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Paramedic Training Final Exam - 1984 Verified Questions

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Paramedic Training

Final Exam

Course Introduction

Paramedic Training is an intensive course designed to equip students with the advanced knowledge and practical skills necessary to provide emergency medical care in pre-hospital settings. The curriculum integrates classroom instruction in human anatomy, physiology, pharmacology, and trauma management with hands-on clinical and field experiences. Students learn to assess patient conditions, initiate life-saving interventions, operate medical equipment, and manage emergencies ranging from cardiac arrest to traumatic injuries. Emphasis is placed on critical thinking, effective communication, and teamwork, preparing graduates to function as vital members of emergency response teams and pursue professional certification as paramedics.

Recommended Textbook Emergency Care 13th Edition by Daniel J. Limmer

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39 Chapters

1984 Verified Questions

1984 Flashcards

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Chapter 1: Introduction to Emergency Medical Care

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41 Verified Questions

41 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) The application of oxygen for a patient who is short of breath without having to contact the physician in the emergency department is an example of which of the following?

A) On-line medical direction

B) Standards of care

C) Standing orders

D) Breach of duty

Answer: C

Q2) Which of the following BEST describes a list of steps the EMT should perform while assessing and managing emergency medical situations?

A) Standing orders

B) On-line medical direction

C) Protocols

D) Standard operating procedures

Answer: C

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Page 3

Chapter 2: The Well-Being of the Emt

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62 Verified Questions

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Sample Questions

Q1) Since EMS personnel are often exposed to both acute and chronic stressors,________ management may be helpful to cope with on-the-job experiences.

A) critical incident stress

B) crisis intervention

C) stress prevention

D) chronic stress

Answer: A

Q2) According to Dr.Hans Selye,the third stage of the "Stress Triad" is known as the ________ stage.

A) resistance

B) cumulative

C) exhaustion

D) alarm

Answer: C

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Page 4

Chapter 3: Lifting and Moving Patients

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Sample Questions

Q1) What is the preferred number of rescuers when using a stair chair?

A) Two: one in front and one in back

B) Only one with the track-like chair

C) Four: one for each corner of the device

D) Three: two lifting and one spotting

Answer: D

Q2) When lifting a patient,a basic principle is to:

A) lift with your lower back.

B) extend your arms to maximize your lift.

C) rush your lift to minimize your lift time.

D) know your lifting limits.

Answer: D

Q3) For a patient without a possibility of spinal injury,which of the following carries should be used to move him from a bed to a stretcher?

A) Firefighter's carry

B) Direct-ground lift

C) Draw-sheet method

D) Extremity lift

Answer: C

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Page 5

Chapter 4: Medicallegal and Ethical Issues

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Sample Questions

Q1) The administration of oxygen and the application of spinal immobilization is part of which of the following for the EMT?

A) Duty to act

B) Standard of care

C) Scope of practice

D) None of the above

Q2) Which of the following situations BEST illustrates the act of abandonment by the EMT?

A) The EMT resuscitates a patient who has a DNR order signed by his physician.

B) An EMT transports a patient to the emergency department, leaves the patient in the waiting room, but does not advise the ED staff.

C) An EMT begins care of a patient, then turns the patient over to a paramedic.

D) An EMT who is off-duty sees a motor vehicle collision with probable injuries but does not stop to help.

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Chapter 5: Medical Terminology

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following are the abdominal regions created by drawing two imaginary lines intersecting at the navel?

A) Abdominal quadrants

B) Abdominal planes

C) Abdominal regions

D) Abdominal sextants

Q2) The term lateral is best defined as:

A) under the arms.

B) toward the middle of.

C) to the back of.

D) to the side.

Q3) A patient with bilateral femur fractures would have which of the following?

A) Two fractures in the same femur

B) A femur fracture occurring with little or no trauma

C) A femur fracture in which the bone ends have punctured the muscle and skin of the thigh

D) Fractures of both femurs

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Chapter 6: Anatomy and Physiology

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following are the components of the nervous system?

