Paramedicine Exam Practice Tests
Course Introduction
Paramedicine is a dynamic field focused on the provision of advanced pre-hospital and out-of-hospital emergency medical care for individuals experiencing acute injuries or illnesses. This course introduces students to the key principles and practices of paramedicine, including patient assessment, clinical decision-making, trauma management, pharmacology, and life support techniques. Emphasis is placed on developing essential skills for rapid response, effective communication, and collaboration within multidisciplinary healthcare teams. Through case studies, simulations, and practical experience, students gain the knowledge and competencies required to provide high-quality emergency care in a variety of environments, preparing them for roles as paramedics and frontline emergency responders.
Recommended Textbook
Fundamentals of Pharmacology 8th Edition by Shane Bullock
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79 Chapters
773 Verified Questions
773 Flashcards
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Sociocultural Aspects
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12 Verified Questions
12 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The brand name of a medication is provided by the:
A) government.
B) pharmaceutical company.
C) biochemical scientist who invented the medication.
D) drug evaluation committee that formally examines all data about medications.
Answer: B
Q2) Which of the following health professionals can decrease the incidence of polypharmacy?
A) Medical practitioner
B) Pharmacist
C) Nurse
D) All of the above
Answer: D
Q3) A key feature of polypharmacy is:
A) self-diagnosing and medicating.
B) using many different pharmacies to purchase medicines.
C) the excessive or unnecessary use of medicines.
D) a reluctance to use complementary therapies.
Answer: C
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Health Professionals and the Law
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Sample Questions
Q1) Controlled drugs are substances that:
A) are available for use but require restriction of manufacture, supply, distribution, possession and use to reduce abuse, misuse and physical or psychological dependence.
B) have a 2 potential for causing harm, the extent of which can be reduced through the use of distinctive packaging with strong warnings and safety directions.
C) require professional advice and should be available to the public from a pharmacist without a prescription.
D) require professional advice from a pharmacist and should be available from a pharmacy or, where a pharmacy service is not available, from a licensed person.
Answer: A
Q2) After giving a verbal order,the health professional must:
A) confirm the verbal order in writing within 48 hours.
B) confirm the verbal order in writing within 24 hours.
C) ensure that the medication is administered by the health professional.
D) ensure that a health professional has co-signed the verbal order.
Answer: B
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Chapter 3: Ethical Issues
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Sample Questions
Q1) The doctor tells the health professional to administer excessive doses of opioid analgesic and sedative drugs to relieve the client's intractable pain,but not to tell the client's family.Which ethical principle would be breached if the health professional gives the drugs but does not tell the family?
A) Veracity
B) Confidentiality
C) Justice
D) Beneficence
Answer: A
Q2) What is the meaning of the term 'not for resuscitation (NFR)order'?
A) The client will not be resuscitated by health care professionals if they suffer a cardiac or respiratory arrest.
B) The client will not receive admission to the intensive care unit.
C) The client will not receive full nursing care.
D) The client will not receive ventilatory and inotropic support.
Answer: A
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Chapter 4: the Roles and Responsibilities of Health
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Sample Questions
Q1) In their role as client advocate,health professionals inform people about their rights in relation to drug therapy,other health care-related matters,or when confronted by adversaries,to empower them to make informed decisions.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following factors has an effect on medication adherence? Select all that apply.
A) Age extremes
B) Communication barriers
C) Polypharmacy
D) Single illness with uncomplicated treatment regimen
Q3) A client is recently diagnosed with rheumatoid arthritis.Her mother has also been diagnosed some years ago.Which of the following teaching principles will be most helpful in client teaching?
A) Passive participation
B) Prior knowledge and experience
C) Repetition will not be required.
D) The patient is genetically predisposed to be prepared for accompanying pain.
Page 6
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Chapter 5: the Roles and Responsibilities of Health
Professionals in Medicine Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) The educational preparation for a nurse practitioner is:
A) a Master's degree.
B) a Bachelor's degree.
C) extensive training in the clinical setting.
D) a professional doctorate.
Q2) Which of the following health professionals maintain a person's airway,breathing and circulation in medical emergency situations,and are permitted to administer medicines for chronic and life-threatening conditions?
A) Pharmacist
B) Paramedic
C) Physiotherapist
D) Podiatrist
Q3) Dietitians are legally allowed to administer medications to clients.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A nurse is allowed by law to administer a lethal dose of analgesic medication,when ordered by a doctor,to alleviate intractable suffering.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 6: Medicine Formulations, Storage and Routes of Administration
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Sample Questions
Q1) Is it problematic to administer heparin via intramuscular injection?
A) No, intramuscular and subcutaneous administration are both safe and effective.
B) No, as long as the dose is appropriate.
C) Yes, it can cause a haematoma to form.
D) Yes, limited blood flow to skeletal muscles causes reduced bioavailability of the drug.
Q2) Eye drops are made isotonic to:
A) avoid pain or discomfort on application.
B) prevent infection.
C) prevent an increase in intraocular pressure.
D) prevent trachoma.
Q3) The shelf life of glyceryl trinitrate tablets after opening the container is:
A) 80 days.
B) 85 days.
C) 90 days.
D) 100 days.
Q4) What effect does exercise have on absorption of a drug that is administered by intramuscular injection?
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Chapter 7: the Clinical Decision-making Process
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nursing clinical decision-making process involves the following steps:
A) assessment, planning and implementation.
B) assessment, planning, implementation and evaluation.
C) assessment, diagnosis, planning, implementation and evaluation.
D) assessment and evaluation.
Q2) Which of the following is NOT representative of the 'quality use of' facet of the National Medicines Policy?
A) Only focusing on drug therapy
B) Choosing suitable medicines
C) Safe use of medicines
D) Effective use of medicines
Q3) Which of the following is NOT an objective of the Australia's National Medicines Policy?
A) Timely access to the medicines that Australians need, at a cost individuals and the community can afford
B) Medicines meeting appropriate standards of quality, safety and efficacy
C) Quality use of medicines
D) Consumers and health professionals communicating effectively about medicines management
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Page 9
Chapter 8: Medicine Administration Strategies and Documentation
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Sample Questions
Q1) The rights of drug administration are:
A) giving the right drug, in the right dose, to the right person, by the right route, at the right time.
B) giving the right drug, in the right dose, at the right time.
C) giving the right drug, in the right dose, by the right route.
D) giving the right drug, in the right dose, to the right person.
Q2) Sympathomimetic agents such as adrenaline,noradrenaline and dopamine,which are commonly used in critical care areas,cannot be given through a peripheral vein because:
A) it would be difficult for the nurse to control the flow rate of a peripheral infusion.
B) a volumetric pump cannot be connected to a peripheral intravenous line.
C) there is greater risk of infection around the cannula site.
D) the agents can cause permanent necrosis of extremities.
Q3) Medication ordered at particular time intervals should be given on time to:
A) ensure that health professionals provide their care efficiently.
B) maintain consistent blood levels of the medication.
C) ensure that medications are not wasted.
D) ensure that patients have a structured approach to their care.
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Chapter 9: Medication Errors
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Sample Questions
Q1) In order to avoid medication errors,it is a good strategy to have two patients with the same name positioned:
A) next to each other.
