Pathogenic Microbiology
Exam Materials
Course Introduction
Pathogenic Microbiology explores the mechanisms by which microorganisms cause disease in humans and other hosts. The course examines the biology, physiology, and genetics of bacteria, viruses, fungi, and parasites that are significant to human health. It also addresses host-pathogen interactions, the molecular and cellular basis of pathogenicity, epidemiology, and the immune responses that limit or prevent infection. Emphasis is placed on disease diagnosis, transmission, prevention, and control, as well as current challenges such as antibiotic resistance and emerging infectious diseases.
Recommended Textbook Microbiology Principles and Explorations 7th Edition by Jacquelyn G. Black
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26 Chapters
1432 Verified Questions 1432 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Scope and History of Microbiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Bioterrorism
A) involves using antibiotics and vaccines for terrorist means
B) converts factories to produce tanks, trucks and cars
C) prevents getting bacteria into ground beef to keep our food supply safe
D) uses microbes, such as anthrax, as part of terrorist attacks
Answer: D
Q2) A parasitologist studies parasites. What does a mycologist study?
A) protozoa
B) how viruses cause disease and are involved in cancer
C) the development of chemical substances to treat diseases
D) fungi
Answer: D
Q3) Pasteur worked on rabies and cholera vaccine during the emergence of immunology. While culturing a chicken cholera he noted that an old culture was weakened and useful as a vaccine as it
A) caused disease
B) caused severe cholera symptoms and prevented further infection
C) allowed for the cholera to spread from person to person
D) did not cause disease symptoms and immunized against chicken cholera.
Answer: D
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Chapter 2: Fundamentals of Chemistry
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Sample Questions
Q1) Carbohydrates do not include which of the following
A) glucose
B) starch
C) cellulose
D) sterols
Answer: D
Q2) The smallest particle of matter that can take part in chemical reactions
A) glucose
B) compound
C) neutron
D) atom
Answer: D
Q3) Glucose
A) is abundant in milk and fruit
B) is a rare monosaccharide
C) can be oxidized to form deoxy sugar or alcohol
D) none of the above
Answer: D
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Chapter 3: Microscopy and Staining
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Sample Questions
Q1) Diffraction occurs when
A) light is reflected by an object
B) light passes through a small opening
C) light changes wavelengths
D) light is absorbed by a normally transparent object (like a glass slide)
Answer: B
Q2) A compound microscope
A) has two eyepieces
B) has a total magnification of 5,000X
C) has only fine adjustment and no coarse adjustment
D) has more than one lens
Answer: D
Q3) Why is diffraction a problem for microscopy?
A) because the lens acts as a large aperture through which light must pass
B) the small size of higher-power lenses causes severe diffraction
C) loss of light results in blurred images
D) diffraction of light is useful when using an oil immersion lens to view objects
Answer: B
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Chapter 4: Characteristics of Prokaryotic and Eukaryotic Cells
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Q1) A typical bacterial cell has a salt concentration of about 1%. If the cell is placed in a solution containing 10% salt,the net flow of water will be
A) out of the cell
B) into the cell
C) equally in and out of the cell
D) none of the above since water doesn't cross bacterial cell membranes
Q2) Genetic information in bacteria
A) is found in the nucleus
B) is found only in RNA
C) is found in chromatin (ie DNA condensed by histones)
D) is sometimes found in the form of plasmids
Q3) Endospores are usually induced to form when
A) temperatures rise
B) certain nutrients are depleted
C) radiation is detected
D) water is lost from the cell
Q4) Give examples of microorganisms that are prokaryotes and eukaryotes. What microorganism does not fit in either category? Describe three differences between prokaryotes and eukaryotes.
Page 6
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Chapter 5: Essential Concepts of Metabolism
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is returned to chlorophyll in cyclic photophosphorylation that is not returned in noncyclic photoreduction?
A) ATP
B) light
C) energy
D) electrons
Q2) Sulfa drugs bind to the active site of the enzyme which normally converts PABA to folic acid,preventing the production of folic acid and,eventually,purine synthesis. In this case,the sulfa drug is acting as a/n
A) allosteric inhibitor
B) competitive inhibitor
C) noncompetitive inhibitor
D) uncompetitive inhibitor
Q3) Distinguish between aerobic and anaerobic respiration. Is fermentation aerobic or anaerobic respiration? Can you think of any advantage afforded to those microorganisms that can carry out fermentation?
