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Partnership and Consolidation Accounting Practice Questions - 1159 Verified Questions

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Partnership and Consolidation Accounting Practice Questions

Course Introduction

This course covers the fundamental principles and practices related to accounting for partnerships and consolidated entities. Students will explore the formation, operation, and dissolution of partnerships, including profit and loss distribution, admission and retirement of partners, and partnership liquidation. The course also delves into the complexities of preparing and analyzing consolidated financial statements, addressing transactions between parent and subsidiary companies, goodwill, and non-controlling interests. Through practical examples and case studies, students gain a comprehensive understanding of the legal, financial, and reporting issues unique to partnerships and group structures in accordance with relevant accounting standards.

Recommended Textbook

Advanced Accounting 12th Edition by Paul M. Fischer

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Chapter 1: Business Combinations: New Rules for a

Long-Standing Business Practice

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Q1) A large nation-wide bank's acquisition of a major investment advisory firm would be an example of a:

A)market extension merger.

B)conglomerate merger.

C)product extension merger.

D)horizontal merger.

Answer: C

Q2) Crystal Co.purchased all of the common stock of Sill Corp.on January 1 of the current year.Five years prior to the acquisition, Sill Corp.had issued 30-year bonds bearing an interest rate of 8%.At the time of the acquisition, the prevailing interest rate for similar bonds was 5%.These bonds should be included in the consolidated balance sheet at A)face value.

B)at a value higher than Sill's recorded value due to the change in interest rates.

C)at a value lower than Sill's recorded value due to the change in interest rates.

D)at Sill's recorded value.

Answer: B

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Chapter 2: Consolidated Statements: Date of Acquisition

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Q1) When it purchased Sutton, Inc.on January 1, 2016, Pavin Corporation issued 500,000 shares of its $5 par voting common stock.On that date the fair value of those shares totaled $4,200,000.Related to the acquisition, Pavin had payments to the attorneys and accountants of $200,000, and stock issuance fees of $100,000.Immediately prior to the purchase, the equity sections of the two firms appeared as follows: \(\begin{array}{lrr} & \underline { \text { Pavin } } & \text { Sutton } \\

\text { Common stock } & \$ 4,000,000 & \$ 700,000 \\

\text { Paid-in capital in excess of par } & 7,500,000 & 900,000 \\

\text { Retained earnings } & 5,500,000 & 500,000 \\ \text { Total } & \$ 17,000,000 & \$ 2,100,000 \end{array}\)

Immediately after the purchase, the consolidated balance sheet should report retained earnings of:

A)$6,000,000

B)$5,800,000

C)$5,500,000

D)$5,300,000

Answer: D

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Chapter 3: Consolidated Statements: Subsequent to Acquisition

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Q1) What is the effect if an unconsolidated subsidiary is accounted for by the equity method but consolidated statements are being prepared for the parent company and other subsidiaries?

A)All of the unconsolidated subsidiary's accounts will be included individually in the consolidated statements.

B)The consolidated retained earnings will not reflect the earnings of the unconsolidated subsidiary.

C)The consolidated retained earnings will be the same as if the subsidiary had been included in the consolidation.

D)Dividend revenue from the unconsolidated subsidiary will be reflected in consolidated net income.

Answer: C

Q2) The method of accounting for subsidiaries that is required for influential investments is the

A)cost method.

B)simple equity method.

C)investment method.

D)sophisticated equity method.

Answer: D

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Chapter 4: Intercompany Transactions: Merchandise, Plant

Assets, and Notes

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Q1) Phelps Co.uses the sophisticated equity method to account for the 80% investment in its subsidiary Shore Corp.At the time of the acquisition, the fair values of the net asset required approximated their book values.Based upon the following information, what amount of income is attributable to the non-controlling interest? \(\begin{array}{lr}

\text { Phelps internally generated income: } & \$ 250,000 \\

\text { Shore internally generated income: } & \$ 50,000 \\

\text { Intercompany profit on Shore beginning inventory: } & \$ 10,000 \\

\text { Intercompany profit on Shore ending inventory: } & \$ 15,000 \end{array}\)

A)$10,000

B)$9,000

C)$11,000

D)$7,000

Q2) Which of the following should appear in consolidated financial statements?

