Paramedic Science Test Bank
Course Introduction
Paramedic Science is an interdisciplinary course designed to equip students with the essential knowledge, practical skills, and critical thinking needed for a career in emergency medical services. The curriculum covers human anatomy and physiology, advanced life support techniques, trauma care, pharmacology, and the management of medical emergencies. Students will learn to assess, diagnose, and treat patients in pre-hospital settings, using evidence-based practices and adhering to current professional standards. Through a blend of classroom instruction, simulation labs, and clinical placements, the course prepares graduates for the diverse challenges faced by paramedics, emphasizing teamwork, communication, and compassionate patient care in high-pressure environments.
Recommended Textbook
Goulds Pathophysiology for the Health Professions 5th Edition by VanMeter
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28 Chapters
1204 Verified Questions
1204 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/176
Page 2
Chapter 1: Introduction to Pathophysiology
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36 Verified Questions
36 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2430
Sample Questions
Q1) The term prognosis refers to the:
A) period of recovery and return to a normal state.
B) expected outcome of the disease.
C) mortality and morbidity rates for a given population.
D) typical collection of signs and symptoms.
Answer: B
Q2) The best definition of the term prognosis is the:
A) precipitating factors causing an acute episode.
B) number of remissions to be expected during the course of a chronic illness.
C) predicted outcome or likelihood of recovery from a specific disease.
D) exacerbations occurring during chronic illness.
Answer: C
Q3) Rigorous weight lifting/body building regimens may result in the skeletal muscle cells undergoing:
A) hypertrophy.
B) dysplasia.
C) atrophy.
D) regeneration.
Answer: A
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Fluid, Electrolyte, and Acid-Base Imbalances
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50 Verified Questions
50 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2431
Sample Questions
Q1) Compensation for respiratory system depression due to anesthesia and sedation would be:
A) decreased reabsorption of bicarbonate ions in the kidneys.
B) increased secretion of hydrogen ions into the filtrate.
C) increased respiratory rate and depth.
D) increased renin secretion.
Answer: B
Q2) Which of the following terms refers to a combination of decreased circulating blood volume combined with excess fluid in a body cavity?
A) Dehydration
B) Third-spacing
C) Hypovolemia
D) Water retention
Answer: B
Q3) Which of the following is a common effect of both hypokalemia and hyperkalemia?
A) Skeletal muscle twitch and cramps
B) Oliguria
C) Elevated serum pH
D) Cardiac arrhythmias
Answer: D
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Chapter 3: Introduction to Basic Pharmacology and Other Common Therapies
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16 Verified Questions
16 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the unique, simple, and official name assigned to a specific drug for worldwide use?
A) Trade name
B) Chemical name
C) Proprietary name
D) Generic name
Answer: D
Q2) Ingesting a drug with a large meal may be likely to:
A) immediately increase the blood level of the drug.
B) prevent gastric irritation.
C) ensure that the total dose is absorbed into the blood.
D) cause more rapid excretion of the drug.
Answer: B
Q3) Which of the following are considered to be the toxic effects of a drug?
A) Additional, mild, unwanted effects
B) Unusual, unexpected mild effects
C) Serious, possibly life-threatening effects
D) Reduction of the allergic response
Answer: C
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Chapter 4: Pain
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Pain that is caused by trauma or disease involving the peripheral nerves is referred to as:
A) neuropathic pain.
B) central pain.
C) neurogenic pain.
D) referred pain.
Q2) What is a common analgesic administered to control a moderate level of pain?
A) Meperidine
B) Acetaminophen
C) Codeine
D) Ibuprofen
Q3) Which of the following applies to spinal anesthesia?
A) It causes analgesia with loss of consciousness.
B) The drug is injected into cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) or the epidural space of the spinal cord.
C) The drug stimulates release of endorphins in the spinal cord.
D) The transmission of pain impulses is blocked in a small area of the body.
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Chapter 5: Inflammation and Healing
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61 Verified Questions
61 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which chemical mediator is involved in prolonging the inflammatory response?
A) Bradykinin
B) Histamine
C) Leukotrienes
D) Chemotactic factors
Q2) Systemic effects of severe inflammation include:
A) erythema and warmth.
B) loss of movement at the affected joint.
C) fatigue, anorexia, and mild fever.
D) abscess formation.
Q3) Which of the following statements applies to fever?
A) Viral infection is usually present.
B) Heat-loss mechanisms have been stimulated.
C) It is caused by a signal to the thalamus.
D) It results from release of pyrogens into the circulation.
