Paramedicine Midterm Exam
Course Introduction
Paramedicine is a dynamic field focused on providing immediate medical care and support to individuals experiencing acute illness or trauma, often in emergency settings. This course covers the principles and practices of pre-hospital care, including patient assessment, life-saving interventions, and safe transportation. Students will learn about anatomy and physiology, pharmacology, advanced airway management, trauma response, and medical emergency protocols. Emphasis is placed on critical thinking, teamwork, and communication skills essential for working in high-pressure environments. Through hands-on training and clinical placements, students gain the competence and confidence required to function effectively as paramedics within the broader healthcare system.
Recommended Textbook
Fundamentals of Pharmacology 8th Edition by Shane Bullock
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Sociocultural Aspects
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following acne preparations CANNOT be purchased as an over-the-counter preparation?
A) An isotretinoin preparation
B) A sulphur preparation
C) A resorcinol preparation
D) A benzoyl peroxide preparation
Answer: A
Q2) The generic name of a medication is the:
A) name given by the biochemical scientist who invented the medication.
B) name given to the pharmaceutical company that manufactures the medication.
C) chemical name of the medication.
D) shortened, simplified version of the chemical name.
Answer: D
Q3) It is best to learn about pharmacology with reference to what particular type of medication names?
A) Chemical names
B) Brand names
C) Generic names
D) Proprietary names
Answer: C
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Chapter 2: Health Professionals and the Law
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Q1) According to the Standard for the Uniform Scheduling of Medicines and Poisons in Australia,in which drug schedule is a controlled drug classified?
A) Schedule 1.
B) Schedule 2.
C) Schedule 4.
D) Schedule 8.
Answer: D
Q2) In Victoria,midwives employed in hospitals are permitted to initiate administration of up to two pethidine injections to a woman in labour without a health professional's order.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) Australian regulations require nursing staff to maintain a ward register for administration of controlled drugs and periodically check the balance of ampoules,tablets and volumes of liquid.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Chapter 3: Ethical Issues
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Q1) Macroallocation and microallocation of resources are principles related to what aspect of ethical conduct?
A) Autonomy
B) Beneficence
C) Veracity
D) Justice
Answer: D
Q2) Ms B has an operable brain tumour but refuses life-saving treatment after an acute bleeding episode.Her partner supports the decision.What ethical principle do the health professionals apply to justify doing nothing?
A) Non-maleficence
B) Confidentiality
C) Autonomy
D) Justice
Answer: C
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Chapter 4: the Roles and Responsibilities of Health
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Q1) In their role as client advocate,health professionals inform people about their rights in relation to drug therapy,other health care-related matters,or when confronted by adversaries,to empower them to make informed decisions.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following factors has an effect on medication adherence? Select all that apply.
A) Age extremes
B) Communication barriers
C) Polypharmacy
D) Single illness with uncomplicated treatment regimen
Q3) A client is recently diagnosed with rheumatoid arthritis.Her mother has also been diagnosed some years ago.Which of the following teaching principles will be most helpful in client teaching?
A) Passive participation
B) Prior knowledge and experience
C) Repetition will not be required.
D) The patient is genetically predisposed to be prepared for accompanying pain.
Page 6
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Chapter 5: the Roles and Responsibilities of Health
Professionals in Medicine Management
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Q1) Which of the following healthcare workers have some prescribing rights,are able to order context-specific pathology and radiology tests,and are able to make limited referrals?
A) assistant in nursing
B) registered nurse
C) nurse practitioner
D) nurse researcher
Q2) The educational preparation for a nurse practitioner is:
A) a Master's degree.
B) a Bachelor's degree.
C) extensive training in the clinical setting.
D) a professional doctorate.
Q3) Which of the following health professionals treat clients having temporary or permanent physical disability by physical treatment modalities (such as exercise,massage,splinting and electrical stimulation)that often require supplementary drug therapy?
A) Prescriber
B) Nurse
C) Physiotherapist
D) Paramedic
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Chapter 6: Medicine Formulations, Storage and Routes of Administration
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Sample Questions
Q1) After administering ear drops,to allow the medication to disperse and absorb,the client should:
A) not talk for 5 minutes.
B) lie down with the affected ear facing up for about 10 minutes.
C) lie down flat for 10 minutes.
D) sit for 5 minutes.
Q2) Following use of a nebuliser unit:
A) dismantle the unit, rinse and shake to allow to dry.
B) pack it away in the client's bedside drawer.
C) dismantle the unit, rinse and towel dry.
D) leave it hanging by the client's bedside.
Q3) Suppositories,in general,when inserted into the lower third of the rectum:
A) always have a fast onset of action.
B) avoid the hepatic first pass.
C) are useful for ulcerative colitis.
D) are for laxative use only.
Q4) Nasal preparations are not absorbed systemically.
A)True
B)False
Page 8
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Chapter 7: the Clinical Decision-making Process
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Q1) New Zealand is the only country worldwide that has a comprehensive medicinal policy at the Commonwealth level.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The nursing clinical decision-making process involves the following steps:
A) assessment, planning and implementation.
B) assessment, planning, implementation and evaluation.
C) assessment, diagnosis, planning, implementation and evaluation.
D) assessment and evaluation.
Q3) What is the first step in the clinical decision-making process?
A) evaluation
B) assessment
C) planning
D) prognosis
Q4) Which of the following is NOT representative of the 'quality use of' facet of the National Medicines Policy?
A) Only focusing on drug therapy
B) Choosing suitable medicines
C) Safe use of medicines
D) Effective use of medicines
Page 9
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Chapter 8: Medicine Administration Strategies and Documentation
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Q1) A health professional is required to practice within the policies and procedures of the health care agency and to follow the legal framework of government legislation.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Only one registered nurse's signature is sufficient for checking of documentation procedures of the following EXCEPT for:
A) blood transfusions.
B) orally administered drugs and intermittent intravenous drugs.
C) intravenous fluids.
D) once-only or nurse-initiated drugs.
Q3) How many registered nurses are needed to check information for administration of drugs such as narcotic analgesics,digoxin and warfarin?
A) None
B) One
C) Two
D) More than five
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Chapter 9: Medication Errors
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Q1) In order to avoid medication errors,it is a good strategy to have two patients with the same name positioned:
A) next to each other.
B) opposite each other.
C) next to the central office area.
D) at opposite ends of the hospital ward.
Q2) Which of the following are potential sources of medical errors? Select all that apply.
A) The wrong dose of a medication is given.
B) The person's identity is not checked.
C) The manufacturer changes inert ingredients.
D) The person takes all of their medicines at the same time every day.
Q3) Following the five rights"will help reduce medication errors.
A)True
B)False
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11
Chapter 10: Management of Common Adverse Drug
Reactions
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Q1) Which drug is the most common cause of an anaphylactic reaction?
A) Aspirin
B) Contrast media
C) Penicillin
D) Transfused blood
Q2) What agent is used to treat respiratory depression caused by an opioid analgesic?
