Pathogenic Microbiology Exam Preparation Guide
Course Introduction
Pathogenic Microbiology explores the biology, mechanisms, and clinical implications of microorganisms that cause disease in humans. This course covers the structure, classification, and genetics of bacteria, viruses, fungi, and parasites, emphasizing their roles as pathogens. Students will learn about microbial pathogenesis, host-pathogen interactions, and the immune systems response. The course addresses methods for diagnosing infectious diseases, principles of antimicrobial therapy, and strategies for infection control and prevention. Case studies and current research are integrated to highlight emerging and re-emerging infectious diseases, antibiotic resistance, and global health challenges.
Recommended Textbook
Microbiology 2nd Edition by Dave Wessner
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24 Chapters
1617 Verified Questions
1617 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: The Microbial World
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which best describes the Cyanobacteria?
A)First prokaryote to contain mitochondria.
B)First appeared on earth about 3.5 billion years ago.
C)Carry out oxygenic photosynthesis.
D)Members of the Archaea domain.
E)A type of eukaryotic algae.
Answer: C
Q2) Which of these factors has universally facilitated infectious disease spread from the plague times until the modern day? (Select all that apply)
A)Visitations from God
B)Unhealthful air
C)Immigration
D)Air travel
E)Poverty and overcrowding
Answer: C,E
Q3) Microbial nitrogen fixation is the conversion of ammonia into dinitrogen gas.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Bacteria
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Q1) One feature of the peptidoglycans found in E.coli and Staphylococcus which correlates positively with the relative thickness of the layers found in Gram positive and Gram negative cells is the;
A)Structure of the glycan layer
B)Length of the peptide chains
C)Length of the peptide crossbridges
D)Amino acid sequence of the peptide chains
E)Amino acid sequence of the peptide crossbridges
Answer: C
Q2) Which of these describes the peritrichous arrangement of flagella?
A)Flagella all around the cell.
B)Flagella at both polar ends of the cell.
C)Flagella in a tuft at one end of the cell.
D)Flagella inside the periplasm wrapping around the cell.
E)Flagella on a single side of the cell.
Answer: A
Q3) Short hair-like protrusions on the surface of some bacterial cells,used primarily for attachment but occasionally for motility,are called ___ .
Answer: pili
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Eukaryal Microbes
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Sample Questions
Q1) Eukaryal microbes play a very important role in the digestion of ___ in the gut of ruminants.
A)proteins
B)nucleic acids
C)phospholipids
D)cellulose
E)lactose
Answer: D
Q2) Microfilament are made of the protein ___.
Answer: actin
Q3) Trypanosoma brucei is transmitted to humans by the tsetse fly and causes which disease?
A)malaria
B)histoplasmosis
C)African sleeping sickness
D)cryptosporidiosis
E)tuberculosis
Answer: C
Q4) Most cell walls of algae are composed of ___.
Answer: cellulose
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Chapter 4: Archaea
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Sample Questions
Q1) All known methanogens are found in the domain ___.
Q2) Given the structure of arginine,which of the attributes of thermophile proteins would be influenced by high numbers of arginine residues? (Select all that apply)
A)increased alpha helix formation due to increased potential for hydrogen bonding
B)increased salt bridges due to more positive charges on amino acids
C)increased side chain interactions due to increased negative charges on amino acids
D)more transmembrane domains
E)none of these attribute influences can be reliably predicted
Q3) How do the Bacteria and Archaea differ in the way the flagellum proteins are handled?
A)Archaea proteins are assembled inside the cell for transport out of the cell.
B)Archaea proteins are excreted to the outside of the cell for self-assembly.
C)Archaea proteins are added to the growing flagellum shaft at the base.
D)Archaea proteins are transported through the hollow flagellum tube for assembly at the end of the flagellum.
E)Archaea proteins are enclosed within a membrane and moved to the outside of the cell.
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Page 6
Chapter 5: Viruses
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Q1) Which choice provides evidence that argues against the use of host cell RNA polymerases in replicating PSTVd RNA?
A)host cells contain DNA-dependent RNA polymerases
B)host cells contain DNA-dependent DNA plymerases
C)host cells contain RNA-dependent RNA polymerases
D)host cells contain RNA-dependent DNA polymerases
E)none is a relevant choice
Q2) Genes that are involved in the normal regulation of the cell cycle and can be altered to increase probability of cancer are called ___________.
Q3) Filtration of a bacteriophage preparation replicated in E.coli will effectively separate viable cells from phage particles.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What is the premise of the progressive hypothesis of viral origin?
A)Viruses evolved from symbionts of cells.
B)Viruses evolved from self-replicating nucleic acid segments.
C)Viruses originated from cells that lost the ability to replicate.
D)Viruses were present when the first primordial cells evolved.
E)Viruses arose from fragmented DNA in a cell.