Q4) Describe the chemical characteristics of enzymes and indicate why they are important in the metabolism of large molecules and how they determine which metabolic pathways occur in a cell.
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Chapter 6: Growth and Culturing of Bacteria
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Sample Questions
Q1) The streak plate method produces pure cultures by separating individual bacterial cells from one another by
A) dragging them across a solid surface
B) dispersing them in liquid media
C) killing off those cells that are not able to survive in hot agar
D) embedding some cells in the agar so that they are exposed to lower concentrations of oxygen
Q2) Which of the following is not one of the phases of bacterial growth?
A) lag phase
B) stationary phase
C) doubling phase
D) log phase
Q3) The toxic effects of the byproducts of oxygen metabolism are mitigated by which of the following?
A) catalase
B) superoxide dismutase
C) lactase
D) two of the above
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8
Chapter 7: Microbial Genetics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Polymerase chain reaction
A) allows for the rapid amplification of a billion copies of DNA without needing a living cell
B) can be applied to historic samples and to criminal investigations
C) requires oligonucleotides to cut DNA into smaller pieces
D) two of the above are true
Q2) Which of the following statements is true?
A) during DNA replication the leading strand serves as a template for replication of the lagging strand
B) fragments on the lagging strand are joined together by ligase
C) a bacterial chromosome is made up of individual units called Okazaki fragments
D) two strands of a double helix combine by base pairing in a parallel fashion
Q3) Messenger RNA
A) is formed in the 3' to 5' direction
B) is found only in prokaryotes
C) contains uracil instead of thymine
D) is synthesized using the enzyme ligase
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Chapter 8: Gene Transfer and Genetic Engineering
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Sample Questions
Q1) High frequency recombination cells arise when
A) they have multiple F plasmids
B) a portion of the cell's F plasmid has been incorporated into the bacterial chromosome
C) conjugation and transformation happen at the same time
D) Bacterial chromosomes do not break during conjugation
Q2) Recombinant bacteria have been used to produce
A) human growth hormone
B) vaccines
C) insulin
D) all of the above
Q3) A lytic viral cycle is usually the result of infection by a A) prophage
B) virulent phage
C) temperate phage
D) antiphage
Q4) Describe the experiments of Griffith that led to the discovery of transformation. How could one design an experiment to demonstrate that transformation was due to the transfer of DNA?
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Chapter 9: An Introduction to Taxonomy: the Bacteria
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Q1) Viruses are not assigned to any Kingdom because
A) there are too few viruses to bother
B) viruses are not alive
C) virology is not a recognized branch of microbiology
D) none of the above, viruses are grouped with the bacteria
Q2) A useful technique for comparing different bacterial species based on if they are susceptible to infection by the same virus is called
A) protein profile
B) virus profile
C) phage typing
D) serology
Q3) According to the three domain classification system,modern plants and animals belong to what Domain?
A) bacteria
B) eukarya
C) archaea
D) none of the above
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11
Chapter 10: Viruses
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Sample Questions
Q1) The virus that causes human severe acute respiratory syndrome (SARS)infects all of the following except
A) humans
B) dogs and cats
C) birds
D) snakes
Q2) A naked virus
A) has no protein wrapping around its nucleic acid.
B) is unable to attach itself to a host cell.
C) has no membranous envelope
D) has no infectious piece of DNA
Q3) Growth of a bacterium which contains a prophage represents a
A) lytic cycle
B) temperate cycle
C) lysogenic cycle
D) induction
Q4) Why was it previously believed that only DNA viruses can cause cancer? How can RNA viruses cause cancer?
Q5) Why did scientists initially resist the idea of an infectious,self-replicating protein?
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Chapter 11: Eukaryotic Microorganisms and Parasites
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Sample Questions
Q1) A host in which a parasite reproduces sexually is a
A) primary host
B) definitive host
C) intermediate host
D) reservoir host
Q2) A tapeworm's hydatid cyst
A) contains only one cysticercus or bladder worm
B) migrates to the host's digestive gland
C) can enlarge and develop many tapeworm heads
D) develops into mature flukes
Q3) Human fungal diseases are known by the general name _______.