B) opposite each other.
C) next to the central office area.
D) at opposite ends of the hospital ward.
Q2) Following the five rights"will help reduce medication errors.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following are potential sources of medical errors? Select all that apply.
A) The wrong dose of a medication is given.
B) The person's identity is not checked.
C) The manufacturer changes inert ingredients.
D) The person takes all of their medicines at the same time every day.
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11
Chapter 10: Management of Common Adverse Drug
Reactions
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the mainstay of treatment for anaphylactic shock?
A) Hydrocortisone
B) Adrenaline
C) Salbutamol
D) Promethazine
Q2) What agent is used to treat respiratory depression caused by an opioid analgesic?
A) Pentazocine
B) Naloxone
C) Methadone
D) Naltrexone
Q3) Postural hypotension is an adverse effect often associated with drugs that:
A) block \(\alpha\)-adrenoceptors.
B) stimulate \(\alpha\)-adrenoreceptors.
C) block \(\beta\)-adrenoreceptors
D) stimulate \(\beta\)-adrenoreceptors
Q4) Aplastic anaemia caused by chloramphenicol is an example of type B adverse drug reaction.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 11: Risk Communication: Balancing the Benefits and Risks of Drug Treatment
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Sample Questions
Q1) Another name for absolute risk is risk difference.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The ratio of the incidence of the adverse event in those individuals who take the medicine to the incidence of those who do not take the medicine is known as:
A) presumptive risk.
B) relative risk.
C) absolute risk.
D) implied risk.
Q3) Relative risk refers to the ratio of the incidence of an adverse event occurring in individuals taking a medication as compared to individuals not taking a medication having the same adverse event.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Although few,there are risk-free medications in use.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 12: Drug Nomenclature
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Sample Questions
Q1) Drugs with generic names that end in the suffix -pril are members of the drug group called:
A) HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors.
B) benzodiazepines.
C) serotonin receptor antagonists.
D) angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors.
Q2) Which of the following is an example of a generic drug name used in Australia and New Zealand?
A) Frusemide
B) Furomide
C) Furosemide
D) Lasix
Q3) Individual drugs can be classified according to all of the following EXCEPT:
A) therapeutic use.
B) mode of action.
C) molecular structure.
D) adverse drug reaction.
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Chapter 13: Pharmacokinetics: Absorption and Distribution
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Sample Questions
Q1) Highly lipophilic substances can cross the blood-brain barrier.Which of the following cannot cross the blood-brain barrier in normal circumstances?
A) Alcohol
B) Penicillin
C) Glucose
D) Antihistamines
Q2) By which route are drugs not subject to the physiological process of absorption through a blood vessel wall?
A) Intramuscularly
B) Intradermally
C) Intravenously
D) Subcutaneously
Q3) If a drug accumulates in one tissue (that is,the drug is extensively bound to a tissue),its volume of distribution is low.
A)True
B)False
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15
Chapter 14: Pharmacokinetics Metabolism and Excretion
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Sample Questions
Q1) Phase 1 metabolism of a drug can involve:
A) glucuronidation.
B) sulphation.
C) conjugation.
D) oxidation.
Q2) Clearance of an acidic drug by the kidneys may be increased by:
A) alkalising the urine.
B) administering amphetamines.
C) administering ascorbic acid.
D) administering sodium hydrogen carbonate.
Q3) Which of the following drugs is not excreted by the lungs?
A) Ethanol
B) Salbutamol
C) Isoflurane
D) Metoprolol
Q4) Drugs are metabolised by the liver to make them more:
A) amphipathic.
B) hydrophilic.
C) lipophilic.
D) hydrophobic.
Page 16
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Chapter 15: Drug Interactions
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Sample Questions
Q1) The drug interactions that occur with cimetidine are usually due to:
A) enzyme inhibition.
B) enzyme induction.
C) protein binding.
D) summation.
Q2) A common drug-food interaction is between grapefruit juice and:
A) aspirin.
B) paracetamol.
C) felodipine.
D) ibuprofen.
Q3) In which way can hepatic enzymes be altered by drug metabolism?
A) Can cause enhancement or inhibition of metabolism
B) Can interact with the external environment
C) Are only altered in conjunction with food
D) Are only considered with regard to synergistic effects between drugs
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Chapter 16: Pharmacodynamics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Pharmacological effect is achieved by:
A) the portion of free or unbound drug.
B) the portion of protein-bound drug.
C) ionisation.
D) penetrating the blood-brain barrier.
Q2) In disrupting the synthesis of folic acid in bacteria,sulfonamides act:
A) as competitive inhibitors.
B) as non-competitive inhibitors.
C) by physical action.
D) by none of the above.
Q3) Competitive inhibition slows down the rate of normal chemical reactions because: A) the normal substrate is malfunctioning.
B) the target enzyme binds temporarily with a look-alike substrate rather than its actual substrate.
C) it takes a long time for the enzyme to develop memory or recognition of the competing substances.
D) it causes enzyme confusion.
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18
Chapter 17: Drug Development, Evaluation and Safety
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Sample Questions
Q1) A type of hypersensitivity reaction to a drug,described as anaphylaxis,which is mediated by IgE antibodies,is a:
A) type I hypersensitivity reaction.
B) type II hypersensitivity reaction.
C) type III hypersensitivity reaction.
D) type IV hypersensitivity reaction.
Q2) The final decision to approve a drug for marketing in Australia and New Zealand rests with the:
A) Medicines Assessment Advisory Committee.
B) ministerial council (health).
C) Australian Drug Evaluation Committee.
D) Pharmaceutical Society.
Q3) The ability of a drug to produce an effect at a receptor is referred to as:
A) affinity.
B) specificity.
C) efficacy.
D) potency.
Q4) The terms side effect and adverse effects are interchangeable.
A)True
B)False
Page 19
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Chapter 18: Genetic Considerations in Pharmacology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Cost-effectiveness is a potential barrier to genetic-based therapies.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The types of gene therapy include:
A) somatic and germline.
B) psychosomatic and germline.
C) somatic and viraline.
D) psychosomatic and viraline.
Q3) How many human enzymes have been associated with drug metabolism and polymorphisms?
A) Less than 20
B) More than 20
C) A minimum of 50
D) None
Q4) Which of the following are ethical issues associated with pharmacogenetics? Select all that apply.
A) Keeping data secure
B) Insurance risk
C) Cost of therapy
D) Lack of data on effectiveness of treatment
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Chapter 19: Pharmacokinetic Factors That Modify Drug Action
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which one of the following factors would not be expected to increase the rate of drug absorption from the small intestines?
A) A small-sized drug molecule
B) Delayed gastric emptying
C) An increase in gut blood flow
D) The majority of drug molecules in an un-ionised state
Q2) During pregnancy,drug absorption from the gastrointestinal tract is variable and unpredictable due to slowed peristalsis and gastric emptying.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 20: Paediatric and Geriatric Pharmacology
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Sample Questions
Q1) In neonates and infants,drug absorption through the skin is:
A) enhanced because the surface area to body weight is less than that of adults.
B) enhanced because the surface area to body weight is greater than that of adults.