A) Brain and autonomic nerves

B) Spinal cord and motor nerves

C) Spinal cord and sensory nerves

D) Brain, spinal cord, and nerves

Q2) The pressure against the walls of the blood vessels as blood is ejected from the heart and circulates through the body is the ________ blood pressure.

A) systolic

B) diastolic

C) central venous

D) mean arterial

Q3) Which of the following respiratory processes requires the active use of muscles?

A) Inhalation

B) Bifurcation

C) Exhalation

D) Gas exchange

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Chapter 7: Ventilation, perfusion, and Shock: Understanding Pathophysiology

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Sample Questions

Q1) In normal exhalation,the diaphragm and intercostal muscles relax to contract the chest,which creates a positive pressure.This is what type of process?

A) Inspiration

B) Active

C) Passive

D) Respiration

Q2) Which of the following BEST defines adenosine triphosphate (ATP)?

A) It is the form of energy produced in the mitochondria and is the cell's engine responsible for all cell function.

B) It is the form of energy produced in the endoplasmic reticulum and is the cell's engine responsible for all cell function.

C) It is the form of energy that is produced in the nucleus from glucose and other nutrients.

D) It is the form of energy that is produced in the mitochondria from glucose and DNA.

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9

Chapter 8: Life Span Development

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following stages is commonly referred to as "the twilight years"?

A) Middle adulthood

B) Late adulthood

C) Adolescence

D) Early adulthood

Q2) You are assessing a 12-year-old male patient who has been involved in a bicycle accident.This patient would be classified as being in which stage of life?

A) Middle school age

B) School age

C) Adolescent

D) Junior school age

Q3) In which age group do you anticipate seeing patients who have less efficient cardiovascular systems and a reduction of previous blood volume?

A) Infancy

B) Late adulthood

C) Early adulthood

D) Middle adulthood

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Chapter 9: Airway Management

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following is true concerning the procedure for inserting a nasopharyngeal airway (NPA)?

A) The bevel should be turned toward the nasal septum.

B) If a water-soluble lubricant is not available, a silicon spray can be substituted.

C) It can only be placed in the right nostril.

D) The length of the device is not as important as it is with oropharyngeal airways.

Q2) What is the sound of the soft tissue of the upper airway creating impedance or partial obstruction to the flow of air?

A) Stridor

B) Hoarseness

C) Snoring

D) Gurgling

Q3) What is the danger that an altered mental status can pose to a patient's breathing?

A) Depressed alveolar function

B) Loss of muscle tone and airway collapse

C) Bronchospasms

D) Hyperoxia

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Chapter 10: Respiration and Artificial Ventilation

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Sample Questions

Q1) The oxygen flow rate for a nasal cannula should not exceed ________ liters per minute.

A) 8

B) 4

C) 6

D) 2

Q2) What is the relatively rare condition that can cause respiratory depression?

A) Lungs can react unfavorably to oxygen when the concentration is too high for a long period of time and this can depress breathing.

B) Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) has changed the stimulus to breathe to the hypoxic drive and high concentration can depress breathing.

C) High concentration of oxygen can depress breathing when the patient has an allergic reaction from the oxygen.

D) The eyes can develop scar tissue on the retina from a high concentration of oxygen.

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12

Chapter 11: Scene Size-Up

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Sample Questions

Q1) Your patient,a 29-year-old female,was the front seat passenger in a vehicle that was struck in the passenger's side door by another vehicle that ran a red light.Which of the following is most likely to have occurred?

A) The patient impacted the steering wheel with her chest, causing a fracture of the sternum.

B) The patient took the "down and under" pathway, causing trauma to her lower extremities.

C) The patient's body was pushed forcefully out from under her head, causing injury to the cervical spine.

D) The patient took the "up and over" pathway, striking her head on the windshield.

Q2) What law of physics explains why a patient's liver can be injured from the impact of his car with a tree?