A) Pentazocine
B) Naloxone
C) Methadone
D) Naltrexone
Q3) Aplastic anaemia caused by chloramphenicol is an example of type B adverse drug reaction.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A conscious client with respiratory depression should be placed in a:
A) flat position.
B) semi-upright position.
C) side position.
D) prone position.
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Chapter 11: Risk Communication: Balancing the Benefits and Risks of Drug Treatment
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Q1) When comparing absolute risk reduction to relative risk reduction,one must consider:
A) the incidence of an outcome event.
B) the incidence of a sentinel event.
C) That only the relative risk statistics are accurate.
D) that more weight is given to absolute risk data.
Q2) Which of the following strategies would NOT be beneficial in communicating risks and benefits to individuals?
A) Offer balanced information.
B) Use specific, descriptive terms for risk.
C) Use a consistent denominator.
D) Use visual aids.
Q3) A study examining the risks and benefits of hormone replacement therapy (HRT)finds the number needed to treat with HRT to prevent an osteoporotic fracture is 300.This figure means 300 women need to be treated to prevent:
A) one woman from experiencing an osteoporotic fracture.
B) five women from experiencing an osteoporotic fracture.
C) 110 women from experiencing an osteoporotic fracture.
D) 220 women from experiencing an osteoporotic fracture.
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Chapter 12: Drug Nomenclature
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Sample Questions
Q1) Drugs with generic names that end in the suffix -pril are members of the drug group called:
A) HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors.
B) benzodiazepines.
C) serotonin receptor antagonists.
D) angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors.
Q2) Which of the following is an example of a generic drug name used in Australia and New Zealand?
A) Frusemide
B) Furomide
C) Furosemide
D) Lasix
Q3) Individual drugs can be classified according to all of the following EXCEPT:
A) therapeutic use.
B) mode of action.
C) molecular structure.
D) adverse drug reaction.
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Chapter 13: Pharmacokinetics: Absorption and Distribution
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Q1) Drugs are best absorbed from the gastrointestinal tract if they are:
A) hydrophilic.
B) amphipathic.
C) lipophobic.
D) lipophilic.
Q2) Drugs that are liver enzyme inducers may:
A) increase a drug's half-life.
B) increase a drug's metabolism.
C) inhibit a drug's therapeutic effect.
D) increase tissue distribution of another drug.
Q3) By which route are drugs not subject to the physiological process of absorption through a blood vessel wall?
A) Intramuscularly
B) Intradermally
C) Intravenously
D) Subcutaneously
Q4) If a drug accumulates in one tissue (that is,the drug is extensively bound to a tissue),its volume of distribution is low.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 14: Pharmacokinetics Metabolism and Excretion
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Q1) To elicit a rapid systemic effect,the route that will enable the maximum bioavailability is:
A) intramuscular.
B) oral.
C) intravenous.
D) intradermal.
Q2) Clearance of an acidic drug by the kidneys may be increased by:
A) alkalising the urine.
B) administering amphetamines.
C) administering ascorbic acid.
D) administering sodium hydrogen carbonate.
Q3) Drugs are metabolised by the liver to make them more:
A) amphipathic.
B) hydrophilic.
C) lipophilic.
D) hydrophobic.
Q4) Explain what is meant by drug clearance.
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16
Chapter 15: Drug Interactions
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Sample Questions
Q1) In which way can hepatic enzymes be altered by drug metabolism?
A) Can cause enhancement or inhibition of metabolism
B) Can interact with the external environment
C) Are only altered in conjunction with food
D) Are only considered with regard to synergistic effects between drugs
Q2) A common drug-food interaction is between grapefruit juice and:
A) aspirin.
B) paracetamol.
C) felodipine.
D) ibuprofen.
Q3) When suxamethonium and thiopentone are mixed in the same syringe,the drug-drug interaction that results is:
A) summation.
B) chemical drug incompatibility.
C) potentiation.
D) augmentation.
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Chapter 16: Pharmacodynamics
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Q1) In general,a medicine that acts by chemical or physical means can be identified by its dose,which is considerably higher than that required by medicines that act by interacting with a receptor or enzyme system.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Some terms that describe interactions between drugs and receptors include: (Select all that apply)
A) antagonism.
B) agonism.
C) first mechanism
D) first messenger
Q3) A drug mechanism that works to neutralise stomach acid is considered to be:
A) an action targeting ion channels.
B) a chemical action.
C) an agonist action.
D) a physical action.
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Chapter 17: Drug Development, Evaluation and Safety
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Q1) Which of the following tests characterises the drug screening process?
A) Testing for drug potency in humans
B) The monitoring of adverse effects after the drug is released into the marketplace
C) The identification of a chemical with potential therapeutic action
D) The assessment of drug toxicity in animals
Q2) The ability of a drug to produce an effect at a receptor is referred to as:
A) affinity.
B) specificity.
C) efficacy.
D) potency.
Q3) Which form of hypersensitivity reaction is characterised by antibody-antigen complexes that precipitate out of the blood and lodge in tissues such as skin and joints,inducing an inflammatory response?
A) Type I hypersensitivity reactions
B) Type II hypersensitivity reactions
C) Type III hypersensitivity reactions
D) Type IV hypersensitivity reactions
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Chapter 18: Genetic Considerations in Pharmacology
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Q1) Which one of the following factors is likely to result in higher plasma drug levels?
A) Taking a water-soluble drug during a meal
B) Administering a drug orally when a client is experiencing an episode of severe diarrhoea
C) Administering the narcotic analgesic morphine to a person with cirrhosis of the liver
D) Administering a drug that is subject to significant metabolism to a person whose occupation involves handling chemicals that induce microsomal enzymes.
Q2) Cost-effectiveness is a potential barrier to genetic-based therapies.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Two techniques used in gene therapy include in vitro and vector methods.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 19: Pharmacokinetic Factors That Modify Drug Action
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Q1) Which one of the following factors would not be expected to increase the rate of drug absorption from the small intestines?
A) A small-sized drug molecule
B) Delayed gastric emptying
C) An increase in gut blood flow
D) The majority of drug molecules in an un-ionised state
Q2) During pregnancy,drug absorption from the gastrointestinal tract is variable and unpredictable due to slowed peristalsis and gastric emptying.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 20: Paediatric and Geriatric Pharmacology
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Q1) In paediatric settings,it is desirable to:
A) leave medications on the bedside locker for later administration.
B) use the vastus lateralis muscle for intramuscular injection.
C) prepare medicines for injection in front of the child.
D) advise the child that injections are painless.
Q2) Paediatric drug dosage can be calculated by using the body surface area,age and bodyweight.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Compared to neonates,do the elderly have greater or diminished drug effects due to variation in the volume of body fluid?
Q4) Which of the following therapies would result in relatively lower plasma drug levels in neonates compared to an older child?