C) reduced because the surface area to body weight is less than that of adults.
D) reduced because the surface area to body weight is greater than that of adults.
Q2) Paediatric drug dosage can be calculated by using the body surface area,age and bodyweight.
A)True
B)False
Q3) In geriatric settings,it is desirable to:
A) arrange for all drugs to be dispensed to clients in childproof containers.
B) administer all drugs to all clients so that they can concentrate on resting and getting better.
C) encourage the client to learn about their medications prior to discharge.
D) use the deltoid muscle for intramuscular injection in a client with muscle wasting.
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Chapter 21: Poisoning and Envenomation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is an iron chelating agent?
A) Disodium edetate
B) Deferasirox
C) d-penicillamine
D) Calcium gluconate
Q2) Which of the following best characterises the main principles associated with the emergency management of poisoning?
A) Life support, clinical assessment, decontamination and detoxification, neutralisation and elimination of the poison
B) The monitoring of adverse effects after ingestion of the poison
C) The identification of the chemical associated with the poisoning and administration of decontaminating agents
D) None of the above
Q3) Which of the following best characterizes the mode of action of cyanide poisoning?
A) Central nervous system depressant
B) Displaces essential trace elements and accumulates in tissues
C) Permanently disables the enzyme cholinesterase
D) Diminishes cellular energy
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Chapter 22: the Management of Acute Clinical Overdose
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Sample Questions
Q1) For which principle associated with the management of clinical drug overdose is gastric lavage a component?
A) Client assessment
B) Life support
C) Drug decontamination and detoxification
D) Drug neutralisation and elimination
Q2) Which one of the following is NOT a component of patient assessment in the management of clinical drug overdose?
A) Determining the time that poisoning occurred
B) Determining if the client had any previous episodes of drug overdose
C) Recognising the clinical manifestations of the overdose
D) Ordering laboratory tests of the patient's blood
Q3) A specific antidote for an overdose of an acetylcholinesterase inhibitor is:
A) physostigmine.
B) atropine.
C) acetylcysteine.
D) naloxone.
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24
Chapter 23: Contemporary Drugs of Abuse
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following medications can be used to treat alcohol addiction?
A) Metronidazole
B) Disulfiram
C) Acamprosate
D) Both B and C
Q2) Nicotine can have the following effect EXCEPT:
A) weight gain.
B) stimulation.
C) increased blood pressure.
D) appetite suppression.
Q3) Which of the following is a symptom of caffeine withdrawal?
A) Hallucinations
B) Palpitations
C) Headaches
D) Muscle tremors
Q4) Therapeutic uses of marijuana include:
A) glaucoma.
B) emesis control.
C) hypertension.
D) all of the above.
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Chapter 24: Drug Abuse in Sport
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which one of the following is considered a banned substance by WADA?
A) Caffeine
B) Alcohol
C) Pseudoephedrine
D) Diuretics
Q2) Which of the following statements is NOT usually given by sportspeople as a reason for drug doping?
A) To increase popularity amongst peers
B) To gain a competitive edge
C) To cope with stress
D) Dissatisfaction with current performance
Q3) Which one of the following could be perceived as a benefit associated with anabolic-androgenic steroid use?
A) Mood swings
B) Premature completion of long bone growth
C) Increased skeletal muscle mass
D) An altered blood lipid profile
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26
Chapter 25: General Aspects of Neuropharmacology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Sympathetic stimulation would result in which one of the following sets of responses?
A) Increased gastric juice secretion and increased heart rate
B) Sweating, urinary retention, salivation and pupil dilation
C) Increased gastrointestinal motility, pupil constriction, defecation and erection of genitalia
D) Slowed heart rate, increased blood pressure, pupil constriction and pallor
Q2) What effect does the parasympathetic system have on the heart?
A) Increases heart rate
B) Decreases heart rate
C) Causes vasodilation
D) Increases the force of the heart
Q3) Which of the following neurotransmitters is involved in autonomic nervous system (ANS)function?
A) Norepinephrine
B) Vasopressin
C) Acetylcholine
D) Dobutamine
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Chapter 26: Adrenergic Pharmacology
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Sample Questions
Q1) A clinical use for \(\beta_{2} \) agonists is in the treatment of:
A) bronchial asthma.
B) hypotension.
C) hypertension.
D) nasal decongestion.
Q2) A clinical use for \(\beta_{1} \) antagonists is in the treatment of:
A) tachycardia.
B) hypertension.
C) COPD.
D) Both A and B.
Q3) Which secondary messenger is associated with \(\alpha_{1}\) receptor activation?
A) IP<sub>3</sub>
B) Cyclic AMP
C) DAG
D) Both A and C
Q4) Which of the following adverse events are seen with dopamine administration?
A) Tachycardia
B) Hypotension
C) Nausea
D) All of the above
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Chapter 27: Cholinergic Pharmacology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Stimulation of M<sub>2</sub> receptors on the heart muscle involves the following second messenger:
A) activation of inositol triphosphate production.
B) inhibition of cyclic adenosine monophosphate (cAMP) production.
C) inhibition of inositol triphosphate production.
D) activation of cyclic adenosine monophosphate (cAMP) production.
Q2) Which of the following receptors are activated by acetylcholine?
A) <sub>1</sub>
B) <sub>2</sub>
C) <sub>1</sub>
D) Nicotinic
Q3) Muscarinic antagonists have been used as:
A) antispasmodics.
B) antiulcerants.
C) antiemetics.
D) All of the above
Q4) Acetylcholinesterase breaks acetylcholine into choline and acetate.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 28: An Introduction to Chemical Mediators
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following mediators acts on a distant target?
A) Neurotransmitter
B) Classic hormone
C) Local hormone
D) Autacoid
Q2) Which of the following mediators is released directly into the bloodstream?
A) Hormones
B) Neurotransmitters
C) Autacoids
D) None of the above
Q3) Mediators that induce their effect without entering the circulation are referred to as:
A) hormones.
B) neurotransmitters.
C) autacoids.
D) second messengers.
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Chapter 29: Histamine and Antihistamines
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Sample Questions
Q1) First-generation antihistamines have a longer duration of action.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which secondary messenger is associated with H<sub>1</sub> receptor activation?
A) IP<sub>3</sub>
B) Cyclic AMP
C) DAG
D) Both A and D
Q3) How many subtypes of H<sub>1</sub> receptors have been identified?
A) Two
B) Three
C) Four
D) Five
Q4) Which of the following mediators plays a role in modulating allergic reactions?
A) Serotonin
B) Histamine
C) Pepsin
D) None of the above
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Chapter 30: Prostaglandins and Serotonin
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Sample Questions
Q1) Prostaglandin analogues have been used for:
A) termination of pregnancy.
B) glaucoma.
C) treatment of impotence.
D) all of the above.
Q2) Drugs that inhibit the synaptic serotonin reuptake are used for:
A) autism.
B) depression.
C) glaucoma.
D) termination of pregnancy.
Q3) Common eicosanoids include:
A) thromboxanes.
B) leukotrienes.
C) hydroperoxyeicosatrienoic acids.
D) all of the above.
Q4) 5-HT<sub>3</sub> receptor antagonists have been used for: A) nausea.