A) canadiasis
B) mycoses
C) mylcelium
D) none of the above
Q4) Arachnids have ________ legs and include ________.
A) six, lice, fleas and flies
B) six, ticks and mites
C) eight, lice, fleas and flies
D) eight, ticks and mites
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Chapter 12: Sterilization and Disinfection
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Sample Questions
Q1) Disinfection is the
A) killing of certain microorganisms while only inhibiting others.
B) killing or removal of all microorganisms in a material or an object.
C) same as sterilization.
D) reduction of the number of pathogenic microorganisms to pose no threat of disease.
Q2) Which of the following are not examples of alkylating agents that disrupt proteins and nucleic acids?
A) glutaraldahyde
B) b-propiolactone
C) ethylene oxide
D) methylene oxide
Q3) Sterilization is the
A) killing or removal of all microorganisms in a material or an object.
B) reduction of the number of pathogenic microorganisms in a material or object.
C) killing or removal of some but not all microorganisms.
D) disinfection of living tissue.
Q4) Most milk,cheese and juices in the United States are pasteurized. Describe the process of pasteurization and the microorganisms at which it is directed. Do you consider pasteurized milk a sterile product? Why?
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Chapter 13: Antimicrobial Therapy
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Sample Questions
Q1) Antibiotics inhibit protein synthesis
A) by disrupting cell membrane fraction
B) by binding to 80S ribosomal subunits
C) by interfering with the accurate reading of the mRNA message
D) by binding to a 60S ribosomal subunit
Q2) Which one of the following pairs is incorrectly matched with antibiotic and its target?
A) penicillin; gram positive bacteria
B) nystatin; fungi
C) tetracycline; viruses
D) griseofulvin; fungi
Q3) Examples of antiviral agents include all of the following agents except A) acyclovir
B) ribavirin
C) quinine
D) zidovudine (AZT)
Q4) A patient comes to you from a nursing home with a high fever. Is it better to start the patient on a broad spectrum drug or a narrow spectrum drug? Is it better to start the patient on one antibiotic or multiple antibiotics? Defend your decision.
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Chapter 14: Host-Microbe Relationships and Disease
Processes
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Q1) An acute disease becomes ______ when the body can not get rid of it; while a local disease becomes _______ when it disseminates into deeper organs and tissues.
A) contagious; systemic
B) contagious; secondary
C) chronic; systemic
D) chronic; secondary
Q2) All of the following refer to the normal microflora except
A) no microflora is found in the fetus
B) resident microorganisms normally do not cause disease
C) some microorganisms are resident while others are transient
D) resident microorganisms are found in nervous system and blood
Q3) The virus that causes chicken pox in childhood
A) is a noncommunicable infectious disease
B) has no convalescence stage
C) produces hemolysins that release iron
D) is the causative agent of shingles
Q4) What are the difficulties in demonstrating Koch's postulates for human infections? Why was it difficult to demonstrate that Leprosy or HIV satisfied Koch's Postulate?
Page 16
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Chapter 15: Epidemiology and Nosocomial Infections
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Q1) Why might it be worse to get an infection from someone in the hospital than from someone on a bus? Can you think of a reason why sometimes it might be better to be exposed to a microbe from a hospitalized patient than from someone on the bus?
Q2) A retrospective analytical study
A) enrolls study participants before an epidemic occurs
B) considers factors that occur as an epidemic spreads
C) compares study participants that receive a drug with those that received an infection D) may determine which factors are causal after the epidemic occurs
Q3) What makes a microbe a potential bioterroism weapon? Do you believe that bioterroism that targets humans or agriculture is more worrisome? Explain your answer.
Q4) Transmission of pathogens from person to person via sneezing,coughing or by the affected individual speaking near a susceptible individual are examples of what mode of transmission?
A) vertical transmission
B) indirect contact transmission
C) direct fecal-oral transmission
D) droplet transmission
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Chapter 16: Innate Host Defenses
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Q1) What non-specific immune component is directly responsible for the lysis of invading microorganisms?