A) Glucocorticoid treatment when the mother received this therapy during late pregnancy
B) Topically administered therapy applied to the skin
C) Orally administered penicillin G
D) Treatment with a fat-soluble drug
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Chapter 21: Poisoning and Envenomation
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Q1) Which of the following best characterizes the mode of action of cyanide poisoning?
A) Central nervous system depressant
B) Displaces essential trace elements and accumulates in tissues
C) Permanently disables the enzyme cholinesterase
D) Diminishes cellular energy
Q2) Which of the following principles of emergency management is matched appropriately
A) Life support-gathering as much information as possible about the poison
B) Clinical assessments-ensuring a clear airway, maintaining effective respiration and circulation and addressing fluid or metabolic imbalances
C) Decontamination and detoxification-reducing the amount of poison absorbed
D)Neutralisation and elimination-providing hydration and electrolyte management
Q3) Which of the following is an iron chelating agent?
A) Disodium edetate
B) Deferasirox
C) d-penicillamine
D) Calcium gluconate
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Chapter 22: the Management of Acute Clinical Overdose
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Q1) The passing of a patient's blood across a medium containing adsorbent beads is called:
A) haemoperfusion.
B) haemosiderosis.
C) haemodialysis.
D) haemolysis.
Q2) A specific antidote for an overdose of an acetylcholinesterase inhibitor is:
A) physostigmine.
B) atropine.
C) acetylcysteine.
D) naloxone.
Q3) Which one of the following is NOT a component of patient assessment in the management of clinical drug overdose?
A) Determining the time that poisoning occurred
B) Determining if the client had any previous episodes of drug overdose
C) Recognising the clinical manifestations of the overdose
D) Ordering laboratory tests of the patient's blood
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24
Chapter 23: Contemporary Drugs of Abuse
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Q1) Which of the following medications can be used to treat alcohol addiction?
A) Metronidazole
B) Disulfiram
C) Acamprosate
D) Both B and C
Q2) Which of the following is a symptom of caffeine withdrawal?
A) Hallucinations
B) Palpitations
C) Headaches
D) Muscle tremors
Q3) Nicotine can have the following effect EXCEPT:
A) weight gain.
B) stimulation.
C) increased blood pressure.
D) appetite suppression.
Q4) Therapeutic uses of marijuana include:
A) glaucoma.
B) emesis control.
C) hypertension.
D) all of the above.
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Chapter 24: Drug Abuse in Sport
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Q1) One rationale given for misuse of narcotic agents by sportspeople is to:
A) induce anabolic effects.
B) produce euphoria.
C) promote aggression.
D) increase blood oxygen-carrying capacity.
Q2) Which one of the following could be perceived as a benefit associated with anabolic-androgenic steroid use?
A) Mood swings
B) Premature completion of long bone growth
C) Increased skeletal muscle mass
D) An altered blood lipid profile
Q3) Which of the following statements is NOT true in relation to detection of drug use in sport?
A) Individual differences in pharmacokinetics affect the results of drug tests.
B) Sportswomen can use some drugs on the WADA banned list that sportsmen cannot.
C) Peptide hormone misuse can be difficult to detect.
D) Low-dose anabolic-androgenic steroid use causes feminisation in men.
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Chapter 25: General Aspects of Neuropharmacology
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Q1) What effect does the parasympathetic system have on the heart?
A) Increases heart rate
B) Decreases heart rate
C) Causes vasodilation
D) Increases the force of the heart
Q2) Which of the following neurotransmitters is involved in autonomic nervous system (ANS)function?
A) Norepinephrine
B) Vasopressin
C) Acetylcholine
D) Dobutamine
Q3) The parasympathetic division is activated in an emergency or stressful situation.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 26: Adrenergic Pharmacology
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Q1) Which secondary messenger is associated with \(\alpha_{1}\) receptor activation?
A) IP<sub>3</sub>
B) Cyclic AMP
C) DAG
D) Both A and C
Q2) An \(\alpha\) antagonists would be useful in the treatment of:
A) urinary retention.
B) hypotension.
C) overactive bladder.
D) asthma.
Q3) Which type of electrolyte abnormality may occur with the use of \(\beta_{2} \) agonists?
A) Hyperkalemia
B) Hypokalemia
C) Hypomagnesemia
D) Hypernatremia
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Chapter 27: Cholinergic Pharmacology
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Q1) Which of the following agents can be used to reverse the effects of acetylcholine?
A) Cholinergic receptor stimulation
B) Suxamethonium
C) Tubocurarine
D) Atropine
Q2) Which enzyme is responsible for the degradation of acetylcholine?
A) Monoamine oxidase
B) Cholinesterase
C) Catechol-O-methyltransferase
D) Both A and B
Q3) Muscarinic antagonists have been used as:
A) antispasmodics.
B) antiulcerants.
C) antiemetics.
D) All of the above
Q4) Acetylcholinesterase breaks acetylcholine into choline and acetate.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 28: An Introduction to Chemical Mediators
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Q1) Mediators that induce their effect without entering the circulation are referred to as:
A) hormones.
B) neurotransmitters.
C) autacoids.
D) second messengers.
Q2) Which of the following mediators acts on a distant target?
A) Neurotransmitter
B) Classic hormone
C) Local hormone
D) Autacoid
Q3) Which of the following mediators is released directly into the bloodstream?
A) Hormones
B) Neurotransmitters
C) Autacoids
D) None of the above
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Chapter 29: Histamine and Antihistamines
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Q1) Blocking which histamine receptor would help in the management of excessive gastric acid secretion?
A) H<sub>1</sub>
B) H<sub>2</sub>
C) H<sub>3</sub>
D) H<sub>4</sub>
Q2) Which secondary messenger is associated with H<sub>1</sub> receptor activation?
A) IP<sub>3</sub>
B) Cyclic AMP
C) DAG
D) Both A and D
Q3) How many subtypes of H<sub>1</sub> receptors have been identified?
A) Two
B) Three
C) Four
D) Five
Q4) First-generation antihistamines have a longer duration of action.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 30: Prostaglandins and Serotonin
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Q1) Common eicosanoids include:
A) thromboxanes.
B) leukotrienes.
C) hydroperoxyeicosatrienoic acids.
D) all of the above.
Q2) Drugs that inhibit the synaptic serotonin reuptake are used for:
A) autism.
B) depression.
C) glaucoma.
D) termination of pregnancy.
Q3) Prostaglandin analogues have been used for:
A) termination of pregnancy.
B) glaucoma.
C) treatment of impotence.
D) all of the above.
Q4) 5-HT<sub>3</sub> receptor antagonists have been used for: A) nausea.
B) somnolence.
C) REMS sleep disorder.
D) GERD.
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Chapter 31: Nitric Oxide and the Endothelins
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Q1) Which secondary messenger is associated with endothelin receptors?
A) IP<sub>3</sub>
B) Cyclic AMP
C) DAG
D) Both A and D
Q2) Endothelin receptor antagonists can be used safely in pregnant patients.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Endothelin receptor antagonists have been used for the treatment of:
A) pulmonary hypertension.