B) somnolence.
C) REMS sleep disorder.
D) GERD.
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Chapter 31: Nitric Oxide and the Endothelins
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Q1) Endothelin receptor antagonists can be used safely in pregnant patients.
A)True
B)False
Q2) How many endothelin receptor subtypes have been identified?
A) One
B) Two
C) Three
D) Four
Q3) Which secondary messenger is associated with endothelin receptors?
A) IP<sub>3</sub>
B) Cyclic AMP
C) DAG
D) Both A and D
Q4) Endothelin receptor antagonists have been used for the treatment of:
A) pulmonary hypertension.
B) ischemic valve disease.
C) peripheral vascular disease.
D) none of the above.
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Chapter 32: General concepts of Psychopharmacology
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Q1) The major inhibitory neurotransmitter is:
A) dopamine.
B) glutamate.
C) serotonin.
D) GABA.
Q2) The transmitter associated with emesis is:
A) dopamine.
B) serotonin.
C) noradrenaline.
D) acetylcholine.
Q3) With which neurotransmitter system are NMDA receptors primarily associated?
A) Acetylcholine
B) Glutamate
C) Dopamine
D) Serotonin
Q4) Which part of the human brain is not considered part of the brainstem?
A) Medulla oblongata
B) Midbrain
C) Pons
D) Cerebrum
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Chapter 33: Antipsychotics
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Q1) Which dopamine receptor is most frequently associated with psychotic illness?
A) D1
B) D2
C) D3
D) D4
Q2) Which of the following antipsychotic drug groups is associated with photosensitivity,therefore requiring protection from the sun?
A) The butyrophenones
B) The phenothiazines
C) The dibenzodiazepines
D) The thioxanthenes
Q3) Cholestatic jaundice can occur with which phenothiazine antipsychotic agent,therefore requiring cessation of the agent?
A) Fluphenazine
B) Pericyazine
C) Chlorpromazine
D) Pipothiazine
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Chapter 34: Anxiolytics and Hypnotics
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Q1) Which benzodiazepine is sometimes useful in the treatment of endogenous depression?
A) Alprazolam
B) Triazolam
C) Diazepam
D) Flunitrazepam
Q2) More than how many weeks of continuous treatment with benzodiazepines results in dependence and tolerance?
A) One week
B) Two to four weeks
C) Four to six weeks
D) Six to eight weeks
Q3) Which one of the following anxiolytic/sedative drugs can directly activate GABA receptors,even in the absence of GABA itself?
A) Benzodiazepines
B) Buspirone
C) Barbiturates
D) Dexmedetomidine
Q4) Explain why hypnotic agents should not be used for long-term therapy.
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Chapter 35: Antidepressants and Mood Stabilisers
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Q1) The psychological disorder characterised by persistent thoughts and repetitive,ritualistic behaviours is called:
A) endogenous depression.
B) panic disorder.
C) mania.
D) obsessive-compulsive disorder.
Q2) All of the following antidepressants are suitable forms of therapy for a woman with postpartum depression who is breastfeeding,EXCEPT for:
A) paroxetine.
B) fluoxetine.
C) sertraline.
D) fluvoxamine.
Q3) The potentially fatal 'serotonin syndrome' is associated with SSRI therapy for depression.Which of the following signs or symptoms are not linked to serotonin syndrome?
A) Weight gain
B) Hyperthermia
C) Sweating
D) Euphoria or drowsiness
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Page 37
Chapter 36: Medicines Used in Neurodegenerative Disorders
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Q1) What is the rationale for giving levodopa and carbidopa as combination therapy for Parkinson's disease?
A) Levodopa increases the therapeutic effect of carbidopa.
B) Carbidopa inhibits the breakdown of levodopa, increasing distribution to the central nervous system.
C) Both preparations are required to increase the availability of dopamine in the peripheries.
D) Levodopa increases the half-life of carbidopa.
Q2) Neuroleptic drug-induced Parkinsonian symptoms are often treated with:
A) an antimuscarinic agent.
B) a serotonin receptor agonist.
C) an antiemetic agent.
D) an increase in neuroleptic dose.
Q3) To ensure a uniform concentration of levodopa,the dose should be taken:
A) with milk.
B) before exercise.
C) immediately before breakfast and one hour after the evening meal.
D) at the same time each day and in a consistent manner in relation to food.
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Chapter 37: Antiseizure Agents and Muscle Relaxants
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Sample Questions
Q1) A seizure that manifests as muscle spasms of body parts in sequence is most likely a:
A) myoclonic seizure.
B) absence seizure.
C) psychomotor seizure.
D) Jacksonian seizure.
Q2) A seizure characterised by an unresponsive,blank state and stereotypic behaviours (such as eyelid fluttering)is:
A) an absence seizure.
B) a psychomotor seizure.
C) a Jacksonian seizure.
D) tonic-clonic seizure.
Q3) Spasmolytic muscle relaxants enhance the inhibitory transmitter GABA.How does this action produce a therapeutic effect in seizure management?
A) By reducing hyperexcitability of the motor pathways in the brain and spinal cord
B) By inducing sedation in the patient
C) By altering calcium levels that reduce skeletal muscle contraction
D) Stimulation of GABAergic pathways in the spinal cord
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Chapter 38: Central Nervous System Stimulants
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Q1) In order to promote maximum benefit for the treatment of narcolepsy,modafinil should be taken as a daily dose:
A) in the morning, or as two divided doses in the morning and at noon.
B) in the mid-afternoon.
C) with the evening meal.
D) at bedtime.
Q2) Modafinil is useful in the treatment of:
A) ADD.
B) ADHD.
C) narcolepsy.
D) amphetamine addiction.
Q3) 'Drug holidays' from dexamphetamine may be important to avoid: A) addiction.
B) growth retardation.
C) insomnia.
D) cognitive impairment.
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Chapter 39: Opioid Analgesics
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Q1) The opioid receptors most involved in mediating analgesia are:
A) delta and epsilon.
B) kappa and delta.
C) mu and epsilon.
D) mu and kappa.
Q2) Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of oxycodone?
A) It has less of a hepatic first pass than morphine.
B) It has a shorter half-life than morphine.
C) It comes as a suppository formulation, which is useful for overnight analgesia.
D) It comes as a scored tablet formulation, which can be crushed and given with water to clients who have difficulties in swallowing tablets whole.
Q3) Which of the following narcotics has a prolonged duration of action?
A) Pethidine
B) Methadone
C) Codeine
D) Fentanyl
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Q1) The propionic acid derivatives ibuprofen and naproxen are useful for children suffering from inflammatory disease because they:
A) are not metabolised in the liver.
B) do not cause gastrointestinal problems.
C) are available as oral liquids so that the exact dose can be administered.
D) do not affect platelet aggregation.
Q2) Describe the effects of prostaglandins on inflammation and pain.
Q3) Which micronutrient should be supplemented with methotrexate use?
A) Folate
B) Thiamin
C) Riboflavin
D) Pyridoxine
Q4) Controlled-release preparations of ketoprofen should be taken ________ to improve the symptoms of arthritic pain.