A) Second law of motion

B) Newton's law of moving energy

C) Law of inertia

D) Law of kinetic energy

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Chapter 12: The Primary Assessment

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following represents the correct order of assessment for the EMT during the primary assessment from start to end?

A) General impression, mental status, airway, breathing, circulation, patient priority

B) Mental status, general impression, airway, breathing, circulation, patient priority

C) Patient priority, general impression, mental status, airway, breathing, circulation

D) None of the above

Q2) Which of the following questions will most likely elicit your patient's chief complaint?

A) What made you call 911 this evening?

B) Do you have any medical problems?

C) How have you been feeling lately?

D) Have you been drinking today?

Q3) Which of the following is NOT part of the general impression?

A) Patient's facial expression

B) Patient's age and race

C) Position in which the patient is found

D) Patient's past medical history

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14

Chapter 13: Vital Signs and Monitoring Devices

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Sample Questions

Q1) You are transporting a patient to the hospital from a motor vehicle crash.Your patient's initial blood pressure was 88/52.You should reassess blood pressure:

A) at least every 5 minutes.

B) at least every 15 minutes.

C) only if the pulse rate changes.

D) only if the patient gets worse.

Q2) You are called to a 72-year-old patient with weakness and headache with an initial blood pressure of 140/92.Her repeat blood pressure at 5 minutes is unchanged.Her condition is called:

A) stroke.

B) prehypertension.

C) hypertension.

D) hypotension.

Q3) When the heart contracts and forces blood into the arteries,the pressure created is known as the:

A) pulse pressure.

B) systolic blood pressure.

C) diastolic blood pressure.

D) central venous pressure.

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Page 15

Chapter 14: The Secondary Assessment

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101 Verified Questions

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Sample Questions

Q1) When checking breath sounds in a trauma patient,what should the EMT assess for first?

A) Wheezing and stridor

B) Rate and tidal volume

C) Presence and equality

D) Amount of dead space air and residual air

Q2) Your patient is a 16-year-old female who is reporting abdominal pain and nausea.She says it came on when she woke up this morning.Her mother says that her daughter has been tired and cranky lately and has not been eating well for a couple of weeks.In fact,every time you ask a question,the patient's mother answers.What should you do next?

A) Ask the mother to please be quiet.

B) Have your partner interview the mother in the next room.

C) Tell the mother to leave the room.

D) Ignore the mother and continue to try to talk to the patient.

Q3) What does distention refer to when describing your patient's abdomen?

A) Larger than normal

B) Softer than normal

C) Harder than normal

D) Having a sunken-in appearance

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Chapter 15: Communication and Documentation

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Sample Questions

Q1) During your radio report to the hospital,which of the following pieces of information should NOT be relayed?

A) Patient's age

B) Baseline vital signs

C) Patient's name

D) Patient's status

Q2) An objective statement made in a prehospital patient care report meets all of the following criteria except which one?

A) Verifiable

B) Observable

C) Measurable

D) Biased

Q3) The Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA)requires ambulance services to do all of the following except:

A) place patient care reports in a locked box.

B) safeguard patient confidentiality.

C) report child abuse.

D) All of the above are required by HIPAA.

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Chapter 16: General Pharmacology

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Sample Questions

Q1) You are on the scene at a fancy hotel room for a 60-year-old male patient who calls 911 at 10 p.m.for chest pains.He states he was about to go to bed when he suddenly had chest pain that would not go away.He rates his pain as a 7 out of 10 and is diaphoretic.His vital signs are stable,and he takes medications for hypertension,high cholesterol,and erectile dysfunction.The patient is allergic to morphine.After placing the patient on oxygen,you contact medical control and request:

A) to administer aspirin to the patient.

B) to administer nitroglycerin to the patient.

C) to administer both aspirin and nitroglycerin to the patient.

D) no orders.

Q2) You are on the scene of a 68-year-old patient with a history of COPD who is breathing 44 times per minute and has a diminished level of consciousness.His wife states he has an Albuterol inhaler and nitroglycerin tablets for angina.What is the most important drug you can administer to the patient?