B) ischemic valve disease.
C) peripheral vascular disease.
D) none of the above.
Q4) How many endothelin receptor subtypes have been identified?
A) One
B) Two
C) Three
D) Four
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Page 33
Chapter 32: General concepts of Psychopharmacology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which description best matches the role of the thalamus?
A) A sorting area for sensory and motor impulses that relays the information to the most appropriate brain region
B) An area involved in appetite, body temperature, thirst and hormone release
C) The area involved in the primary perception and interpretation of sensation as well as the initiation of skeletal muscle movement
D) A region involved in equilibrium, postural control and coordinated movement
Q2) The transmitter that is particularly associated with cognition,memory formation and skeletal muscle activation is:
A) dopamine.
B) noradrenaline.
C) acetylcholine.
D) serotonin.
Q3) The transmitter associated with emesis is:
A) dopamine.
B) serotonin.
C) noradrenaline.
D) acetylcholine.
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34
Chapter 33: Antipsychotics
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Q1) Cholestatic jaundice can occur with which phenothiazine antipsychotic agent,therefore requiring cessation of the agent?
A) Fluphenazine
B) Pericyazine
C) Chlorpromazine
D) Pipothiazine
Q2) Which of the following antipsychotic drug groups is associated with photosensitivity,therefore requiring protection from the sun?
A) The butyrophenones
B) The phenothiazines
C) The dibenzodiazepines
D) The thioxanthenes
Q3) When switching from one antipsychotic medication to clozapine,the other antipsychotic medication is reduced over:
A) one day, and stopped for 24 hours before starting clozapine.
B) two days, and stopped for 24 hours before starting clozapine.
C) four days, and stopped for 24 hours before starting clozapine.
D) seven days, and stopped for 24 hours before starting clozapine.
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Chapter 34: Anxiolytics and Hypnotics
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Q1) More than how many weeks of continuous treatment with benzodiazepines results in dependence and tolerance?
A) One week
B) Two to four weeks
C) Four to six weeks
D) Six to eight weeks
Q2) Explain why hypnotic agents should not be used for long-term therapy.
Q3) Which one of the following anxiolytic/sedative drugs can directly activate GABA receptors,even in the absence of GABA itself?
A) Benzodiazepines
B) Buspirone
C) Barbiturates
D) Dexmedetomidine
Q4) Which benzodiazepine agent would be considered suitable for a person who has problems with early morning awakening?
A) Triazolam
B) Diazepam
C) Temazepam
D) Flunitrazepam
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Chapter 35: Antidepressants and Mood Stabilisers
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Q1) In terms of the proposed sites of action of antidepressant drugs,which of the following would be expected to produce a therapeutic benefit?
A) The induction of monoamine oxidase activity
B) An increase in the synaptic levels of neurotransmitters serotonin and/or noradrenaline
C) A centrally acting \(\beta_{2}\) agonist
D) Depletion of amine transmitter levels in the presynaptic nerve terminal
Q2) Which one of the following statements about lithium carbonate is true?
A) It has a high therapeutic index.
B) The body treats it like it is sodium.
C) It enhances the synaptic levels of noradrenaline.
D) It is used in the management of panic disorders.
Q3) The proposed action of tetracyclic antidepressant drugs is:
A) block transmitter reuptake.
B) block the amine reuptake pump on the presynaptic terminal.
C) inhibit monoamine oxidase.
D) selectively block postsynaptic 5-HT<sub>2</sub> receptors.
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Chapter 36: Medicines Used in Neurodegenerative Disorders
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Q1) Which of the following is not an appropriate clinical management activity in relation to tetrabenazine therapy for Huntington's disease?
A) The client should avoid drinking alcohol with tetrabenazine.
B) Therapy is stopped if dysphagia or choking occurs.
C) If depression occurs, the dose of tetrabenazine is reduced or treatment is stopped.
D) The dose of tetrabenazine is reduced gradually over two days to prevent rebound involuntary movements.
Q2) Excessive glutamine repeats in the protein coded by the HTT gene is associated with: A) motor neurone disease.
B) multiple sclerosis.
C) Huntington's disease.
D) Alzheimer's disease.
Q3) Neuroleptic drug-induced Parkinsonian symptoms are often treated with:
A) an antimuscarinic agent.
B) a serotonin receptor agonist.
C) an antiemetic agent.
D) an increase in neuroleptic dose.
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Page 38
Chapter 37: Antiseizure Agents and Muscle Relaxants
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Q1) Which of the following antiseizure drugs may cause gingivitis and gingival hyperplasia,therefore necessitating the need for meticulous dental care?
A) Phenytoin
B) Carbamazepine
C) Ethosuximide
D) Vigabatrin
Q2) Which of the following antiseizure medications is associated with severe skin reactions?
A) Valproic acid
B) Phenytoin
C) Vigabatrin
D) Lamotrigine
Q3) Barbiturates remain in use for seizure management because:
A) they have few serious adverse effects.
B) their antiseizure activity is greater than their sedating activity.
C) physical dependence does not occur.
D) they are safe for use in patients with chronic kidney disease.
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Chapter 38: Central Nervous System Stimulants
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Q1) Modafinil is useful in the treatment of:
A) ADD.
B) ADHD.
C) narcolepsy.
D) amphetamine addiction.
Q2) In order to promote maximum benefit for the treatment of narcolepsy,modafinil should be taken as a daily dose:
A) in the morning, or as two divided doses in the morning and at noon.
B) in the mid-afternoon.
C) with the evening meal.
D) at bedtime.
Q3) 'Drug holidays' from dexamphetamine may be important to avoid:
A) addiction.
B) growth retardation.
C) insomnia.
D) cognitive impairment.
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Chapter 39: Opioid Analgesics
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Q1) The opioid receptors most involved in mediating analgesia are:
A) delta and epsilon.
B) kappa and delta.
C) mu and epsilon.
D) mu and kappa.
Q2) Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of oxycodone?
A) It has less of a hepatic first pass than morphine.
B) It has a shorter half-life than morphine.
C) It comes as a suppository formulation, which is useful for overnight analgesia.
D) It comes as a scored tablet formulation, which can be crushed and given with water to clients who have difficulties in swallowing tablets whole.
Q3) When administering tramadol,it should not be given with drugs that:
A) affect coagulation.
B) affect blood vessel vasculature.
C) are largely metabolised renally.
D) increase seizure tendencies.
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Q1) Describe the effects of prostaglandins on inflammation and pain.
Q2) Extreme diligence should be exercised in administering the correct dose of paracetamol to children because overdose can lead to:
A) gastrointestinal bleeding.
B) renal failure.
C) inhibition of the hypothalamic control on temperature.
D) liver damage.
Q3) Controlled-release preparations of ketoprofen should be taken ________ to improve the symptoms of arthritic pain.