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Chapter 6: Cultivating Microorganisms
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which medium is used to allow some microbes on a plate to be distinguished from others?
A)enrichment
B)selective
C)differential
D)general purpose
E)all work equally well for this purpose
Q2) Which substance inhibits the growth of Gram positive bacteria?
A)bile salts
B)iron
C)red blood cells
D)lactose
E)glucose
Q3) Which medium will best favor distinguishing hemolytic and non-hemoltic Streptococci?
A)Enrichment/differential
B)Selective/differential
C)Enrichment/selective
D)general purpose
E)all work equally well for this purpose
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Chapter 7: DNA Replication and Gene Expression
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Q1) For the initiation of transcription in bacteria,RNA polymerase binds to what region on the gene?
A)promoter
B)operator
C)enhancer region
D)origin of replication
E)Shine-Dalgarno sequence
Q2) What is the first protein to bind to the oriC region of the DNA molecule to start the replication process?
A)DNA polymerase
B)the primase
C)DnaA
D)gyrase
E)DnaI
Q3) The Shine-Dalgarno sequence on a mRNA is recognized by the __________ of the 30S ribosome.
Q4) The RNA polymerase in Archaea is more similar to Bacteria RNA polymerase than Eukarya RNA polymerase II.
A)True
B)False
Page 9
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Chapter 8: Viral Replication Strategies
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Q1) During infection of a cell,a poliovirus virion undergoes all of the events listed except:
A)loss of VP4
B)loss of VP1
C)reduction in virion particle size
D)PVR binding
E)135S virion size after binding host cell receptor
Q2) Class V viruses,negative sense single-stranded RNA viruses,utilize the following polymerase for mRNA synthesis
A)viral DNA-dependent RNA polymerase.
B)host cell RNA-dependent RNA polymerase.
C)host cell DNA-dependent RNA polymerase.
D)viral RNA-dependent RNA polymerase.
E)don't need polymerase,nucleic acid can act directly as mRNA.
Q3) Most enveloped viruses exit their host cell through a process called __________.
Q4) Translation of mRNA for the production of viral proteins always takes place in the cytoplasm of eukaryotic cells.
A)True
B)False
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Page 10
Chapter 9: Bacterial Genetic Analysis
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Sample Questions
Q1) The first plasmid cloning vectors required some restriction enzyme sites that were present in only one copy on the plasmid.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What is the difference between an Hfr strain and an F-prime strain of Escherichia coli?
A)The F-prime strain is not able to convert the recipient strain to F .
B)The F-prime strain is able to transfer any gene on the chromosome to the recipient cell.
C)The F-prime strain has an F phenotype.
D)The Hfr strain is able to transfer more E.coli genes to the recipient than the F-prime strain.
E)The Hfr strain is unable to mate with an F strain.
Q3) Mutations in a cell can occur in the absence of selective pressure.
A)True
B)False
Q4) In order for a plasmid to replicate once it enters a cell,it must contain an ______ of replication that is recognized by the cell.
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Page 11
Chapter 10: Microbial Genomics
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Q1) The computational techniques used to complile and analyze information generated through DNA sequencing belong to the field of science known as
Q2) Techniques that have been used to analyse mRNA expression in cells include: (Select all that apply)
A)Southern blot analysis
B)Northern blot analysis
C)Western blot analysis
D)DNA microarray analysis
E)NMR
Q3) In pyrosequencing,which enzyme generates the light detected by the CCD device?
A)DNA polymerase
B)Luciferase
C)ATP sulfurylase
D)Restriction endonuclease
E)DNA ligase
Q4) Horizontal gene transfer occurs when an organism acquires genetic information from another organism in its own generation.
A)True
B)False
Page 12
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Chapter 11: Regulation of Gene Expression
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Sample Questions
Q1) A Vibrio fischeri mutant that produces light even at low cell densityhas been identified.In which gene is the mutation most likely to have occurred?
A)luxA
B)luxD
C)luxR
D)luxB
E)none is a correct choice
Q2) Promoter sequence deviation from the consensus may result in: (Select all that apply)
A)reduced transcription
B)increased transcription
C)no change in transcription
D)loss of translation
E)post-translational changes
Q3) Which of these controls the expression of the lac operon?
A)An activator protein only.
B)An attenuation mechanism.
C)A repressor protein only.
D)Both repression and activation mechanisms.
E)Both repression and attenuation mechanisms.
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Chapter 12: Microbial Biotechnology
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Sample Questions
Q1) In creating Roundup- ready transgenic plants,the petunia EPSP gene product provided:
A)gene sequences to assist in homologous recombination events
B)a leader sequence likely to facilitate organellar transport of the desired gene product
C)genetic material to be inserted into the Ti plasmid
D)the first transgenic crop plant DNA donor
E)none is a correct choice
Q2) Why is an affinity tag fusion protein produced?