A) Oxygen by bag-valve mask

B) Oxygen by nonrebreather mask

C) Albuterol

D) Nitroglycerin

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Chapter 17: Respiratory Emergencies

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Sample Questions

Q1) You are first on the scene of a 61-year-old female in need of assistance with her respirations.You have a pocket mask with supplemental oxygen.How can you determine that your artificial ventilation is effective?

A) You are assisting respirations at 10 breaths per minute.

B) Patient's pulse returns to normal.

C) You assure oxygen is being delivered at 15 liters per minute.

D) Patient's skin color remains the same.

Q2) When should the EMT most likely expect to hear wheezes in a patient complaining of shortness of breath secondary to an asthma attack?

A) While breathing in

B) In between breaths

C) While breathing out

D) While holding his breath

Q3) What is NOT one of the symptoms of a pulmonary embolus?

A) sudden calmness

B) sudden onset of sharp chest pain

C) anxiety

D) pain and swelling in one or both legs

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Chapter 18: Cardiac Emergencies

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following BEST describes the continued need for prehospital advanced cardiac life support,even when EMTs in the community carry AEDs?

A) Not all cardiac arrests are due to problems that respond to defibrillation.

B) The patient may need medications to support his cardiac rhythm and blood pressure prior to attempting defibrillation.

C) In cases of refractory or recurrent ventricular fibrillation, the use of medications may decrease the chances of defibrillating successfully.

D) All of the above

Q2) Which of the following is NOT a role of the EMT in providing emergency cardiac care?

A) CPR

B) Early defibrillation

C) Administration of epinephrine

D) Airway management

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20

Chapter 19: Diabetic Emergencies and Altered Mental

Status

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Sample Questions

Q1) Your patient is a 70-year-old man whose wife called EMS because her husband began exhibiting unusual behavior.Upon your arrival you introduce yourself to the patient,who responds,"Not until nine o'clock." This phenomenon is BEST described as:

A) receptive aphasia.

B) disorientation to time.

C) unresponsive to verbal stimuli.

D) expressive aphasia.

Q2) The signs and symptoms of a transient ischemic attack (TIA)may last up to:

A) 1 hour.

B) 30 minutes.

C) 24 hours.

D) 6 hours.

Q3) A hormone called insulin is secreted by the:

A) islets of Langerhans in the liver.

B) gallbladder found in the pancreas.

C) islets of Langerhans in the pancreas.

D) None of the above.

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Page 21

Chapter 20: Allergic Reaction

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Sample Questions

Q1) What is another name for a severe allergic reaction?

A) Dermatitis

B) Asthma

C) Anaphylaxis

D) Psychosomatic reaction

Q2) You are called to a farmhouse on a sunny spring afternoon.Upon arrival,a frantic mother tells you that her 3-year-old daughter was playing in the yard,accidentally stepped on a hornets' nest,and was stung repeatedly.The patient is alert,screaming and crying,and can follow her mother's commands.Her arms and legs are swollen and show the marks of several stings.Her body is covered in hives.Her vital signs are blood pressure 90/40,pulse 110,respiratory rate 24,and oxygen saturation 99%.Her lung sounds are clear and equal bilaterally.Her mother states she put "nox-a-sting" on the bites but the bites only seemed to get worse.What condition is the patient suffering from?

A) Minor anaphylactic reaction

B) Moderate anaphylactic reaction

C) Allergic reaction from the hornets' stings

D) Anaphylactic reaction from the "nox-a-sting" swabs

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Chapter 21: Poisoning and Overdose Emergencies

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Sample Questions

Q1) Your patient is a 48-year-old male who has n exposed to a toxic powder that can be absorbed through the skin.Which of the following measures should be taken by the EMT?

A) Wipe the powder away with a damp cloth.

B) Brush off the powder and flush the patient's skin with a solution of baking soda and water.

C) Flush the patient's skin with copious amounts of water.