A) immediately after meals
B) 15 minutes before physical activity
C) at bedtime
D) upon rising in the morning
Q4) The combined use of salicylates and corticosteroids may lead to ________ and should therefore be avoided.
A) tinnitus
B) renal failure
C) peptic ulceration
D) liver failure
Chapter 41: Medicines Used to Treat Migraine
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Q1) How does metoclopramide assist in the treatment of an acute migraine?
A) It decreases the incidence of nausea and vomiting.
B) It increases the absorption of ergotamine.
C) It decreases the rate at which ergotamine is excreted.
D) It inhibits the isoenzyme of the cytochrome P450 system that metabolises ergotamine.
Q2) First-line therapy for an acute migraine attack includes:
A) triptans.
B) paracetamol.
C) ergotamine.
D) tricyclic antidepressants.
Q3) In treating an acute migraine attack,sumatriptan should not be given with ergotamine because the combination may lead to:
A) excessive bronchoconstriction.
B) excessive vasoconstriction.
C) gastrointestinal bleeding.
D) excessive diuresis.
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43
Chapter 42: General Anaesthesia
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Q1) Intrathecal administration of anaesthetic produces:
A) profound anaesthesia with a small dose.
B) a mild analgesic effect with a small dose.
C) analgesia via the nerve roots that communicate with the epidural space.
D) no analgesic effect; this route of administration is inappropriate to achieve analgesia.
Q2) The rate of absorption of inhaled anaesthetic into the bloodstream is dependent on the ________ of the gas.
A) rate of osmosis
B) partial pressure
C) volume
D) surfactant levels
Q3) Which of the following is NOT a contraindication for the use of nitrous oxide as an inhalational anaesthetic?
A) Pneumothorax
B) Surgical procedures involving the middle ear
C) Tachycardia
D) Intestinal obstruction
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44
Chapter 43: Local Anesthesia
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Q1) Which of the following local anaesthetics has a relatively long duration of action?
A) Procaine
B) Lignocaine
C) Bupivacaine
D) Mepivacaine
Q2) The mechanism of action of the local anaesthetics is to impede the movement of which ion through its membrane channels?
A) Calcium
B) Potassium
C) Sodium
D) GABA
Q3) Which of the following routes of administration has the highest rate of systemic absorption of local anaesthetic agents?
A) Epidural administration
B) Intercostal administration
C) Subcutaneous administration
D) Brachial plexus administration
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Chapter 44: Medicines Used to Lower Blood Lipids
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which type of hyperlipidaemia is characterized by high VLDL and hypertriglyceridaemia?
A) Type I
B) Type IIa
C) Type IIb
D) Type IV
Q2) Long-term statin therapy has been linked to an increased incidence of:
A) stroke.
B) heart disease.
C) cataract development.
D) Alzheimer's disease.
Q3) When timing the dose for the fibrate gemfibrozil,the patient should be advised to take it:
A) at bedtime.
B) upon arising in the morning.
C) with food.
D) half an hour before food.
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Chapter 45: Antihypertensive Agents
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following chemical mediators can alter blood pressure via vasodilation?
A) Nitric oxide
B) Endothelin-1
C) ANF
D) Vasopressin
Q2) Which of the following medications used for hypertensive emergencies dilates both arteries and veins?
A)Hydralazine
B)Minoxidil
C)Sodium nitroprusside
D)Diazoxide
Q3) A hormone that affects blood pressure by facilitating an increased excretion of sodium and water is:
A) aldosterone.
B) ADH (vasopressin).
C) ANF.
D) oestrogen.
Q4) Describe the method of action of ACE inhibitors.
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Chapter 46: Medicines Used to Promote Tissue Perfusion
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Sample Questions
Q1) In the treatment of erectile dysfunction,phosphodiesterase inhibitors:
A) act to trigger the release of nitric oxide.
B) are used when the cause is psychological.
C) may interact negatively with organic nitrate therapy.
D) must be administered directly into the penis.
Q2) Which of the following nitrate formulations is not used to prevent angina symptoms?
A) Oral isosorbide dinitrate controlled-release tablets
B) Oral isosorbide mononitrate controlled-release tablets
C) Transdermal glyceryl trinitrate
D) Sublingual isosorbide dinitrate
Q3) Which two factors can be the root cause of angina pectoris?
A)Vasospasm and atherosclerotic plaque
B)Vasodilation and atherosclerotic plaque
C)Vasospasm and hypolipidaemia
D)Vasodilation and hypolipidaemia
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Chapter 47: Antithrombotic, Fibrinolytic and Haemostatic Agents
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Q1) The benefit of ________ for the treatment of thrombosis is that it is clot-specific,thereby reducing the risk of generalised haemorrhage.
A) warfarin
B) urokinase
C) streptokinase
D) tissue plasminogen activator
Q2) After about ________ hours of oral anticoagulant therapy with warfarin,the heparin can be withdrawn,as it takes this amount of time for the oral anticoagulant to exert its effect.
A) 2
B) 12
C) 24
D) 48
Q3) The antiplatelet agent abciximab is structurally related to
A) calcium channel blockers.
B) a bacterial enzyme.
C) the ADP receptor.
D) a vaccine.
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Chapter 48: Diuretics and Other Renal Medicines
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Sample Questions
Q1) A mannitol infusion bag appears to crystallise.What should the health professional know about this phenomenon?
A)The bag should be discarded immediately.
B)This is normal if the temperature of the bag is too high-the bag should be chilled.
C)This is normal if the temperature of the bag is too low-the bag should be warmed.
D)The infusion should proceed with no action taken.
Q2) Metabolic imbalances associated with thiazides can be avoided by:
A) starting off with a small dose and titrating according to therapeutic response.
B) starting off with a high dose and gradually titrating according to therapeutic response.
C) administering the dose once a day.
D) administering the dose two times a day.
Q3) Which diuretics promote the greatest diuresis?
A) Thiazides
B) Loop diurectics
C) Aldosterone inhibitors
D) Potassium-sparing diuretics
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Chapter 49: Topic: Medicines Used to Treat Heart Failure
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Q1) Which one of the following is NOT a pathophysiological change associated with heart failure?
A) Increased myocardial oxygen demand
B) Myocardial remodelling
C) Decreased angiotensin II production
D) Decreased myocardial contractility
Q2) The current optimal drug therapy in the management of heart failure is:
A) the cardiac glycoside digoxin.
B) the dopamine agonist dobutamine.
C) a non-selective \(\beta\)-blocker.
D) an ACE inhibitor and a diuretic.
Q3) When the left side of the heart fails,what symptoms result?
A)Splenic congestion
B)Peripheral oedema
C)Pulmonary congestion
D)Hepatic congestion
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Chapter 50: Medicines Used to Treat Cardiac Dysrhythmia
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is an example of a prodysrhythmic agent?
A)Fexofenadine
B)Clarithromycin
C)Haloperidol
D)All of the above
Q2) Atropine is especially useful in what sort of dysrhythmia?