A)All intercompany transactions properly recorded on each affiliate's books.

B)Transactions between the consolidated company and outside parties.

C)Transactions not accounted for by the simple equity method.

D)Lease transactions between a parent and subsidiary.

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Chapter 5: Intercompany Transactions: Bonds and Leases

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Q1) The usual impetus for transactions that create a long-term debtor-creditor relationship between members of a consolidated group is due to the:

A)subsidiary's ability to borrow larger amounts of capital at more favorable terms than would be available to the parent.

B)parent's ability to borrow larger amounts of capital at more favorable terms than would be available to the subsidiary.

C)parent's desire to decentralize asset management and credit control.

D)parent's desire to eliminate long-term debt.

Q2) Which of the following statements is true?

A)No elimination entries are required on a worksheet as a result of operating, direct-financing, and sales-type leases.

B)No elimination entries are required on a worksheet as a result of direct-financing and sales-type leases.

C)No elimination entries are required on a worksheet as a result of operating leases.

D)All the preceding are false.

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Chapter 6: Cash Flow, Eps, and Taxation

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Q1) When there is an excess of fair value over cost relative to an identifiable asset,

A)the recording of a deferred tax liability is required for the excess.

B)the recording of a deferred tax liability is necessary for the amount of the tax rate times the excess.

C)no amortization of a deferred tax liability is necessary

D)this excess does not create a deferred tax liability that needs to be recorded.

Q2) In calculating the voting power and market value for two or more corporations to file a consolidated tax return, preferred stock is included only if it

A)is entitled to vote.

B)is not limited and not preferred as to dividends.

C)has redemption rights beyond its issue price plus a reasonable redemption or liquidation premium and is convertible into the other class of stock.

D)meets any of the above conditions.

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Chapter 7: Special Issues in Accounting for an Investment

in a Subsidiary

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Q1) Control of a subsidiary was achieved with the initial investment in subsidiary stock.When a subsequent block of subsidiary's stock is purchased

A)the parent must change from the cost method to the equity method.

B)the parent must change from the equity method to the cost method.

C)no change in accounting methods is required.

D)none of the above.

Q2) In the year a parent sells its entire subsidiary investment, the results of subsidiary operations prior to the sale date are

A)consolidated to the point of sale.

B)shown on the balance sheet in the stockholders' equity section as an adjustment to retained earnings.

C)not reflected on any of the parent's statements.

D)not consolidated.

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Chapter 8: Subsidiary Equity Transactions, Indirect

Subsidiary Ownership, and Subsidiary Ownership of Parent Shares

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Q1) When a subsidiary owns shares of the parent, the subsidiary's investment account

A)should be accounted for using the equity method.

B)is not eliminated so the subsidiary's investment in the parent is displayed on the balance sheet.

C)is maintained at its original cost since the shares have no claim on income.

D)may be accounted for using the cost, equity or sophisticated equity method.

Q2) A owns 80% of B and 20% of C.B owns 32% of C, and C owns 10% of A.Which interest will be considered NCI in the consolidated balance sheet?

A)20% of B and 48% of C

B)10% of A

C)10% of A and 48% of C

D)There will not be a non-controlling interest.

Q3) When the parent purchases some newly issued shares of a subsidiary, any adjustments resulting from the subsidiary stock sales should be made

A)at the end of the current fiscal year when the worksheet is prepared.

B)at the time of the sale when the equity method is used.

C)at the time of the sale if the cost method is used.

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D)retroactively to the start of the current fiscal year.

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Chapter 9: The International Accounting Environment

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Q1) RWB Corporation, a U.S.based company, sold inventory to a German company on June 5 for 12,000 euros, when $1 was equal to 1.20 euros.The company received 12,000 euros in payment on August 4 when $1 was equal to 1.25 euros.RWB's measurement currency is the U.S.dollar.RWB Corporation:

A)should record the sale for $9,600.

B)is exposed to an economic loss on the transaction.

C)has an economic gain on the transaction.

D)should record the sale for 12,000 euros.