D) Brush off the powder and flush the patient's skin with copious amounts of water.

Q2) Your patient is a 3-year-old male with a stoma who has swallowed a household cleaner.Medical direction gives you an order for milk to dilute the stomach contents.Which of the following is the correct way of carrying out this order?

A) Administer one glass of milk through the stoma.

B) Have the patient drink one glass of milk.

C) Have the patient drink a glass of milk while you plug the stoma to prevent leakage.

D) Refuse the order and explain why.

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23

Chapter 22: Abdominal Emergencies

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Sample Questions

Q1) You are examining a 24-year-old female patient with lower quadrant abdominal pain.What is the MOST lethal possibility?

A) Pelvic inflammatory disease

B) Ectopic pregnancy

C) Cholecystitis

D) Mittelschmerz

Q2) You are called to a residence for a 48-year-old male patient.He is lying in bed and is incoherent.He is unable to follow commands.His blood pressure is 80/40,pulse 136,and respiratory rate of 36.His wife states that he had lower right abdominal pain for about two days and it progressively worsened.He said about an hour ago he had a sudden increase in pain and then became incoherent.The wife states the husband refused to see a doctor before,but she finally called 911.You suspect:

A) appendicitis.

B) splenic rupture.

C) renal colic.

D) peritonitis.

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Chapter 23: Behavioral and Psychiatric Emergencies and Suicide

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Sample Questions

Q1) When a patient or bystander at the scene of an emergency displays fear,anger,or grief,this is best described as which of the following?

A) Neurosis

B) Stress reaction

C) Post-traumatic stress disorder

D) Catharsis

Q2) Which of the following does NOT indicate that a patient may be about to become violent?

A) Tense body posture or clenched fists

B) Crying

C) Profane language

D) Loud voice and rapid pacing

Q3) When responding to an attempted suicide,which of the following is the EMT's primary concern?

A) Personal safety

B) Determining whether the patient suffers from clinical depression

C) Contacting law enforcement since suicide is illegal

D) Managing the patient's airway

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Chapter 24: Hematologic and Renal Emergencies

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Sample Questions

Q1) What is continuous ambulatory peritoneal dialysis?

A) A gravity exchange process for peritoneal dialysis in which a bag of dialysis fluid is raised above the level of an abdominal catheter to fill the abdominal cavity and lowered below the level of the abdominal catheter to drain the fluid out

B) A gravity exchange process for peritoneal dialysis in which a bag of dialysis fluid is lowered below the level of an abdominal catheter to fill the abdominal cavity and raised above the level of the abdominal catheter to drain the fluid out

C) A mechanical process for peritoneal dialysis in which a machine fills and empties the abdominal cavity of dialysis solution

D) A type of dialysis that is performed while walking

Q2) The blood has many functions critical to a patient's health.Which one of the listed items below is NOT a function of the blood?

A) Control of bleeding by clotting

B) Delivery of oxygen to the cells

C) Removal and delivery of other waste products to organs that provide filtration and removal, such as the kidneys and liver

D) Removal of carbon monoxide from the cells

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Chapter 25: Bleeding and Shock

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Sample Questions

Q1) Cold is sometimes used to help control bleeding.When using cold,the following guidelines and statements are true except:

A) it should not be used alone but rather in conjunction with other manual techniques.

B) it should be applied directly to the skin; it will not be effective if anything is between the cold agent and the wound.

C) it should not be left in place for more than 20 minutes.

D) it will reduce pain.

Q2) External bleeding may be classified according to types.Which one of the following is one of those types?

A) Cardiac bleeding

B) Brain bleeding

C) Capillary bleeding

D) Liver bleeding

Q3) Which of the following blood vessels CANNOT stop bleeding by constricting?

A) Arteries

B) Capillaries

C) Venules

D) Arterioles

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Chapter 26: Soft-Tissue Trauma

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Sample Questions

Q1) According to the rule of nines for infants and young children,the patient's head and neck account for what percentage of the total body surface area?