A)Tachycardia
B)Bradycardia
C)Pre-ventricular contraction
D)AV conduction block
Q3) Verapamil is a class IV antidysrhythmic agent.Verapamil belongs to what class of drug?
A)Calcium channel blockers
B)ACE inhibitors
C) -blockers
D)Inotropic agents
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Chapter 51: Fluid and Potassium Imbalances
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT a potential treatment of severe hyperkalaemia?
A)Peritoneal dialysis
B)Intravenous frusemide
C)Oral ion exchange resin
D)Intravenous glucose with insulin given concurrently
Q2) Infusing a hypotonic solution will have which of the following cellular effects?
A) There will be no net shift of fluid.
B) Fluid will shift from the intracellular space to dilute the extracellular space, causing cell shrinkage.
C) Sodium will move from the extracellular space into the intracellular space.
D) Fluid will shift from the extracellular space to a more concentrated intracellular space, causing cell swelling.
Q3) Which of the following is an example of an isotonic solution?
A) 4% glucose with 0.18% sodium chloride
B) 0.45% sodium chloride
C) 10% glucose
D) 25% mannitol
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53
Chapter 52: Antianaemic Agents
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Q1) High doses of vitamin B<sub>12</sub> may cause
A) hypotension.
B) hypokalaemia.
C) constipation.
D) folate deficiency.
Q2) Treatment with iron supplementation is usually continued for about ________ to ensure replenishment of iron stores in iron deficiency anaemia.
A) two weeks
B) one month
C) two months
D) three months
Q3) Which food is a natural source of folic acid?
A) Brussel sprouts
B) Chocolate
C) Limes
D) Barley
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Chapter 53: Medicines Used to Maintain Gas Exchange
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Sample Questions
Q1) Drugs included in the class of leukotriene receptor antagonist include:
A)montelukast.
B)fexofenadine.
C)albuterol.
D) macular degeneration.
Q2) What is the mechanism of action of the respiratory stimulant doxapram?
A)It acts on the medulla.
B)It acts on the cerebellum.
C)It acts in the midbrain.
D)It acts in the cerebral cortex.
Q3) Which one of the following statements about oxygen therapy is true?
A) Prolonged therapy with 100% oxygen can lead to toxicity regardless of underlying pathology.
B) Standard oxygen therapy for clients with long-term chronic obstructive airways disease will lead to hyperventilation.
C) Hyperbaric oxygen therapy is useful in the care of premature infants.
D) Peak flow readings determine the level of oxygen therapy required.
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Chapter 54: Medicines for Upper Respiratory Tract
Conditions
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Q1) Nasal decongestants are contraindicated in patients taking:
A) antihistamines.
B) certain types of antidepressants.
C) antitussive agents.
D) salicylate preparations.
Q2) Which substances are responsible for the symptoms of upper respiratory illnesses?
A)Prostaglandins and mast cells
B)Prostaglandins and histamine
C)Antihistamines and mast cells
D)Antihistamines and leukotrienes
Q3) To which drug group do many cough suppressants belong?
A) NSAIDs
B) Narcotics
C) Benzodiazepines
D) Dopamine antagonists
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Chapter 55: Upper Gastrointestinal Tract Medicines
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Q1) Several electrolytes can be used as antacids.Which of the following is least likely to be used for such a purpose?
A) Sodium
B) Calcium
C) Potassium
D) Magnesium
Q2) An example of a proton pump inhibitor is:
A) misoprostol.
B) ranitidine.
C) astemizole.
D) omeprazole.
Q3) The use of sodium bicarbonate alone as an antacid should be discouraged because it can:
A) exacerbate pre-existing hypertension.
B) lead to rebound acidosis.
C) lead to the development of kidney stones.
D) inactivate antimicrobial agents.
Q4) Explain how a hiatus hernia can cause gastric reflux.
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Chapter 56: Lower Castrointestinal Tract Medicines
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Q1) Peppermint oil may be useful in the treatment of:
A) gallstones.
B) irritable bowel syndrome.
C) haemorrhoids.
D) GORD.
Q2) Pectin is an example of what type of antidiarrheal?
A) Absorbent
B) Adsorbent
C) Opioid derivative
D) Belladonna alkaloid
Q3) Which topical preparation would help reduce the inflammation of haemorrhoids?
A) Polyethylene glycol
B) Witch-hazel
C) Benzocaine
D) Phenol
Q4) A first line therapy for chronic constipation would be:
A) stimulant laxatives such as senna.
B) faecal softeners such as docusate.
C) osmotic laxatives such as glycerol.
D) lubricants such as liquid paraffin.
58
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Chapter 57: Antiemetic Agents
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Q1) Which is the most effective drug in treating severe nausea associated with chemotherapy?
A) Ondansetron
B) Prochlorperazine
C) Domperidone
D) Cisapride
Q2) Which of the following antiemetic agents may cause extrapyramidal side effects?
A) Prochlorperazine
B) Domperidone
C) Ondansetron
D) Dolasetron
Q3) The advantage of domperidone over metoclopramide is that it:
A) crosses the blood-brain barrier readily so it has more central side effects.
B) doesn't readily cross the blood-brain barrier so it has fewer central side effects.
C) crosses the blood-brain barrier readily so a smaller dose is required for the same antiemetic effects.
D) is safe for pregnant women in the first trimester.
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Chapter 58: Enteral and Parenteral Nutrition
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Q1) Which of the following actions will NOT improve the management of regurgitation during enteral feeding?
A) Lower the head of the client's bed.
B) Avoid the use of hyperosmolar feeds.
C) Insert a fine-bore enteric tube.
D) Slow down the rate of infusion.
Q2) Which complication would be least common with an enteral feed?
A) Electrolyte imbalance
B) Entry of feed into the lungs
C) Clogging of the tube
D) Intracranial penetration
Q3) Which diagnostic tests should be performed regularly on a patient receiving parenteral nutrition? Select all that apply.
A) Electrolytes
B) Glucose
C) Creatinine
D) Cholesterol
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Chapter 59: Medicines and the Pituitary Gland
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Q1) Which one of the following statements about oxytocin is correct?
A) There are no clinical uses for oxytocin.
B) Oxytocin is believed to have strong serotonergic and \(\alpha\)-adrenergic activity.
C) The anterior pituitary lobe secretes oxytocin.
D) Oxytocin promotes breast milk let-down and facilitates placental delivery.
Q2) Which group of drugs that act on the pituitary are given to prevent premature ovulation associated with assisted reproduction?
A) Gonadotrophin-releasing hormone antagonists
B) Partial oestrogen agonists
C) Dopamine agonists
D) Gonadotrophins
Q3) Ergot alkaloids are used to treat prolactin hypersecretion.Their mechanism of action is to:
A) activate dopamine receptors in the pituitary.
B) inhibit prolactin-releasing hormone from the pituitary.
C) increase the production of growth hormone, which is produced by the same cells in the pituitary gland.
D) act on the nipples to desensitise them to stimulation.