Q2) RWB Corporation, a U.S.based company, bought inventory from a German company on June 5 for 12,000 euros, when $1 was equal to 1.20 euros.The company settled its payable with 12,000 euros on August 4 when $1 was equal to 1.25 euros.RWB's measurement currency is the U.S.dollar.RWB Corporation:

A)should record the inventory for $9,600.

B)is exposed to an economic loss on the transaction.

C)has an economic gain on the transaction.

D)should record the inventory for 12,000 euros.

Q3) Explain the factors which have led to the differences in accounting standards among nations.

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Chapter 10: Foreign Currency Transactions

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Q1) A derivative:

A)requires little or no initial investment.

B)derives its value from changes in its underlying rate.

C)can be settled for cash without having to buy or sell the related asset or liability.

D)All of the above.

Q2) A U.S.Corp.purchased a computer from a French firm on July 1, 2020, when a Euro cost $0.25.The U.S.firm will be required to pay the French manufacturer 75,000 Euros on August 1, 2020, when the Euro costs $0.23.

Required: Make the necessary journal entries for the U.S.firm on July 1 and August 1.

Q3) A United States based company that has not hedged an exposed asset position would experience an exchange gain if

A)forward rates increased.

B)forward rates decreased.

C)spot rates increased.

D)spot rates decreased.

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Chapter 11: Translation of Foreign Financial Statements

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Q1) When preparing a foreign affiliate's financial statements for consolidation, the first step is to:

A)review the regulations of the country in which the affiliate is located to determine if consolidation is legal.

B)adjust the financial statements to conform to generally accepted accounting principles.

C)determine the affiliate's functional currency.

D)translate the financial statements into the parent's currency.

Q2) Exchange rates will not usually directly affect the cash flows of the parent entity in which of the following cases?

A)The foreign entity operates in a currency other than its own.

B)The foreign entity operates in its local currency.

C)The foreign entity functions in a currency other than its local currency.

D)The foreign entity functions in the parent's currency.

Q3) List the two primary objectives of translating foreign financial statements according to the FASB #52, which emphasizes the concept of the functional currency.?

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Chapter 12: Interim Reporting and Disclosures About

Segments of an Enterprise

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Q1) Two or more operating segments can be combined into a single operating segment, if they share similarities in the following area EXCEPT for:

A)They have the same type of class of customer for their products and services.

B)The production processes are of the same nature.

C)They share the same accounting periods and are consistent in their accounting methods.

D)They share the same distribution channels of their products and/or services.

Q2) A reconciliation of the revenue, profit and loss and asset amounts presented for reportable segments to the respective consolidated amounts for the entity:

A)is not required if all segments are considered reportable.

B)is also required for other significant items presented by segments, such as depreciation and amortization.

C)is required only if the entity elects to use the management approach to determine its operating segments.

D)None of the above is correct.

Q3) In addition to disclosures about reportable segments, companies are required to provide enterprise-wide disclosures.Describe the information included in enterprise-wide disclosures.

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Chapter 13: Partnerships: Characteristics, Formation, and

Accounting for Activities

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Q1) Partners H & I share profit and loss in an agreed ratio of 90/10.In the case of a net loss of $10,000, Partner I's capital account would be:

A)Credited for $1,000

B)Debited for $9,000

C)Debited for $1,000

D)Would not be affected

Q2) J & K are forming a partnership.J is investing a building that has a market value of $80,000.However, the building carries a $45,000 mortgage that will be assumed by the partnership.K is investing $20,000 cash.The balance of J's capital is

A)$25,000

B)$35,000

C)$45,000

D)$125,000

Q3) A partner's liability adopted by the partnership should be recorded at which value:

A)Book

B)Fair market

C)Labor

D)Asset

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Chapter 14: Partnerships: Ownership Changes and Liquidations

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Q1) If objective evidence supports the write-down of existing assets, the previous partners' capital balances would be reduced accordingly in proportion to

A)Capital investment

B)Profit and loss ratio

C)Amount of Drawing

D)Amount of Expense

Q2) Michael, Angel, and Lou are partners and according to their articles of copartnership share profit and loss in the ratio of 2/3/5.The partners' capital balances are as follows: Michael $100,000, Angel $125,000, and Lou $150,000.Angel decided to with draw from the partnership and the partners agree not to have the assets revalued.Assuming Angel sells his interest to DaVinny for $200,000 after both other partners approve of the admission, what likely is the journal entry:

A)Debit Angel Capital for $125,000, credit DaVinny capital for $125,000

B)Debit Angel Capital for $200,000, credit DaVinny capital for $200,000

C)Debit Angel Capital for $200,000 credit Davinny capital for $125,000 and recognize Goodwill

D)Debit Angel Capital for $75,000 and credit DaVinny Capital for $75,000

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Chapter 15: Government and Not for Profit Accounting

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Q1) The primary financial Reporting standard setting board for the federal government is likely to be:

A)SEC

B)IRS

C)CMA

D)GAO

Q2) An encumbrance most likely would be reported as:

A)Asset

B)Deferred Asset

C)Liability

D)Expected Expense

Q3) A difference in reporting on the balance sheet for a for profit business and a Not for profit entity is that current assets and current liabilities are reported in the for profit sector and the parallel accounts in not for profit are found in:

A)Deferred accounts

B)Fund accounts

C)Donations

D)Net assets

Q4) Identify the three fund types used in government accounting and their relevance:

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Chapter 16: Governmental Accounting: Other

Governmental Funds, Proprietary Funds, and Fiduciary Funds

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Q1) If general obligation debt is refunded to lower the interest rate and the proceeds are irrevocably placed with an escrow agent or trustee to pay off the old debt as it comes due, the government must

A)provide a general description of the transaction in the newspaper.

B)calculate the economic gain or Balance--Employer Contributions. C)adjust the GLTDAG for the increase or decrease in the amount of long-term debt.

D)Both b and c are correct.

Q2) Which of the following is not a classification of net assets of proprietary funds?

A)Unrestricted

B)Restricted

C)Assigned

D)Invested in capital assets, net of related debt

Q3) The primary purpose of Debt Service funds is to serve as monies set aside for an insubstance defeasance.

A)True

B)False

Q4) What is escheat property and how do we account for it?

Page 18

Q5) What reporting is required for the accounting for employee Pension Trust Funds.

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Chapter 17: Financial Reporting Issues

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Q1) General fixed assets, including infrastructure assets, and general long-term debt are included only in the government-wide financial statements.

A)True

B)False

Q2) GASB Statement No.34 requires the reporting for internal service funds by

A)combining income statement results with general fund activities

B)requiring internal service funds to be reported separately as major funds

C)classifying internal service funds as proprietary funds, labeled as government activities

D)All of the above

Q3) General purpose financial statements are part of required supplementary information.

A)True

B)False

Q4) The statement of Cash Flows includes only a section for operating cash flows, and investing cash flows.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 18: Accounting for Private Not-For-Profit Organizations

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Q1) A voluntary welfare organization is permitted to use building facilities rent free.This should be recorded as:

A)a footnote in the financial statements disclosing the rent-free arrangement.

B)a contribution.

C)rent expense at the fair market value.

D)both b and c are correct.

Q2) Which of the following is not true about multi-year pledges or pledges payable in the future?

A)The pledges are recorded as unrestricted if the donor has not stipulated any restrictions.

B)The pledges are recorded at their present value.

C)The pledges are treated as temporarily restricted revenue.

D)An allowance for doubtful contributions should be established based on historical expenses.

Q3) Contribution of a work of art to a museum for public exhibit would

A)be recognized as a contribution at fair market value.

B)be recognized as operating revenue based upon admission fees.

C)be recognized as an asset subject to depreciation.

D)not be recognized as a contribution.

Page 20

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Chapter 19: Accounting for Not-For-Profit Colleges and Universities and Health Care Organizations

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Q1) Explain how certain transactions that traditionally were reported as restricted by private universities will now be categorized as unrestricted exchange transaction.Describe how they will be accounted for per FASB 116.

Q2) A collection of first editions is donated to the university for its library.Which is the correct credit?

A)Net investment in Plant

B)No entry is required

C)Revenues, temporarily unrestricted contributions

D)Fund Balance, restricted

Q3) The financial statements required for private not-for-profit health care organizations are the statement of activities, the statement of financial position and the statement of cash flows.

A)True

B)False

Q4) A contribution is a(n)

A)conditional transfer of cash.