A) 13.5%

B) 14%

C) 9%

D) 18%

Q2) Your patient is a 35-year-old female who spilled a cup of hot coffee on herself.She has an area about twice the size of the palm of her hand on her right thigh that is red and painful,but without blisters.When caring for this injury in the prehospital setting,which of the following is appropriate?

A) Apply an antibiotic ointment.

B) Apply a lotion containing a topical anesthetic and aloe vera.

C) Apply a plastic bag full of ice to the skin.

D) Apply a dry sterile dressing.

Q3) Which of the following is NOT a major function of the skin?

A) Excretion of wastes

B) Protection from the environment

C) Temperature regulation

D) Regulates the pH balance of the body

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Page 28

Chapter 27: Chest and Abdominal Trauma

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Sample Questions

Q1) The pathophysiology of ________ is one in which the pericardial sac fills with blood to the point where the chambers of the heart no longer fill adequately,usually secondary to trauma.

A) pericardial effusion

B) hemopneumothorax

C) cardiac tamponade

D) commotio cordis

Q2) You are palpating the abdomen of a motor vehicle collision patient when you feel a pulsing mass.You should:

A) defer further abdominal palpation.

B) ask your partner to verify your findings.

C) bind the abdomen with an elastic bandage.

D) apply cold packs to the abdomen.

Q3) Which of the following is required in the management of all open soft-tissue injuries?

A) Provision of high-concentration oxygen to the patient

B) The use of Standard Precautions by the EMT

C) Cervical spine precautions

D) Application of a disinfectant solution during clean-up

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Chapter 28: Musculoskeletal Trauma

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Sample Questions

Q1) Your patient is a 3-year-old girl who is unable to move her elbow after her mother picked her up by the forearm.Proper splinting of this injury would be to immobilize from the ________ to the ________.

A) wrist; elbow

B) wrist; shoulder

C) forearm; humerus

D) fingertips; shoulder

Q2) Which of the following bones is found in the chest?

A) Tarsals

B) Ilium

C) Sternum

D) Metacarpals

Q3) Which of the following statements is NOT true concerning a pelvic wrap?

A) It can be used if the pelvis shows deformity.

B) It can be used if the pelvis shows instability.

C) It should not be used unless the patient shows signs of shock.

D) You can consider its use based on mechanism of injury (MOI).

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Chapter 29: Trauma to the Head, neck, and Spine

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following is the correct sequence for securing the straps on a long spine board?

A) Legs, torso, head

B) Head, torso, legs

C) Torso, legs, head

D) Head, legs, torso

Q2) Which of the following is a function of the autonomic nervous system?

A) Speaking

B) Running or walking

C) Constriction of blood vessels

D) Solving complex math problems

Q3) You are treating a 54-year-old female patient who was involved in a domestic dispute; you notice an abrasion to the side of her head.The patient is unresponsive with a blood pressure of 200/110,a pulse of 60 beats per minute,and slightly irregular breathing.The patient's presentation is most likely caused by which of the following?

A) Increased intracranial pressure

B) Coup-contrecoup injury

C) Closed head injury

D) Increased arterial pressure

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Page 31

Chapter 30: Multisystem Trauma

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35 Verified Questions

35 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/32065

Sample Questions

Q1) You respond to a 32-year-old male who fell 20 feet off a ladder.He is responsive to painful stimuli.He has snoring respirations at 20 a minute with decent chest rise and fall.He has a broken femur,a broken wrist,and a lacerated radial artery that is bleeding profusely.Which of these injuries is the highest priority?

A) Arterial bleed

B) Snoring respirations

C) Broken wrist

D) Femur fracture

Q2) What is the definition of multisystem trauma?

A) Multiple injuries that affect more than one body system

B) Trauma in which the patient has more than one serious injury

C) A trauma in which there are multiple casualties

D) A trauma that requires the response of multiple agencies

Q3) What is the definition of multiple trauma?

A) A trauma in which the patient has more than one serious injury.