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Chapter 60: Medicines and the Thyroid
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Q1) Generally,L-thyroxine is preferable to liothyronine as therapy in hypothyroid states because:
A) it has a longer duration of action.
B) it is less cardiotoxic.
C) levels are easier to monitor.
D) all of the above.
Q2) Radioactive iodide may be used to treat hyperthyroidism because it:
A) inhibits conversion of L-thyroxine to L-triiodothyronine.
B) reduces synthesis of thyroid hormones.
C) destroys functional thyroid tissue.
D) depletes thyroid hormone stores.
Q3) The clinical effects of thionamides for hyperthyroid states do not become apparent until stores of thyroid hormones become depleted,which takes about ________ days after the start of therapy.
A) 2 to 3
B) 5 to 7
C) 7 to 14
D) 21 to 28
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Chapter 61: Medicines and the Pancreas
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Sample Questions
Q1) The pathophysiology of type 1 diabetes mellitus is associated with:
A) hyperinsulinaemia.
B) an autoimmune destruction of pancreatic beta cells.
C) cellular insulin resistance
D) pregnancy.
Q2) The majority of cases of diabetes mellitus are type 1.
A)True
B)False
Q3) In the treatment of type 2 diabetes,a sulfonylurea agent is administered with food to reduce the:
A) incidence of diarrhoea.
B) incidence of hypoglycaemia.
C) incidence of vomiting.
D) drug's metabolism.
Q4) Another medication besides insulin that is injected for treatment of types 2 diabetes is from the group of:
A) thiazolidinediones.
B) biguanides.
C) sulfonylureas.
D) incretin-enhancing agents.
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Chapter 62: Medicines Affecting the Adrenal Cortex
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Q1) Which of the following corticosteroids is classified as an intermediate-acting agent?
A) Hydrocortisone
B) Dexamethasone
C) Prednisolone
D) Betamethasone
Q2) A typical adverse effect profile of systemic corticosteroid therapy includes:
A) hyperkalaemia, gynaecomastia, skin rashes and menstrual disruption.
B) hot flushes, thromboembolism, leg cramps and gastrointestinal disturbances.
C) nausea, breast tenderness, hypotension and hypoglycaemia.
D) fluid retention, altered mood, altered blood pressure, hypokalaemia, hyperglycaemia and impaired wound healing.
Q3) During spironolactone therapy,the blood levels of ________ should be monitored.
A) sodium
B) potassium
C) urea
D) calcium
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Chapter 63: Medicines and the Gonads
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Q1) To ensure maximum efficacy for postcoital contraception,it needs to be administered within 12 hours of sexual intercourse.
A)True
B)False
Q2) An adverse effect NOT associated with androgenic drug use is:
A) increased libido.
B) increased aggressiveness.
C) testicular hypertrophy.
D) liver disorders.
Q3) The SERM tamoxifen is used in the treatment of:
A) menopausal symptoms.
B) osteoporosis.
C) enhanced healing after surgery.
D) breast cancer.
Q4) Women treated with oestrogen-only preparations may be at an increased risk of developing:
A) colon cancer.
B) Alzheimer's disease.
C) osteoporosis.
D) breast cancer.
Page 65
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Chapter 64: Medicines and Bone Metabolism
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT true about vitamin D?
A) Deficiency in the vitamin leads to an increase in bone mineralisation.
B) It is absorbed via the gastrointestinal system from vegetable products and some fish.
C) It is essential in the regulation of calcium and phosphorous in the body.
D) It can be made as long as the skin has enough exposure to UV rays.
Q2) Which factors play a role in calcium absorption in women? Select all that apply.
A) Minimal dietary calcium
B) Menopause
C) Vitamin D deficiency
D) Chronic kidney disease
E) Diabetes
Q3) Vitamin D deficiency may occur due to:
A) hypercalcaemia.
B) use of selective oestrogen receptor modulators.
C) inadequate sun exposure.
D) use of calcipotriol.
Q4) Describe the role of parathyroid hormone with regards to regulation of blood calcium levels.
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Chapter 65: Hyperuricaemia and Gout
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Q1) When commencing a uricosuric agent such as probenecid,the person should be advised to:
A) cease all other medications to reduce drug interactions.
B) ensure adequate fluid intake to reduce kidney stone formation.
C) avoid direct sunlight.
D) avoid urine alkalising preparations.
Q2) Which one of the following drugs or drug groups acts to increase the excretion of uric acid?
A) The corticosteroids
B) Colchicine
C) Probenecid
D) Allopurinol
Q3) Which of the following tests is undertaken before using colchicine for gout prophylaxis?
A) A complete blood count
B) A liver function test
C) An electrocardiogram
D) An exercise tolerance test
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Chapter 66: Obesity and Its Treatment
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Q1) Stimulant anorectics are only recommended for short-term treatment of obesity for a period of up to ________ weeks.
A) 2
B) 6
C) 12 D) 24
Q2) An overweight individual will have a BMI of: A) 20-25.
B) 25-30.
C) 30-35 D) 35-40.
Q3) For maximum benefit from the anorectic agent orlistat,the dose should be taken: A) with three main meals daily. B) with the morning meal. C) with the evening meal. D) at bedtime.
Q4) Describe some nonpharmacological strategies for weight loss.
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Chapter 67: Introduction to Chemotherapy
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Q1) Which of the following antimicrobial agents inhibits DNA replication?
A) Linezolid
B) Mupirocin
C) Colistin
D) Norfloxacin
Q2) Which anti-infective agent would have the highest risk if used in pregnancy?
A) Selected penicillins
B) Nystatin
C) Amphotericin
D) Nitrofurantoin
Q3) An antimicrobial drug mechanism of action generally regarded as bacteriostatic is one that:
A) interferes with metabolic processes.
B) inhibits cell wall synthesis.
C) promotes protein synthesis.
D) disrupts cell membranes.
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Chapter 68: Sulfonamides and Trimethoprim
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Q1) Trimethoprim is best taken as a single daily dose:
A) in the morning.
B) at midday.
C) in the mid-afternoon.
D) at bedtime.
Q2) During treatment with selected sulfonamides,a client may experience diarrhoea.This usually indicates:
A) a change in the balance of gut flora.
B) gastrointestinal tract bleeding.
C) drug crystallisation.
D) an allergic reaction.
Q3) A premixed combination of trimethoprim and sulfamethoxazole is called:
A) trimethoxazole.
B) co-trimoxazole.
C) sulphaprim.
D) blephamide.
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Chapter 69: Antibacterial Agents
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Q1) When a person commences therapy with tetracycline,they should be advised to:
A) cease therapy when they feel better.
B) avoid ingestion just before bedtime.
C) take it with meals.
D) regard abdominal pain as a tolerable side effect and not to bother their health professional about it.
Q2) Which antibacterial agent can cause permanent tooth discoloration in children?
A) Tetracycline
B) Erythromycin
C) Penicillin
D) Cephalosporin
Q3) Colistin is available for delivery by which routes of administration?