B)unconditional transfer of cash.

C)donation of services which would not be purchased otherwise.

D)donation of unskilled services which you might purchase.

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Chapter 20: Estates and Trusts: Their Nature and the

Accountants Role

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Q1) The Charge and Discharge Statement accounting indicates the need to segregate A)real property from personal property.

B)devices from legacies.

C)principal items from income items.

D)assets of the estate from claims against the estate.

Q2) The gross estate reflects the original purchase value of all property in which the decedent had an interest at the date of death, regardless of the nature of the property or to whom it passes.

A)True

B)False

Q3) The marital deduction is allowed for the value of qualifying property passing to a surviving spouse, but it may defer estate taxes only until the death of the surviving spouse.

A)True

B)False

Q4) Which of the following items is not charged against the income of an estate?

A)Ordinary repairs to income-producing property

B)Expenses incurred to protect income flow

C)Loss on the sale of an estate asset

D)All of the above are charged against the income

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Chapter 21: Debt Restructuring, Corporate Reorganizations, and Liquidations

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Q1) Which of the following is not a general objective of bankruptcy procedures?

A)assurance that all obligations of the debtor will be satisfied completely

B)attempt to give the debtor a fresh start

C)assurance of an equitable distribution of the debtor's property among creditors

D)None of the above is a general objective.

Q2) Which of the following is an illustration of an action that can be taken to help a troubled firm without using the court system?

A)asset transfers to settle debt

B)equity interest granted in exchange for debt

C)modifications of interest rates more favorable to the firm

D)All or a combination can be used.

Q3) The Accounting Statement of Affairs is a report on the activities of the trustee made periodically to the bankruptcy court.

A)True

B)False

Q4) Describe the duties of the trustee in a Chapter 7 liquidation.

Q5) Differentiate by function the Accounting Statement of Affairs and the Statement of Realization and Liquidation.

Page 23

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Chapter 22: Derivatives and Related Accounting Issues

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Q1) Under special accounting treatment for cash flow hedge of a forecasted transaction, the relationship between the change in value of a derivative instrument and the change in value of the forecasted transaction affects the amount of gain (loss) that should be in Other Comprehensive Income (OCI).If the amount of gain on derivatives that is classified as OCI is $17,500 and the cumulative loss on the remaining forecasted transaction is ($13,200), the amount of OCI to be reclassified as a component of current earnings is A)$4,300.

B)$13,200.

C)$17,500.

D)not applicable.

Q2) Which of the following is true about options?

A)Generally, higher volatility of the underlying increases the value of the option.

B)The value of an option is realized only through its being exercised.

C)An American option is exercisable at its maturity date.

D)An option premium is refundable if the option becomes unfavorable.

Q3) A hedge of a forecasted transaction is a cash flow hedge.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 23: Equity Method for Unconsolidated Investments

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Q1) Company P acquired 30% of Company S's common stock on January 1, 20X8, for $100,000.Company P's 30% interest constitutes significant influence.There is no excess of cost over book value.During 20X8, Company S earned $40,000 and paid dividends of $25,000.During 20X9, Company S's $50,000 income was earned evenly, and the company paid dividends of $15,000 on April 1 and $15,000 on October 1.On July 1, 20X9, Company P sold half of its interest in Company S for $66,000 cash; thus, Company P no longer had significant influence The gain on the sale of the investment in Company P's 20X9 income statement should be ____.

A)$16,000

B)$13,700

C)$12,250

D)$10,000

Q2) Under the fair value option, the investor's share of dividends received from the investee and fair value adjustments are recorded as income.

A)True

B)False

Q3) Under the equity method, the investor's share of earnings is reported as income. A)True

B)False

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Chapter 24: Variable Interest Entities

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Q1) The primary beneficiary does not consolidate its interest in a VIE into their consolidated financial statements.

A)True

B)False

Q2) Consolidation procedures are applied to controlling ownership interests in Variable Interest Entities.

A)True

B)False

Q3) The primary bene ciary has control of the variable interest entity (VIE) based on its power to control the activities of the VIE and the obligation to absorb losses and receive bene ts from the VIE.

A)True

B)False

Q4) The entity having control of a VIE is referred to as the parent company.

A)True

B)False

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