B) A trauma in which there are multiple casualties.

C) A trauma that requires the response of multiple agencies.

D) Multiple injuries that affect more than one body system.

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32

Chapter 31: Environmental Emergencies

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69 Verified Questions

69 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/32066

Sample Questions

Q1) Who is the most susceptible to hypothermia?

A) 21-year-old near-drowning patient on a warm spring day

B) 55-year-old male patient who sprained his knee snow skiing

C) 76-year-old male patient involved in a vehicle accident on icy roads

D) 80-year-old male patient on the ground who slipped and has a hip fracture

Q2) The technique for central rewarming requires the application of heat to which of the following areas of the patient's body?

A) Chest, back, neck, and armpits

B) Lateral chest, neck, armpits, and groin

C) Head, neck, chest, and back

D) Head, neck, chest, and groin

Q3) Which of the following terms describes the temperature of the surrounding air?

A) Wind chill index

B) Shell temperature

C) Core temperature

D) Ambient temperature

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Chapter 32: Obstetric and Gynecologic Emergencies

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70 Verified Questions

70 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/32067

Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following BEST describes placenta previa?

A) The placenta prematurely separates from the uterine wall.

B) The pregnancy is lost before the 20th week of gestation.

C) The umbilical cord is the presenting part.

D) The placenta is implanted over the opening of the cervix.

Q2) When performing chest compressions on a pregnant patient that has gone into cardiac arrest,what change do you need to make in the placement of your hands?

A) 0.5 to 1 inch lower on the sternum

B) 0.5 to 1 inch higher on the sternum

C) 1 to 2 inches lower on the sternum

D) 1 to 2 inches higher on the sternum

Q3) You have been called for a 32-year-old female who is in active labor.During your assessment and interview,you note that she is 37 weeks along,this is her first child,and her contractions are 5 minutes apart.She also tells you that her pregnancy is considered "high risk." Your first concern should be:

A) assembling your delivery kit.

B) calling for a back-up unit.

C) getting to the hospital.

D) preparing for the delivery.

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Page 34

Chapter 33: Pediatric Emergencies

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65 Verified Questions

65 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/32068

Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following should increase your suspicion of child abuse?

A) Indications of alcohol and/or drug abuse in the home

B) Improperly healed fractures, resulting in deformity of extremities

C) Bruises on the back and/or buttocks in various stages of healing

D) All of the above

Q2) Your patient is a 11-month-old male who began choking while his babysitter was feeding him some sliced peaches.The child has retractions of his intercostal muscles,is drowsy,and is grayish in color.Which of the following is the BEST intervention for this patient?

A) Use of a flow-restricted oxygen-powered ventilation device (FROPVD)

B) Back slaps and chest thrusts

C) Abdominal thrusts

D) Blow-by oxygen at 10 to 15 liters per minute

Q3) Which of the following is NOT a cause of altered mental status in the pediatric patient?

A) Traumatic brain injury

B) Diabetes

C) Dementia

D) Infection

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Page 35

Chapter 34: Geriatric Emergencies

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37 Verified Questions

37 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/32069

Sample Questions

Q1) Upon your arrival for a medical call at a private residence,you find an elderly male patient complaining of difficulty breathing.Which of the following findings would provide you with the most valuable information about potential problems this patient may be experiencing?

A) Temperature in the house

B) Patient's positioning on the couch

C) Patient's mental status

D) Patient's vital signs

Q2) Which of the following is a serious complication of a fall with chest injuries suffered by a 75-year-old male?

A) Pneumonia

B) Bruised ribs

C) Blood clots

D) Collapsed lungs

Q3) Which of the following groups is MOST likely to be successful in a suicide attempt?

A) Middle-aged men

B) Young women

C) Teenagers

D) Elderly men

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Page 36

Chapter 35: Emergencies for Patients With Special Challenges

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39 Verified Questions

39 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/32070

Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following is the easiest way for an EMT to communicate with a patient with drastic hearing loss?