A) immediately after meals
B) 15 minutes before physical activity
C) at bedtime
D) upon rising in the morning
Q5) Which individuals may be more susceptible to paracetamol overdose? Why?
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Chapter 41: Medicines Used to Treat Migraine
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Q1) Analgesic agents that are effective in treating mild to moderate acute migraine headaches include:
A) ibuprofen and indomethacin.
B) aspirin and paracetamol.
C) piroxicam and sulindac.
D) propranolol and ketamine.
Q2) In treating an acute migraine attack,sumatriptan should not be given with ergotamine because the combination may lead to:
A) excessive bronchoconstriction.
B) excessive vasoconstriction.
C) gastrointestinal bleeding.
D) excessive diuresis.
Q3) First-line therapy for an acute migraine attack includes:
A) triptans.
B) paracetamol.
C) ergotamine.
D) tricyclic antidepressants.
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43
Chapter 42: General Anaesthesia
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Q1) The rate of absorption of inhaled anaesthetic into the bloodstream is dependent on the ________ of the gas.
A) rate of osmosis
B) partial pressure
C) volume
D) surfactant levels
Q2) Intrathecal administration of anaesthetic produces:
A) profound anaesthesia with a small dose.
B) a mild analgesic effect with a small dose.
C) analgesia via the nerve roots that communicate with the epidural space.
D) no analgesic effect; this route of administration is inappropriate to achieve analgesia.
Q3) Which of the following is NOT a contraindication for the use of nitrous oxide as an inhalational anaesthetic?
A) Pneumothorax
B) Surgical procedures involving the middle ear
C) Tachycardia
D) Intestinal obstruction
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Chapter 43: Local Anesthesia
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Q1) The mechanism of action of the local anaesthetics is to impede the movement of which ion through its membrane channels?
A) Calcium
B) Potassium
C) Sodium
D) GABA
Q2) Which of the following routes of administration has the highest rate of systemic absorption of local anaesthetic agents?
A) Epidural administration
B) Intercostal administration
C) Subcutaneous administration
D) Brachial plexus administration
Q3) Which of the following local anaesthetics has a relatively long duration of action?
A) Procaine
B) Lignocaine
C) Bupivacaine
D) Mepivacaine
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Chapter 44: Medicines Used to Lower Blood Lipids
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Sample Questions
Q1) The mechanism of action of the antihyperlipidaemic agents called the statins involves:
A) inhibition of the rate-limiting enzyme in hepatic cholesterol synthesis.
B) binding to bile salts removing them from the body.
C) an interaction with the peroxisome proliferator-activated receptor alpha.
D) inhibiting the absorption of dietary cholesterol from the gastrointestinal tract.
Q2) An unwelcome but possibly benign effect of nicotinic acid treatment is:
A) petechiae.
B) constipation.
C) loose stools.
D) skin flushes and itching.
Q3) Which type of hyperlipidaemia is characterized by high VLDL and hypertriglyceridaemia?
A) Type I
B) Type IIa
C) Type IIb
D) Type IV
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Chapter 45: Antihypertensive Agents
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Sample Questions
Q1) \(\beta\)-blockers should not be used in clients with the following conditions EXCEPT:
A) complicated hypertension.
B) cardiac tamponade.
C) second-degree heart block.
D) sick sinus syndrome.
Q2) Which of the antihypertensive groups is least likely to be used as first-line treatment for hypertension?
A) -blockers
B)ACE inhibitors
C)Calcium channel blockers
D)Centrally acting medicines
Q3) Which antihypertensive drug group should be avoided when a person has a pre-existing respiratory condition such as asthma?
A) Diuretics
B) Calcium channel antagonists
C) ACE inhibitors
D) -blockers
Q4) Describe the method of action of ACE inhibitors.
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Chapter 46: Medicines Used to Promote Tissue Perfusion
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Sample Questions
Q1) In the treatment of erectile dysfunction,phosphodiesterase inhibitors:
A) act to trigger the release of nitric oxide.
B) are used when the cause is psychological.
C) may interact negatively with organic nitrate therapy.
D) must be administered directly into the penis.
Q2) The cardiac glycoside digoxin is also known as:
A) digitalis.
B) ACE.
C) carvedilol.
D) captopril.
Q3) Nimodipine is a calcium channel blocker that:
A) is used widely in the management of angina.
B) is relatively selective for cerebral blood vessels.
C) increases cardiac workload.
D) is most beneficial when it is administered prophylactically.
Q4) Which two factors can be the root cause of angina pectoris?
A)Vasospasm and atherosclerotic plaque
B)Vasodilation and atherosclerotic plaque
C)Vasospasm and hypolipidaemia
D)Vasodilation and hypolipidaemia
Page 48
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Chapter
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Q1) After about ________ hours of oral anticoagulant therapy with warfarin,the heparin can be withdrawn,as it takes this amount of time for the oral anticoagulant to exert its effect.
A) 2
B) 12
C) 24
D) 48
Q2) The benefits of enoxaparin over heparin include that it:
A) is less likely to cause thrombocytopaenia and is more effective in reducing mortality and myocardial infarction in unstable angina.
B) has a longer half-life requiring less frequent monitoring and is safer in pregnancy.
C) A and B.
D) neither A nor B.
Q3) The antiplatelet agent abciximab is structurally related to
A) calcium channel blockers.
B) a bacterial enzyme.
C) the ADP receptor.
D) a vaccine.
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Chapter 48: Diuretics and Other Renal Medicines
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Q1) Urinary alkalisation is possible only if creatinine clearance is at what level?
A)At least 20 mL/min
B)At least 30 mL/min
C)No more than 30 mL/min
D)No more than 20 mL/min
Q2) Explain why acidification of urine might be undertaken in individuals with urinary tract infections or urinary catheters.
Q3) To avoid ototoxicity,intravenous (IV)frusemide must be injected no faster than 4 mg/min.If the dose ordered is 20 mg IV,how quickly can it be administered?
A) Over at least 5 minutes
B) Over at least 4 minutes
C) Over at least 12 seconds
D) Over at least 10 minutes
Q4) Which of these diuretics promotes potassium retention?
A) Spironolactone
B) Frusemide
C) Chlorothiazide
D) Ethacrynic acid
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Chapter 49: Topic: Medicines Used to Treat Heart Failure
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Q1) Dopamine and dobutamine are examples of what class of cardiac drugs?
A)Inotropic agents
B)Cardiac glycosides
C)Inotropic antagonists
D)Angiotensin converting enzymes
Q2) Clients who have renal impairment are at risk of developing ________ during treatment with ACE inhibitors.
A) hypokalaemia
B) hyperkalaemia
C) hyponatraemia
D) hypernatraemia
Q3) The current optimal drug therapy in the management of heart failure is:
A) the cardiac glycoside digoxin.
B) the dopamine agonist dobutamine.
C) a non-selective \(\beta\)-blocker.
D) an ACE inhibitor and a diuretic.
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Chapter 50: Medicines Used to Treat Cardiac Dysrhythmia
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is an example of a prodysrhythmic agent?
A)Fexofenadine
B)Clarithromycin
C)Haloperidol
D)All of the above
Q2) Which one of the following mechanisms describes the general action of antidysrhythmic agents?
