
D)Rubella
Q3) Which virus is a bloodborne pathogen?
A)Hepatitis A virus (HAV)
B)Rabies
C)Hepatitis C virus (HCV)
D)Norovirus
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Chapter 30: Agents of Bioterror and Forensic Microbiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) What organism caused the disease known as the Black Death?
A)Brucella mallei
B)Bacillus anthracis
C)Yersinia pestis
D)Burkholderia cepacia
Q2) What is the specimen of choice for cutaneous anthrax?
A)Blood
B)Spinal fluid
C)Vesicular fluid from lesions
D)Sputum
Q3) All of the following are synonyms for brucellosis except _____ fever.
A)Malta
B)undulant
C)Gibraltar
D)relapsing
Q4) How is smallpox diagnosed?
A)Through a Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) algorithm
B)By clinical signs
C)Through cell culture
D)All of the above
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Chapter 31: Biofilms: Architects of Disease
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Q1) What is stage V of biofilm development?
A)Spreading phase
B)Multiplication phase
C)Cell dispersion
D)Layering phase
Q2) What is a biofilm?
A)Communities of organisms attached to a solid surface
B)The resulting thick, slimy mucous produced in cystic fibrosis
C)A slime factor that can be found in your gastrointestinal tract
D)The resulting film that is produced by necrotic tissue, bacteria, and immune cells
Q3) How do microorganisms that live in close proximity exchange DNA?
A)Frame-shift mutations and plasmid uptake
B)Transformation and conjugation
C)Conjugation and frame-shift mutations
D)All of the above
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33
Chapter 32: Upper and Lower Respiratory Tract Infections
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the immunocompromised circumstances listed here is a form of functional immunodeficiency?
A)Sex
B)Age
C)Chronic illness
D)Pregnancy
Q2) What is the cause of reduced clearance of respiratory secretions that predisposes people to respiratory infections?
A)Obstruction of a foreign body
B)Alterations in the viscosity of the mucus
C)Immature anatomic development
D)All of the above
Q3) Nosocomial pneumonia are commonly caused by all of the following except:
A)Pseudomonas aeruginosa.
B)Streptococcus pneumoniae.
C)Acinetobacter baumannii.
D)methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA).
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34
Chapter 33: Skin and Soft Tissue Infections
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following organisms are responsible for impetigo?
A)Staphylococcus epidermidis
B)Streptococcus pyogenes
C)Enterococcus faecalis
D)Streptococcus agalactiae
Q2) What organism, which usually causes respiratory infections, causes maculopapular and vesicular rashes, urticaria, and immunologically mediated erythema nodosum and erythema multiform?
A)Streptococcus pneumoniae
B)Klebsiella pneumoniae
C)Mycoplasma pneumoniae
D)Haemophilus influenzae
Q3) What disease results from a reactivation of the varicella-zoster virus that demonstrates a vesicular eruption in a unilateral dermatomal distribution?
A)Shingles
B)Chicken pox
C)Infectious mononucleosis
D)Rubella
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Chapter 34: Gastrointestinal Infections and Food Poisoning
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Sample Questions
Q1) All the following organisms invade the bowel mucosal surface to produce diarrhea except:
A)Salmonella spp.
B)Vibrio cholerae.
C)Campylobacter spp.
D)Shigella spp.
Q2) A microbiologist is reading a Gram stain and observes gram-negative, curved rods with a seagull-wing appearance.What organism could this be?
A)Campylobacter or Vibrio
B)Shigella or Vibrio
C)Campylobacter or Shigella
D)All of the above
Q3) What defense mechanism does the colon have to guard against infection?
A)IgA antibody is produced.
B)IgE antibody is produced.
C)Nonspecific immune defenses are resident here and take care of pathogens.
D)The anatomic structure makes it tough for organisms to adhere.
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Chapter 35: Infections of the Central Nervous System
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Q1) What condition is characterized by lymphocytic pleocytosis in the cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) but a lack of identifiable organism after routine culture and Gram stain?
A)Purulent meningitis
B)Septic meningitis
C)Aseptic meningitis
D)Malignant meningitis
Q2) A teenager and her friends go to the lake and spend the day swimming and picnicking.Later that evening, she starts to feel sick.She complains of a headache and general malaise.The next morning, she is very ill and is rushed to the emergency department.Many neurologic changes are noted.Despite the staff's best efforts, the teenager dies.Autopsy reveals the presence of small protozoans in her brain tissue.What is the most probable organism that caused her death?