A) Slow down your speech so that the patient can read your lips.

B) Write your questions using paper and pen.

C) Use a TDD/TYY telephone.

D) Speak loudly and directly into the patient's ear.

Q2) Which of the following BEST describes a disease such as deafness?

A) Acquired disease

B) Congenital disease

C) Either a congenital or acquired disease

D) Neither a congenital nor acquired disease

Q3) Assessing blood pressure on a patient with an AV shunt,fistula,or graft could lead to which of the following?

A) Inaccurate blood pressure readings

B) Uncontrollable hemorrhage in the extremity

C) Damage to the AV shunt, fistula, or graft, requiring surgery

D) Nothing, as there is no need to avoid assessing blood pressure in a patient's arm with an AV fistula, shunt, or graft.

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Chapter 36: Ems Operations

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48 Verified Questions

48 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/32071

Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following contributes MOST significantly to the occurrence of ambulance crashes?

A) Time of day

B) Size of the vehicle

C) Speed of the vehicle

D) Weather conditions

Q2) When deciding whether or not to drive to the hospital with lights and siren activated for any patient,the driver should consider:

A) the patient's past medical history.

B) potential risks of making the patient's condition worse.

C) the patient's preference for lights and siren.

D) how many calls are waiting for an available ambulance.

Q3) Occlusive dressings must be carried on an ambulance to treat which of the following injuries?

A) Amputations

B) Tension pneumothorax

C) Impaled object in the eye

D) Open pneumothorax

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Chapter 37: Hazardous Materials, multiple-Casualty

Incidents,

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64 Verified Questions

64 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/32072

Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following is NOT a mechanism of decontamination from hazardous materials?

A) Disinfecting

B) Disposing

C) Deodorizing

D) Emulsifying

Q2) Which of the following is a principle of effective Incident Command?

A) Command is most effective when one person is responsible for not more than 6 other people.

B) The command location must not be revealed to anyone on the scene.

C) Police, fire, and EMS must establish separate command locations.

D) None of the above

Q3) You are beginning triage at the scene of a mass-casualty incident in which a commuter train has derailed.Which of the following should you do first?

A) Do a quick pulse check on all patients at the scene.

B) Identify all Priority 1 patients.

C) Announce that everyone who can get up and walk needs to go to the parking lot of a nearby building.

D) Check the airway status of all patients who do not appear to be moving.

Page 39

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Chapter 38: Highway Safety and Vehicle Extrication

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57 Verified Questions

57 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/32073

Sample Questions

Q1) When attempting to extinguish a fire inside the passenger compartment,it is important to:

A) use the extinguishing agent sparingly to avoid creating a cloud of powder.

B) apply the extinguishing agent liberally to speed up the extinguishing process.

C) aim the nozzle of the extinguisher away from the patient to avoid hitting the patient.

D) resist the urge to extinguish the fire and focus on extricating any patients.

Q2) You are assessing a patient in the front seat of a vehicle that was involved in a head-on collision.As you examine the interior of the vehicle,you notice the air bags have not deployed.What action should you take in order to render the scene safe to work?

A) Disconnect the battery and wait 2 minutes before entering the vehicle.

B) Disconnect the battery and continue assessing the patient.

C) Turn the ignition to the "off" position and wait 2 minutes before entering the vehicle.

D) Use a long spine board to shield yourself from the undeployed air bag.

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Chapter 39: Ems Response to Terrorism

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39 Verified Questions

39 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/32074

Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following is a type of chemical weapon?

A) Bacterial toxin

B) Bomb containing radioactive material

C) Vesicants

D) Plastic explosives

Q2) Which of the following is a consideration when responding to a terrorist incident?

A) Presence of mass casualties

B) Crime scene considerations

C) Presence of booby traps such as secondary explosive devices

D) All of the above

Q3) Which of the following features increases the appeal of an infectious agent for use in terrorist attacks?

A) Low virulence

B) Instability

C) High infectivity

D) Low potency

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