A) Intramuscular
B) Intravenous
C) Inhalation
D) All of the above
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Chapter 70: Antituberculotic and Antileprotic Agents
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Q1) Which tests should be regularly undertaken during rifampicin therapy?
A) Monitor the full blood count and liver function during the course of therapy.
B) Monitor electrolyte levels and cardiac function during the course of therapy.
C) Monitor renal function and exercise tolerance during the course of therapy.
D) Monitor hearing and eye function during the course of therapy.
Q2) Which of the following factors would cause favourable conditions for tuberculosis to spread?
A) Social inequity
B) Overcrowding
C) Exposure to livestock/wildlife that may be infected
D) All of the above
Q3) In the context of antituberculotic drug action,a bactericidal drug:
A) kills all tuberculosis bacteria.
B) targets dividing bacteria.
C) kills persistent dormant bacteria.
D) targets bacteria in the lungs.
Q4) Treatment for tuberculosis consists of a bactericidal phase and a sterilising phase.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 71: Antiseptics and Disinfectants
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Q1) An example of a sterilant is:
A) cetrimide.
B) sodium hypochlorite.
C) ethylene oxide.
D) penicillin.
Q2) An example of an antiseptic is:
A) cetrimide.
B) sodium hypochlorite.
C) penicillin.
D) ethylene oxide.
Q3) What is the main difference between antiseptics and disinfectants?
A) Antiseptics are for use on inanimate objects
B) Disinfectants are used on the human body
C) Antiseptics are used on the human body
D) Both can be used on either surface
Q4) Cetrimide inhibits bacterial growth because of its ________ properties.
A) detergent
B) oxidising
C) alkylating
D) reducing
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Chapter 72: Antiparasitic Agents
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Q1) Tapeworms are:
A) cestodes.
B) nematodes.
C) cathodes.
D) trematodes.
Q2) When using the anthelmintic albendazole to treat intestinal parasites,the person should be advised to take it:
A) with meals.
B) after meals.
C) with milk.
D) before meals.
Q3) ________ should be assessed before and following a long-term course of therapy using chloroquine or its derivatives.
A) Liver enzyme levels
B) Visual acuity
C) Cardiac enzyme levels
D) Urea and creatinine levels
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Chapter 73: Antiviral Agents
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Q1) The DNA polymerase inhibitor aciclovir can suppress the symptoms of several viral infections except:
A) chickenpox.
B) herpes type I.
C) measles.
D) Epstein-Barr infections.
Q2) Viruses are best defined as:
A) infectious agents.
B) primitive bacteria.
C) microorganisms.
D) mycoplasma.
Q3) Which one of the following are adverse effects of the influenza drug zanamivir?
A) Nausea.
B) Bronchospasm.
C) Dyspnoea.
D) All of the above.
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Chapter 74: Antifungal Agents
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Q1) If the antifungal terbinafine is administered orally for more than six weeks for a fungal nail infection,the person should be advised to have:
A) blood cholesterol levels monitored.
B) liver enzyme levels and blood count monitored.
C) respiratory function monitored.
D) aural function monitored.
Q2) The antifungal amphotericin can be used:
A) topically, intravenously and in lozenge form.
B) intramuscularly, intrathecally and transdermally.
C) intramuscularly and intravenously.
D) topically and orally.
Q3) Which are qualities of subcutaneous mycoses? Select all that apply.
A) It is most common in northern countries.
B) It can be grossly disfiguring.
C) It involves skin, fascia and bone.
D) It is caused by dermatophytes.
E) Is commonly referred to as candidiasis.
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Chapter 75: Immunomodulating Agents
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Q1) When administering non-human antisera to provide temporary immunity for viral or bacterial infection,make sure that ________ is available in case of anaphylaxis.
A) hydrocortisone
B) promethazine
C) noradrenaline
D) adrenaline
Q2) Interferon is indicated in the treatment of the following EXCEPT:
A) myasthenia gravis.
B) multiple sclerosis.
C) selected leukemias.
D) genital warts.
Q3) A patient is admitted with a snake bite from an unknown species.Which antivenom would be most useful?
A) A bivalent preparation
B) A trivalent preparation
C) A polyvalent preparation
D) No treatment can be given without identifying the snake
Q4) Describe the difference between the terms vaccination and immunisation.
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Chapter 76: Cytotoxic Chemotherapeutic Agents
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Q1) All vinca alkaloids are administered:
A) orally.
B) intravenously.
C) intrathecally.
D) intramuscularly.
Q2) Which is NOT an expected adverse effect of cytotoxic agents?
A) Alopecia
B) Weight gain
C) Nausea
D) Mucositis
Q3) Antibiotic-type cytotoxic agents such as doxorubicin and dactinomycin should only be administered:
A) orally.
B) intrathecally.
C) subcutaneously.
D) intravenously.
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Chapter 77: Medicines Used in Diseases of the Skin
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Sample Questions
Q1) Nappy rash can occur due to:
A) the use of disposable nappy products.
B) the production of ammonia from the breakdown of urine.
C) hypersensitivity reactions to breast milk.
D) all of the above.
Q2) One of the newer treatments for psoriasis is:
A) coal tar.
B) UV light treatment.
C) methotrexate.
D) ustekinumab.
Q3) Children with eczema are more likely to develop:
A) skin cancer.
B) asthma.
C) verrucae.
D) alopecia.
Q4) Botulinum toxin is indicated in the treatment of which skin disorder?
A) Hyperhidrosis
B) Rosacea
C) Eczema
D) Psoriasis
Page 79
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Chapter 78: Medicines and the Eye
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Q1) Which oral medication can cause a disturbance in colour vision?
A)Digoxin
B)Chloroquine
C)Thimerosal
D)Azelastine
Q2) Trachoma is associated with:
A) a chlamydial eye infection.
B) an impairment of aqueous humour drainage.
C) a form of cancer that affects the eyeball.
D) an ingrowing eyelash.
Q3) Which eye preparation is used diagnostically?
A)Timolol
B)Fluorescein
C)Diclofenac
D)Fusidic acid
Q4) The first-choice treatment for glaucoma is:
A) miotics.
B) -blockers.
C) sympathomimetic agents.
D) diuretics
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Chapter 79: Herbal Medicines
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Q1) Echinacea consistently shows effectiveness in clinical trials.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The use of garlic as a herbal medication should be avoided in all of the following conditions EXCEPT in the:
A) person with atherosclerosis.
B) woman who is pregnant.
C) person on anticoagulant therapy.
D) person on hypoglycaemic therapy.
Q3) Red clover should be avoided in individuals with:
A) asthma.
B) breast cancer.
C) epilepsy.
D) clotting deficiency.
Q4) Which of the following statements about cranberry are true? Select all that apply.
A) It is safe in pregnancy.
B) Too much can cause renal calculi.
C) Patients should not drink more than 1 litre a day.
D) It is thought to acidify the urine.
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