A) Impeding the movement of ions across cardiac cell membranes
B) Enhancing cardiac automaticity
C) Shortening the cardiac action potential
D) Enhancing impulse conduction in the heart
Q3) Atropine is especially useful in what sort of dysrhythmia?
A)Tachycardia
B)Bradycardia
C)Pre-ventricular contraction
D)AV conduction block
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Chapter 51: Fluid and Potassium Imbalances
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Q1) Which patient would likely have the greatest amount of body fluid?
A)A middle-aged man
B)A teenage girl
C)A toddler
D)A premature infant
Q2) Infusing a hypotonic solution will have which of the following cellular effects?
A) There will be no net shift of fluid.
B) Fluid will shift from the intracellular space to dilute the extracellular space, causing cell shrinkage.
C) Sodium will move from the extracellular space into the intracellular space.
D) Fluid will shift from the extracellular space to a more concentrated intracellular space, causing cell swelling.
Q3) Mild hypokalaemia should be treated in what manner?
A)Dietary supplementation
B)Oral potassium supplementation
C)Slow-release oral potassium
D)Parenteral potassium
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53
Chapter 52: Antianaemic Agents
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Q1) The form of erythropoietin for clinical use:
A) may induce a hypertensive state during therapy.
B) is extracted from human urine.
C) induces a rise in haemoglobin levels within two days of starting therapy.
D) contains iron supplements in order to facilitate haemoglobin production.
Q2) Which one of the following is considered a cause of anaemia?
A) Vitamin D<sub>3</sub> deficiency
B) Exposure to anabolic steroids
C) Chronic renal failure
D) Elemental iron overload
Q3) Which of the follow is standard therapy in non-myeloid anaemia?
A) Ferrous sulfate
B) Folic acid
C) Erythropoietin
D) Parenteral B<sub>12</sub>
Q4) The absorption of iron in the gut may be enhanced by :
A) vitamin A.
B) vitamin E.
C) vitamin C.
D) folate.
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Chapter 53: Medicines Used to Maintain Gas Exchange
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Q1) Which one of the following antiasthma agents acts directly on intracellular cAMP levels?
A) Muscarinic antagonists
B) Methylxanthines
C) agonists
D) Leukotriene receptor antagonists
Q2) Inhaled corticosteroids should be considered as part of the medication regime for asthma if the person is using their \(\beta_{2}\) agonists more than:
A) one time each month.
B) three times each month.
C) three to four times each week.
D) two times each month.
Q3) Drugs included in the class of leukotriene receptor antagonist include:
A)montelukast.
B)fexofenadine.
C)albuterol.
D) macular degeneration.
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55
Chapter 54: Medicines for Upper Respiratory Tract
Conditions
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Q1) To which drug group do many cough suppressants belong?
A) NSAIDs
B) Narcotics
C) Benzodiazepines
D) Dopamine antagonists
Q2) Nasal decongestants are contraindicated in patients taking:
A) antihistamines.
B) certain types of antidepressants.
C) antitussive agents.
D) salicylate preparations.
Q3) Which substances are responsible for the symptoms of upper respiratory illnesses?
A)Prostaglandins and mast cells
B)Prostaglandins and histamine
C)Antihistamines and mast cells
D)Antihistamines and leukotrienes
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Chapter 55: Upper Gastrointestinal Tract Medicines
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Q1) The use of cisapride in the treatment of upper gastrointestinal tract conditions is restricted due to its ability to produce:
A) renal failure.
B) liver failure.
C) potentially life-threatening dysrhythmias.
D) respiratory failure.
Q2) How should histamine H<sub>2</sub>-receptor antagonists be administered in relation to food?
A) They should be administered with food.
B) They should be administered immediately following food.
C) They can be administered with or without food.
D) They should be administered two hours before food.
Q3) There have been no adverse effects reported with which medication?
A) Simethicone
B) Cisparide
C) Cimetidine
D) Nizatidine
Q4) Explain how a hiatus hernia can cause gastric reflux.
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Chapter 56: Lower Castrointestinal Tract Medicines
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Q1) Sennosides are best administered:
A) at bedtime.
B) before lying down.
C) with meals.
D) in the recumbent position.
Q2) Pectin is an example of what type of antidiarrheal?
A) Absorbent
B) Adsorbent
C) Opioid derivative
D) Belladonna alkaloid
Q3) Cryotherapy may be useful to treat haemorrhoids because it:
A) can increase blood supply and promote healing.
B) induces a fibrosis that anchors the haemorrhoid.
C) can cause shrinking of the dilated veins.
D) can precipitate cell surface proteins and reduce swelling.
Q4) Treatment with the anti-inflammatory bowel drug sulfasalazine can cause:
A) insomnia.
B) dizziness.
C) male infertility.
D) vitamin A deficiency.
58
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Chapter 57: Antiemetic Agents
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Q1) A non-pharmacological treatment for nausea and vomiting in pregnancy (NVP)is:
A) blue vein cheese.
B) iced tea.
C) ginger.
D) eucalyptus.
Q2) The advantage of domperidone over metoclopramide is that it:
A) crosses the blood-brain barrier readily so it has more central side effects.
B) doesn't readily cross the blood-brain barrier so it has fewer central side effects.
C) crosses the blood-brain barrier readily so a smaller dose is required for the same antiemetic effects.
D) is safe for pregnant women in the first trimester.
Q3) Which of the following antiemetics is a serotonin antagonist?
A) Dimenhydrinate
B) Metoclopramide
C) Ondansetron
D) Hyoscine
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Chapter 58: Enteral and Parenteral Nutrition
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Q1) What is a suitable strategy to manage a large return of gastric aspirate in a person receiving nasogastric feeding?
A) Lower the head of the person's bed.
B) Use a hyperosmolar feed.
C) Select a feed with a higher fat content.
D) Decrease the rate of infusion.
Q2) Which of the following actions will NOT improve the management of regurgitation during enteral feeding?
A) Lower the head of the client's bed.
B) Avoid the use of hyperosmolar feeds.
C) Insert a fine-bore enteric tube.
D) Slow down the rate of infusion.
Q3) Which complication would be least common with an enteral feed?
A) Electrolyte imbalance
B) Entry of feed into the lungs
C) Clogging of the tube
D) Intracranial penetration
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Chapter 59: Medicines and the Pituitary Gland
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Q1) Which of the following statements regarding diabetes insipidus is true?
A) It is affected by the posterior pituitary hormones.
B) Urinary output is unusually scant.
C) The specific gravity of the urine is 1.005-1.008.
D) Serum calcium levels must be monitored.
Q2) Somatropin is administered by daily subcutaneous injections to stimulate skeletal and cellular growth.What is a major reason why some individuals fail to respond to treatment?
A) The development of somatropin antibodies by the individual taking the somatropin
B) Use of somatropin extracted from the pituitary glands of human cadavers
C) Lack of rotation of injection sites
D) Use of different brands during a treatment regimen
Q3) Which one of the following statements about oxytocin is correct?
A) There are no clinical uses for oxytocin.
B) Oxytocin is believed to have strong serotonergic and \(\alpha\)-adrenergic activity.
C) The anterior pituitary lobe secretes oxytocin.