A)To increase the biological activity of the protein.
B)To increase overall expression of the cloned gene.
C)To facilitate the purification of the recombinant protein.
D)To ensure correct transcription termination.
E)To ensure that translation starts correctly.
Q3) Why are bioplastics often preferred over conventional plastics?
A)Bioplastics are stronger.
B)Bioplastics are less dense.
C)Bioplastics are biodegradable.
D)Bioplastics are cheaper to produce.
E)Bioplastics are more pliable.
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Page 14
Chapter 13: Metabolism
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Sample Questions
Q1) Cyanobacteria use _______ as an electron source for the reduction of NADP+.
A)sulfur
B)glucose
C)water
D)carbon dioxide
E)nitrate
Q2) Energy production by chemolithotrophs is the result of inorganic molecule oxidation and passage of electrons into an electron transport chain for the generation of a proton motive force to drive an ATPase for the synthesis of ATP.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What can the proton motive force generated by the electron transport system be used for?
A)NADH oxidation,ATP synthesis,and flagella rotation
B)NADH oxidation,ATP synthesis,and nutrient transport
C)ATP synthesis,flagella rotation,and nutrient transport
D)NADH oxidation,flagella rotation,and nutrient transport
E)oxygen reduction and ATP synthesis
Q4) The photosynthetic membranes in cyanobacteria are called __________ membranes.
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Chapter 14: Biogeochemical Cycles
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Q1) In methane-producing environments large polymers are broken down by a consortium of microbes.This consortium includes:
A)obligate aerobic bacteria and methanogens.
B)polymer hydrolyzing microbes,fermenters,and methanogens.
C)aerobic polymer hydrolyzing microbes and fermenters.
D)primary aerobic respiratory microbes and methanogens.
E)sulfate-reducing microbes and methanogens.
Q2) Which of these summarizes the overall reaction for nitrification?
A)NO NO
B)NO NO
C)NO ammonia biomass
D)NO N
E)ammonia NO
Q3) Methanogenesis helps drive a number of other microbial processes in anaerobic environments through the removal of hydrogen gas.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The burning of fossil fuels has contributed to an increase in the atmospheric gas
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Chapter 15: Microbial Ecosystems
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Q1) Sulfur emitted from hydrothermal vents is in the form of __________.
Q2) The use of living organisms to clean up chemically contaminated soils is called
Q3) Intestinal E.coli and Methanobrevibacter smithii are members of the same:
A)ecosystem
B)biofilm
C)genus
D)niche
E)guild
Q4) Which elements necessary for microbial life are often limiting in the ocean?
A)magnesium and calcium
B)nitrogen and phosphorous
C)magnesium and chloride
D)sodium and calcium
E)potassium and magnesium
Q5) The part of the soil that immediately surrounds the plant root is called the
Q6) Deep subsurface environment are considered to be void of microbial life.
A)True
B)False
Page 17
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Chapter 16: The Microbiology of Food and Water
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Q1) with respect to water quality,an indicator organism is one which: (Select all that apply)
A)Causes water-borne illness
B)Ferments lactose
C)Is found in the mammalian intestine
D)Forms endospores
E)Ferments glucose
Q2) Vinegar is made by bacteria from one of two genera,either Gluconobacter or ________________.
Q3) The MPN test generates positive tube numbers of 5 in the 10ml samples,1 in the 1ml samples and 0 from the 0.1ml samples.What is the most likely number of organisms present in the original sample?
A)33 microbes per ml
B)33 microbes per 100 ml
C)33 microbes per liter
D)43 microbes per 100 ml
E)46 microbes per ml
Q4) The bacterium that gives Swiss cheese its characteristic flavor and holes is in the genus ____________.
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Chapter 17: Microbial Symbionts
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Q1) Which of these is true of a mutualistic relationship?
A)Neither organism benefits or is harmed by the relationship.
B)One member benefits and the other member is harmed.
C)One member benefits and the other member does not receive any benefit.
D)Both organisms benefit.
E)Both members are harmed from the relationship.
Q2) The vagina of women of child-bearing age has an acidic pH.This is due to the colonization by which organisms?
A)staphylococci
B)lactobacilli
C)Candida sp
D)Bacteroides sp
E)micrococci
Q3) The majority of Archaea found in the human intestinal tract are _____ .
A)sulfate-reducing bacteria
B)halobacteria
C)sulfide oxidizing bacteria
D)methanogens
E)fermenters
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Page 19
Chapter 18: Introduction to Infectious Diseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) The influenza mortality rate rises from the yearly 3% average to 12% one winter season in Wisconsin.This would make the occurrence likely to be termed as a/an: (Select all that apply)
A)epidemic
B)outbreak
C)endemic
D)pandemic
E)none is a correct term
Q2) The incidence of a disease is the number of new cases of the disease in a population over a specific period of time.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Pathogenic E.coli strain O157:H7 evolved from a non-pathogenic strain as a result of this genetic change.