A) chemotaxis
B) membrane attack complex
C) opsonin
D) chronic inflammation
Q2) During inflammation,permeable capillary walls allow accumulation of fluids near injured cells causing which of the following?
A) calor
B) diapedesis
C) edema
D) blood clotting
Q3) Recombinant interferon
A) is of a different molecular form than that produced by infected cells
B) blocks virus replication but does not stimulate the adaptive immune system
C) unequivocally is the best available treatment for viruses and cancer
D) can be produced cheaply and abundantly
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Chapter 17: Immunology I: Basic Principles of Adaptive
Immunity and Immunization
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Q1) All are hallmarks of an effective vaccine except
A) safe and stable
B) no adverse side effects
C) sustained protection
D) should generate antibodies but not T cells
Q2) Immunity that is mediated by antibodies is called
A) innate
B) humoral
C) cell-mediated
D) non-specific
Q3) Which refers to the ability of a host organism to recognize and defend itself against the onslaught of pathogenic microorganisms?
A) immunity
B) passive immunity
C) susceptibility
D) innate immunology
Q4) How do vaccines work? Can you describe 2 hazards of vaccines? In your opinion why aren't there vaccines for every disease?
Page 19
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Chapter 18: Immunolgy Ii: Immunological Disorders and Tests
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Q1) Cytotoxic hypersensitivity is mediated by
A) IgG, IgM
B) IgE
C) complement
D) two of the above
Q2) The only treatment used to cure allergies is _____________.
A) epinephrine
B) antibiotics
C) desensitization
D) sensitization
Q3) All of the following are Type III hypersensitivities except
A) granulomatous reactions
B) serum sickness
C) rheumatoid arthritis
D) lupus erythematosus
Q4) Antigenic or molecular mimicry
A) occurs when T cells attack tissue antigens similar to bacterial antigens
B) involves self reactive T cells hiding in the thymus
C) leads to an increase in the number of regulatory T cells
D) none of the above
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Chapter 19: Diseases of the Skin and Eyes; Wounds and Bites
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Q1) The reason why newborns in developed countries receive antibiotic or silver nitrate drops at birth is
A) to prevent opthalmia neonatorum
B) because pinkeye is extremely contagious
C) gnats can transmit organisms from the eyes of newborns
D) two of the above
Q2) Dermatomycoses are caused by
A) Epidermophyton
B) Candida
C) Microsporum
D) two of the above
Q3) Subcutaneous fungal infections are caused by
A) Sporothrix schenckii
B) Candida
C) Microsporum
D) two of the above
Q4) What's the difference between trachoma and bacterial conjunctivitis? How are they transmitted? Are they both common in the United States? Which one would you rather have?
21
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Chapter 20: Urogenital and Sexually Transmitted Diseases
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Q1) Which is the causative agent in 80% of UTIs?
A) Escherichia coli
B) Chlamydia trachomatis
C) Staphylococcus
D) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Q2) Dysuria means
A) an increased volume of urine produced
B) blood in the urine
C) discolored urine
D) pain on urination
Q3) Which of the following statements about STDs is false?
A) gonococcal arthritis is the most common joint infection in people younger than 50
B) latency is a hallmark of herpes infections
C) approximately 80% of the population carries CMV asymptomatically
D) CMV symptoms are more severe in patients with AIDS and other immunodeficiencies
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Chapter 21: Diseases of the Respiratory System
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Q1) Prevention of pneumonia is difficult because
A) the vaccine only protects against 23 strains
B) the vaccine covers all the strains, but boosters must be administered
C) there is no vaccine
D) the vaccine is only given to adults
Q2) Which of the following statements about streptococcal pharyngitis is incorrect?
A) Dogs and other family pets can be carriers of Streptococcus pyogenes.
B) Diagnosis takes at least 24 hours for the culture results to be reported.
C) Clinically the throat is inflamed and the adenoids and lymph nodes in the neck swell.
D) If treatment is delayed, rheumatic fever may develop.