D) Oxytocin promotes breast milk let-down and facilitates placental delivery.
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Chapter 60: Medicines and the Thyroid
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Q1) Which of the following is true about the action of iodide solutions for hyperthyroid states?
A) High doses of iodide cause an immediate reduction in the release of thyroid hormone.
B) Iodide reduces the blood supply to the thyroid gland and makes it firmer.
C) Iodide has a long half-life and greatly reduces the release of thyroid hormone for up to one month.
D) Both A and B.
Q2) The clinical effects of thionamides for hyperthyroid states do not become apparent until stores of thyroid hormones become depleted,which takes about ________ days after the start of therapy.
A) 2 to 3
B) 5 to 7
C) 7 to 14
D) 21 to 28
Q3) What purpose do \(\beta\)-blockers serve in treating thyroid disease?
A) They directly lower thyroid levels.
B) They are only used for well-controlled patients.
C) They are used to alleviate symptoms caused by adrenergic stimulation.
D) They have no clinical indication in treating thyroid disease.
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Page 62
Chapter 61: Medicines and the Pancreas
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Q1) All of the following are hormones produced by the pancreas EXCEPT:
A) insulin.
B) glucagon.
C) somatropin.
D) statin.
Q2) A patient is newly diagnosed with borderline type 2 diabetes.Which steps would be appropriate?
A) A focus on diet and exercise
B) Starting insulin
C) Considering metformin
D) Both A and C
Q3) In the treatment of type 2 diabetes,a sulfonylurea agent is administered with food to reduce the:
A) incidence of diarrhoea.
B) incidence of hypoglycaemia.
C) incidence of vomiting.
D) drug's metabolism.
Q4) The majority of cases of diabetes mellitus are type 1.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 62: Medicines Affecting the Adrenal Cortex
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following corticosteroids is classified as an intermediate-acting agent?
A) Hydrocortisone
B) Dexamethasone
C) Prednisolone
D) Betamethasone
Q2) Which of the following is an example of a long-acting corticosteroid?
A) Dexamethasone
B) Cortisone
C) Prednisone
D) Budesonide
Q3) During spironolactone therapy,the blood levels of ________ should be monitored.
A) sodium
B) potassium
C) urea
D) calcium
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Chapter 63: Medicines and the Gonads
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Sample Questions
Q1) The AAS nandrolone may be used in the treatment of:
A) menopausal symptoms.
B) osteoporosis.
C) enhanced healing after surgery.
D) breast cancer.
Q2) Women treated with oestrogen-only preparations may be at an increased risk of developing:
A) colon cancer.
B) Alzheimer's disease.
C) osteoporosis.
D) breast cancer.
Q3) A major consideration associated with the progestogen-only contraceptive pill is:
A) that it cannot be used in women who are breastfeeding.
B) it increases the risk of breast cancer.
C) it has an increased failure rate compared to the oestrogen-progestogen combinations.
D) if you are intolerant to an oestrogen-progestogen combination, you cannot use this preparation either.
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Chapter 64: Medicines and Bone Metabolism
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Q1) The mechanism of action of the bisphosphonates is to:
A) release calcium from bones.
B) inhibit bone breakdown and resorption.
C) increase the sensitivity of the calcium-sensing receptors on parathyroid gland cells.
D) raise the blood levels of oestrogen.
Q2) Which of the following foods inhibit absorption of calcium due to high phytic acid content?
A) Unrefined cereals
B) Green vegetables
C) Strawberries
D) Cow's milk
Q3) Which finding would you expect to see with Paget's disease?
A)Hypocalcaemia
B)Hypercalcaemia
C) Decrease in osteoclasts
D)Hypervitaminosis D
Q4) Describe the role of parathyroid hormone with regards to regulation of blood calcium levels.
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66
Chapter 65: Hyperuricaemia and Gout
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Q1) Which of the following statements about uric acid is true?
A) It is a product of pyrimidine-based nucleic acid metabolism.
B) It tends to crystallise at relatively low physiological temperatures.
C) Hyperuricaemia always results in gout.
D) Uric acid is very water-soluble in kidney filtrate.
Q2) Colchicine has NSAID properties,but also has specific mechanisms including ________ to treat gout.
A) stimulating prostaglandin synthesis and secretion
B) disruption of leukocyte microtubule function, which inhibits cell migration to the site of inflammation
C) activation of xanthine oxidase
D) creating more acidic urine, which increases excretion of uric acid
Q3) When commencing a uricosuric agent such as probenecid,the person should be advised to:
A) cease all other medications to reduce drug interactions.
B) ensure adequate fluid intake to reduce kidney stone formation.
C) avoid direct sunlight.
D) avoid urine alkalising preparations.
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Chapter 66: Obesity and Its Treatment
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following chemical mediators stimulates feeding?
A) Serotonin
B) Noradrenaline
C) Peptide YY
D) Neuropeptide Y
Q2) When food intake equals energy consumed by the body's cells,the person is said to be in:
A) a malnourished state.
B) an obese state.
C) energy balance.
D) a sedentary state.
Q3) For maximum benefit from the anorectic agent orlistat,the dose should be taken:
A) with three main meals daily.
B) with the morning meal.
C) with the evening meal.
D) at bedtime.
Q4) Describe some nonpharmacological strategies for weight loss.
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Chapter 67: Introduction to Chemotherapy
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT a likely cause of antimicrobial resistance?
A) Using narrow-spectrum antibiotics instead of broad-spectrum antibiotics
B) Excessive use of antibiotics in animals bred for human consumption
C) Failure to conform to the dosing regime
D) Spraying excess antibiotic in the air after drawing it up for injection
Q2) Which of the following antimicrobial agents inhibits DNA replication?
A) Linezolid
B) Mupirocin
C) Colistin
D) Norfloxacin
Q3) It is recommended that surgical prophylaxis with antibiotics is not undertaken with a:
A) mastectomy.
B) coronary bypass surgery.
C) splenectomy.
D) large bowel resection.
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69
Chapter 68: Sulfonamides and Trimethoprim
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Sample Questions
Q1) During treatment with selected sulfonamides,a client may experience diarrhoea.This usually indicates:
A) a change in the balance of gut flora.
B) gastrointestinal tract bleeding.
C) drug crystallisation.
D) an allergic reaction.
Q2) What should a person be advised to do when taking sulfonamide therapy?
A) Ensure an adequate fluid intake.
B) Monitor folate status during high-dose or prolonged therapy.
C) Have a full blood examination during high-dose or prolonged therapy.
D) All of the above.
Q3) Trimethoprim is best taken as a single daily dose:
A) in the morning.
B) at midday.
C) in the mid-afternoon.
D) at bedtime.
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Chapter 69: Antibacterial Agents
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Q1) Which serious adverse effect is associated with long term use of nitrofurantoin?
A) Iridescent yellow urine
B) Drowsiness
C) Paraethesia
D) Gastrointestinal upset
Q2) What medication regimen is ineffective in treating microorganisms that are part of the ESCAAPPM group?
A) A carbapenem agent
B) A penicillin agent
C) An aminoglycoside agent
D) A fluoroquinolone agent
Q3) Which one of the following is NOT a common adverse effect of treatment with penicillin?