A)A mutation in a virulence gene.
B)A mutation that resulted in antibiotic resistance.
C)The acquisition of virulence genes from Shigella.
D)The use of antibiotic supplements in animal feeds.
E)A mutation that resulted in increased capsule production.
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Page 20
Chapter 19: Innate Host Defenses Against Microbial Invasion
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of these molecules is NOT responsible for iron binding?
A)hemoglobin
B)myoglobin
C)immunoglobulin
D)lactoferrin
E)transferrin
Q2) Type I interferons protect against microbial pathogens in all of the following ways
EXCEPT:
A)Reduction in binding of viral mRNA
B)Membrane receptor alterations
C)Stimulation of natural killer cell production
D)Ribonuclease activity
E)Increased antibody production
Q3) The invertebrate immune response involves ALL of the following EXCEPT:
A)phagocytic amoebocytes.
B)antimicrobial peptides.
C)antibody producing B-cells.
D)opsonization of microbes by lectins.
E)melanin encapsulation of microbes.
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Chapter 20: Adaptive Immunity
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Q1) TH1 cells function in which of these processes?
A)The humoral immune response.
B)The cell-mediated immune response.
C)The innate immune response.
D)The production of antibody.
E)The activation of complement by antigen-antibody complex.
Q2) Exogenous antigen is usually taken up by antigen-presenting cells through phagocytosis,processed,and presented to T cells on their surface by these.
A)MHC I molecules
B)MHC II molecules
C)interleukin 2 molecules
D)tumor necrosis factor alpha
E)interferon gamma
Q3) Every mature B cell is capable of producing antibodies with:
A)a single unique specificity.
B)at least a hundred specificities.
C)at least a thousand specificities.
D)at least one-hundred thousand specificities.
E)at least a million specificities.
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Chapter 21: Virulence Factors and Pathogenic Mechanisms of
Bacterial Infections
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Q1) Clostridium botulinum toxin(s)act by: (Select all that apply)
A)Cleaving SNAP25
B)Cleaving synaptobrevin
C)Cleaving syntaxin
D)Inhibiting acetylcholine release at the neuromuscular junction
E)Preventing acetylcholine release by inhibitory neurons
Q2) Impetigo can be caused by Streptococcus pyogenes.Impetigo is a type of
A)pneumonia
B)sequelae
C)toxic shock syndrome
D)ear infection
E)skin infection
Q3) A toxin that is part of the cell structure and usually found in the surface elements of the cell is called an endotoxin.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A primary pathological feature of a Mycobacterium tuberculosis infection is the appearance of ___________ in the lungs.
Page 23
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Chapter 22: Viral Pathogenesis
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Q1) Recombination,as it occurs in viral genomes,is due to:
A)Alignment of viral DNA moecules during part of the replication cycle
B)Template switching during viral DNA replication
C)Alignment of viral RNA moecules during part of the replication cycle
D)Template switching during viral mRNA replication
E)None is a correct choice
Q2) Most cases of cervical cancer are caused by this virus.
A)herpes simplex II virus
B)HIV
C)papillomavirus
D)retrovirus
E)paramyxovirus
Q3) The human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)is spread in several ways.Select all choices which are correct.
A)horizontal
B)vertical
C)vector
D)zoonotically
E)mechanical
Q4) Warts are caused by the human _______________.
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Chapter 23: Eukaryal Microbe Pathogenesis
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Q1) Which of these worms causes anemia? (Select all that apply)
A)Hookworms
B)Roundworms
C)Whipworms
D)Pinworms
E)Schistosomes
Q2) Which of these worms infects the most individuals worldwide?
A)Hookworms
B)Roundworms
C)Whipworms
D)Pinworms
E)Schistosomes
Q3) How is Trypanosoma brucei gambiense,transmitted to humans?
A)By a water-borne route.
B)By an aerosol route.
C)Through the bite of a tsetse fly.
D)By direct contact.
E)Through sexual contact.
Q4) The malarial parasite obtains nutrients by digesting ___________ from host red blood cells.
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Chapter 24: Control of Infectious Diseases
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Q1) Azoles are a class of antifungal drugs that target ___________ biosynthesis,causing cell membrane disruption.
A)sterol
B)glycerol
C)fatty acid
D)transport protein
E)folic acid
Q2) Conjugate vaccines are composed of ______________ linked to an immunogenic protein.
A)toxins
B)polysaccharide antigens
C)protein antigens
D)lipid antigens
E)DNA fragments
Q3) Which one of the following is not a mechanism of antimicrobial drug resistance?
A)enzymatic inactivation of the drug
B)removal of the drug from inside the cell
C)blocking the uptake of the drug into the cell
D)incorporation of the drug into cell material
E)alteration of the drug's target site
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