Q3) The following statements about tuberculosis are all true except
A) Mycobacterium avium-intracellulare causes TB in AIDS patients
B) the pathogens have long generation time (12-18 hours)
C) Mycobacterium tuberculosis is the most common causative agent
D) the pathogens are very sensitive to drying and die quickly in the environment
Q4) A friend calls and says he thinks he has the flu,because he has a runny,stuffy nose and has been sneezing quite a bit. You tell him it sounds like a cold,not the flu. Compare and contrast four of the symptoms of the common cold and influenza for him.
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Page 23
Chapter 22: Oral and Gastrointestinal Diseases
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Q1) Typhoid fever can be prevented by
A) good hygiene
B) proper sewage disposal
C) vaccination
D) all of the above
Q2) Which of the following protozoal infections is self-limiting in healthy individuals and has no effective treatment?
A) Balantidiasis
B) Cyclosporoiasis
C) Cryptosporidiosis
D) Amoebic dysentery
Q3) Which gastrointestinal bacterial diseases causes systemic symptoms without diarrhea?
A) Asiatic cholera
B) Vibriosis
C) Typhoid fever
D) Staphylococcus food poisoning
Q4) Describe peptic ulcers and chronic gastritis. What infectious agent causes peptic ulcers and chronic gastritis? What is known about its mode of transmission?
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Chapter 23: Cardiovascular, lymphatic and Systemic Disease
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Q1) Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever is characterized by all of the following except
A) vector is the dog tick, Dermacentor variabilis
B) etiology is Rickettsia rickettsii
C) most cases reported are in the northwest U.S.
D) prominent rash on palms and soles
Q2) Which infection refers to inflammation of the lining and valves of the heart?
A) septicemia
B) rheumatic fever
C) bacterial endocardiatis
D) puerperal fever
Q3) Which of the following terms refers to a bacteria-fibrin mass that forms on damaged valvular surfaces?
A) vegetation
B) lymphangitis
C) ischemia
D) petichia
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Chapter 24: Diseases of the Nervous System
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Q1) Clostridium botulinum is characterized by all of the following except
A) preformed toxin in food prevents release of acetylcholine
B) progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy
C) paralysis and death results if not treated promptly
D) in wounds endospores germinate and produce toxin
Q2) The central nervous system includes all of the following except
A) brain
B) spinal cord
C) nerves that reach the tissues in limbs
D) microglial cells
Q3) Which of the following terms refers to special thick-walled capillaries without pores in their walls?
A) ganglia
B) meninges
C) blood-brain barrier
D) two of the above
Q4) What are all the animals that can get rabies? Which animals can transmit to humans and what determines human transmission ability? How should one treat an animal bite?
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Chapter 25: Environmental Microbiology
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Q1) What is the greenhouse effect? What effect might global warming have on infectious disease?
Q2) Some microbes can survive drought by forming A) fimbriae
B) spores
C) cysts
D) two of the above
Q3) Nitrogen-fixing bacteria include
A) cyanobacteria
B) Clostridium
C) Klebsiella
D) all of the above
Q4) How do the ONPG and MUG test detect microorganisms in water?
A) color is changed by enzymes secreted by coliform bacteria
B) gas production in cultures of lactose broth
C) observing dark colonies of coliform organisms on EMB-lactose agar
D) colonies forming on surface of a sterile absorbent pad
Q5) What is the meaning of biological oxygen demand (BOD)? Why is it important for pollution? What do microbes have to do with this?
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Chapter 26: Applied Microbiology
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Q1) Food processing equipment is disinfected with
A) ultraviolet radiation
B) formaldehyde
C) gamma rays
D) microwaves
Q2) Spirulina has been grown for centuries in alkaline lakes in Africa,in Mexico and by the ancient Incas in Peru to be used
A) as fertilizer
B) as animal feed
C) for human consumption
D) as preservatives
Q3) Which term is matched correctly?
A) aflatoxin -- carcinogenic
B) ergot -- can be hallucinogenic
C) lysozyme - found in egg yolks
D) flat sours - occurs in cans left at room temperature
Q4) Microorganisms have been proposed to produce ethanol for biofuel. Do you believe this will be a good alternative to petroleum or coal based energy? Does making energy from five-carbon or six-carbon sugars produce more energy? Justify your answer.
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