A) Photosensitivity
B) Nausea or vomiting
C) Oedema
D) The appearance of a rash or urticaria
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Chapter 70: Antituberculotic and Antileprotic Agents
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Q1) Mrs Debere,suffering from tuberculosis,noticed a deterioration in visual acuity.This was most likely related to:
A) ethambutol.
B) streptomycin.
C) isoniazid.
D) rifampicin.
Q2) Which of the following factors would cause favourable conditions for tuberculosis to spread?
A) Social inequity
B) Overcrowding
C) Exposure to livestock/wildlife that may be infected
D) All of the above
Q3) An unusual consequence of rifampicin antituberculotic therapy is that:
A) faeces turn black.
B) faeces turn white.
C) urine turns red.
D) urine turns bright yellow.
Q4) A pregnant patient with Hansen's disease can be safely treated with thalidomide.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 71: Antiseptics and Disinfectants
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Sample Questions
Q1) An example of a sterilant is:
A) cetrimide.
B) sodium hypochlorite.
C) ethylene oxide.
D) penicillin.
Q2) What is the main difference between antiseptics and disinfectants?
A) Antiseptics are for use on inanimate objects
B) Disinfectants are used on the human body
C) Antiseptics are used on the human body
D) Both can be used on either surface
Q3) An example of a disinfectant is:
A) cetrimide.
B) sodium hypochlorite.
C) penicillin.
D) ethylene oxide.
Q4) An example of an antiseptic is:
A) cetrimide.
B) sodium hypochlorite.
C) penicillin.
D) ethylene oxide.
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Chapter 72: Antiparasitic Agents
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Q1) Which antibiotic is sometimes used in malaria treatment?
A) Amoxycillin
B) Doxycycline
C) Azithromycin
D) Cephalexin
Q2) What should a woman who is pregnant be advised to do when taking atovaquone therapy?
A) Supplement with vitamin D.
B) Supplement with calcium.
C) Supplement with vitamin A.
D) Supplement with folic acid.
Q3) Apart from its use as an amoebicide,metronidazole is useful for:
A) malaria.
B) leprosy.
C) anaerobic bacterial infections.
D) staphylococcal infections.
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Chapter 73: Antiviral Agents
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Sample Questions
Q1) The DNA polymerase inhibitor aciclovir can suppress the symptoms of several viral infections except:
A) chickenpox.
B) herpes type I.
C) measles.
D) Epstein-Barr infections.
Q2) The only recognised use of foscarnet is treatment of CMV:
A) in otherwise healthy patients.
B) in pregnant patients.
C) in paediatric patients.
D) secondary to HIV.
Q3) Which one of the following are adverse effects of the influenza drug zanamivir?
A) Nausea.
B) Bronchospasm.
C) Dyspnoea.
D) All of the above.
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Chapter 74: Antifungal Agents
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Sample Questions
Q1) Systemic candidiasis can be treated with parenteral:
A) amphotericin.
B) griseofulvin.
C) itraconazole.
D) terbinafine.
Q2) Which are qualities of subcutaneous mycoses? Select all that apply.
A) It is most common in northern countries.
B) It can be grossly disfiguring.
C) It involves skin, fascia and bone.
D) It is caused by dermatophytes.
E) Is commonly referred to as candidiasis.
Q3) The antifungal amphotericin can be used:
A) topically, intravenously and in lozenge form.
B) intramuscularly, intrathecally and transdermally.
C) intramuscularly and intravenously.
D) topically and orally.
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Chapter 75: Immunomodulating Agents
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Sample Questions
Q1) A common primary target for most immunosuppressant drugs is:
A) all cytokine production.
B) macrophages.
C) T-cell activation.
D) immunoglobulin function.
Q2) Anakinra is used in combination with what other medication for the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis?
A) gold salts
B) methotrexate
C) NSAID
D) corticosteroids
Q3) The desired therapeutic effect of colony stimulating factors are to increase the:
A) rate of colonisation of bacteria within a suspension.
B) numbers of circulating leukocytes.
C) heart rate.
D) rate of platelet aggregation.
Q4) Describe the difference between the terms vaccination and immunisation.
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Chapter 76: Cytotoxic Chemotherapeutic Agents
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Sample Questions
Q1) Tretinoin is closely related to which vitamin?
A) Vitamin D
B) Vitamin K
C) Vitamin B
D) Vitamin A
Q2) Why would erythropoietin be given to a patient undergoing cancer treatment?
A) To counteract anaemia
B) To minimise nausea
C) To control pain
D)To protect against bone loss
Q3) Which is NOT an expected adverse effect of cytotoxic agents?
A) Alopecia
B) Weight gain
C) Nausea
D) Mucositis
Q4) Which of the following is a cell cycle specific cytotoxic drug group?
A) Alkylating agents
B) Vinca alkaloids
C) Gonadotrophin-releasing hormone analogues
D) Cytotoxic antibiotics
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Chapter 77: Medicines Used in Diseases of the Skin
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Sample Questions
Q1) Nappy rash can occur due to:
A) the use of disposable nappy products.
B) the production of ammonia from the breakdown of urine.
C) hypersensitivity reactions to breast milk.
D) all of the above.
Q2) How many applications of podophyllum are usually require to remove a wart?
A) One
B) Two
C) Three
D) Four
Q3) One of the newer treatments for psoriasis is:
A) coal tar.
B) UV light treatment.
C) methotrexate.
D) ustekinumab.
Q4) The mechanism of action of the counterirritant capsaicin is thought to involve:
A) vasoconstriction of skin blood vessels.
B) a stimulation of opioid receptors.
C) an interference in the release of substance P.
D) a softening and loosening of the outer layers of the skin.
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Chapter 78: Medicines and the Eye
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT appropriate advice to offer an individual receiving verteporfin treatment?
A) As verteporfin can cause blurring or black spots, driving a car or operating machinery should be avoided.
B) Avoid skin and eye exposure to sunlight and to bright indoor light for 48 hours after treatment.
C) Remain in a darkened room when staying indoors.
D) Wear protective clothing and sunglasses at all times when going outside.
Q2) Trachoma is associated with:
A) a chlamydial eye infection.
B) an impairment of aqueous humour drainage.
C) a form of cancer that affects the eyeball.
D) an ingrowing eyelash.
Q3) The first-choice treatment for glaucoma is:
A) miotics.
B) -blockers.
C) sympathomimetic agents.
D) diuretics
Q4) Describe the pathophysiology of glaucoma.
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Chapter 79: Herbal Medicines
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Q1) Echinacea consistently shows effectiveness in clinical trials.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What symptom would signify that an individual has consumed excessive amounts of ginger?
A) Postural hypotension
B) Diarrhoea
C) Palpitations
D) Dizziness
Q3) Prolonged use of zinc may lead to:
A) hepatolenticular degeneration.
B) hyperthyroidism.
C) hypertension.
D) copper deficiency and anaemia.
Q4) Ginkgo may help in improving the:
A) immune system.
B) circulation or blood flow to certain organs.
C) reproductive system.
D) excretory system.
Q5) List some Common herbal medicines that are unsafe for use in pregnancy.
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