A)Acanthamoeba spp.
B)Naegleria fowleri
C)Balamuthia mandrillaris
D)Angiostrongylus cantonensis
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Chapter 36: Bacteremia and Sepsis
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Sample Questions
Q1) What underlying condition predisposes a person to a polymicrobial bacteremia?
A)Intravenous drug use
B)Burns
C)Gastrointestinal tract sources
D)All of the above
Q2) How does a biofilm protect the organism from host defenses?
A)By inhibiting phagocytosis
B)By inhibiting chemotaxis
C)By suppressing the lymphoproliferative response
D)All of the above
Q3) How long are conventional (manually processed) blood cultures held before being discarded as negative?
A)4 days
B)7 days
C)14 days
D)21 days
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Chapter 37: Urinary Tract Infections
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Sample Questions
Q1) What part of the urinary tract is most susceptible to infection?
A)Urethral mucosa
B)Bladder
C)Ureters
D)Nephrons
Q2) What specimen reduces the risk of contamination with urethral flora?
A)Catheterized specimen
B)Suprapubic aspirate
C)First morning specimen
D)Voided midstream specimen
Q3) All of the following are reasons why institutionalized patients have more urinary tract infections (UTIs) than noninstitutionalized patients except:
A)general ill condition of institutionalized patients.
B)less frequent emptying of the bladder.
C)higher probability of urinary tract instrumentation.
D)higher incidence of urinary tract anatomic or functional abnormalities.
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Chapter 38: Genital Infections and Sexually Transmitted Diseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the main symptom for primary syphilis?
A)Purulent discharge
B)Asymptomatic
C)Chancre
D)Genital warts
Q2) Nongonococcal urethritis is most commonly caused by which of the following organisms?
A)Haemophilus ducreyi
B)Trichomonas vaginalis
C)Chlamydia trachomatis
D)Ureaplasma urealyticum
Q3) All of the following are a cause of ulcerative sexually transmitted infections (STIs) except:
A)syphilis.
B)gonorrhea.
C)genital herpes.
D)chancroid.
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Page 40
Chapter 39: Infections in Special Populations
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Q1) Patients with granulocyte (neutrophil) counts below _____ cells/mm³ are at a significant risk for developing an infection along with a high rate of mortality.
A)50,000
B)10,000
C)5,000
D)1,000
Q2) What condition is most likely to occur in patients with severe neutropenia?
A)Pneumonia
B)Bronchitis
C)Meningitis
D)Septicemia
Q3) Which of the following immune mechanisms may be decreased in patients with malignancy?
A)Cell-mediated immune response
B)Antibody production
C)Mucous membranes barriers
D)All of the above
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Chapter 40: Zoonotic Diseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) Pathogens within the family Anaplasmataceae infect which cell type in humans?
A)Lymphocytes
B)Epithelial cells
C)Erythrocytes
D)Phagocytes
Q2) Even though this organism is part of the canine and feline normal oral flora, most infections occur in patients that have had a splenectomy, have cancer, or abuse drugs.What organism is this?
A)Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae
B)Capnocytophaga canimorsus
C)Yersinia pestis
D)Borrelia burgdorferi
Q3) What is the most common form of anthrax?
A)Inhalation
B)Cutaneous
C)Gastrointestinal
D)Septicemic
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Chapter 41: Ocular Infections
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient who makes her own saline solution for her contact lenses is examined at her physician's office because she has a blood red, infected right eye.The physician performs bacterial, fungal, and viral cultures, all of which are negative.What is the most probable cause of this infection?
A)Acanthamoeba spp.
B)Entamoeba spp.
C)Trypanosoma spp.
D)Leishmania spp.
Q2) What organism causes neonatal conjunctivitis, lymphogranuloma venereum (LGV), and trachoma?
A)Chlamydia trachomatis
B)Streptococcus trachomatis
C)Staphylococcus aureus
D)Neisseria meningitidis
Q3) Retinitis with what organism is common in acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) patients?
A)Epstein-Barr virus (EBV)
B)Arenavirus
C)Cytomegalovirus (CMV)
D)Herpes simplex virus (HSV)
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