Q4) Edema associated with inflammation results directly from:
A) increased fluid and protein in the interstitial compartment.
B) increased phagocytes in the affected area.
C) decreased capillary permeability.
D) general vasoconstriction.
Page 7
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Chapter 6: Infection
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48 Verified Questions
48 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a local sign of infection?
A) Fever and leukocytosis
B) Headache and anorexia
C) Pain, erythema, and swelling
D) Nausea, weight loss, and fatigue
Q2) Opportunistic infection may develop when:
A) pathogens enter the body but cannot colonize the site of entry.
B) an imbalance occurs in the normal resident flora.
C) host resistance increases, and the balance of resident flora is restored.
D) contaminated food or water is unknowingly ingested.
Q3) Which statement applies to yeasts?
A) They are usually considered to be pathogenic.
B) They seldom contain a distinct nucleus.
C) They may cause opportunistic infection in the body.
D) They are normally not found in large numbers in resident flora.
Q4) Entamoeba histolytica is transmitted by which of the following?
A) Mosquitoes (bites)
B) Inhaling contaminated particles
C) Sexual intercourse
D) Cysts in feces
Page 8
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Chapter 7: Immunity
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35 Verified Questions
35 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A secondary immune response differs from the primary immune response in that:
A) it is more rapid than the primary response and results in higher antibody levels.
B) it is slower than the primary response and doesn't change the antibody levels.
C) it occurs at the same time as the primary response but results in a decrease in antibodies.
D) it only occurs in hyperallergic reactions and results in a decrease of antibodies.
Q2) The most common cause of death in patients who have AIDS is:
A) HIV encephalopathy.
B) tuberculosis.
C) Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia.
D) Candida infection.
Q3) Systemic lupus erythematosus is caused by:
A) a chronic allergic condition.
B) development of an immune-deficient state.
C) a deficiency of T lymphocytes.
D) immune complex deposits of antinuclear antibodies.
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9
Chapter 8: Skin Disorders
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The cause of contact dermatitis can often be identified by:
A) using a culture and sensitivity test on the exudate.
B) checking the frequency of the exacerbations.
C) noting the location and size of the lesion.
D) the type of pain associated with the lesion.
Q2) Which of the following skin lesions are usually caused by Staphylococcus aureus?
A) Furuncles
B) Verrucae
C) Scabies
D) Tinea
Q3) Why do secondary infections frequently develop in pruritic lesions?
A) Loss of protective sebum
B) Entry of resident flora while scratching the lesion
C) Blockage of sebaceous glands
D) Increased sweat production
Q4) Choose the correct match of the skin condition and its usual location.
A) Scabies-fingers, wrists, waist
B) Impetigo-legs, feet
C) Pediculosis humanus corporis-scalp
D) Seborrheic keratosis-feet, hands
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Chapter 9: Musculoskeletal Disorders
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46 Verified Questions
46 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following cells produce new bone?
A) Osteocytes
B) Osteoblasts
C) Osteoclasts
D) Stem cells from the bone marrow
Q2) Which of the following statements does NOT apply to osteoporosis?
A) Bone resorption is greater than bone formation.
B) It causes compression fractures of the vertebrae.
C) Osteoporosis is always a primary disorder.
D) It often leads to kyphosis and loss of height.
Q3) Paget's disease often leads to which of the following?
A) A reduction in bone fractures
B) Decreased intracranial pressure
C) Cardiovascular disease
D) Disintegration of joint cartilage
Q4) What is a typical characteristic of the pain caused by osteoarthritis?
A) Decreases over time
B) Quite severe in the early stages
C) Aggravated by general muscle aching
D) Increased with weight-bearing and activity
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Chapter 10: Blood and Circulatory System Disorders
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49 Verified Questions
49 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2439
Sample Questions
Q1) Chronic blood loss causes anemia because of the:
A) shortened life span of the erythrocytes.
B) lower metabolic rate.
C) loss of protein and electrolytes.
D) smaller amount of recycled iron available.
Q2) Leukemia is sometimes linked to chromosome abnormalities, as evidenced by:
A) the presence of Philadelphia chromosome translocation in cases of acute myelogenous leukemia (AML).
B) very low incidence in persons with Down syndrome.
C) little evidence of familial incidence.
D) transmission as a recessive gene.
Q3) What is the cause of sickle cell anemia?
A) A defective gene inherited from both parents
B) A chronic bacterial infection
C) Bone marrow depression
D) An autoimmune reaction
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Chapter 11: Lymphatic System Disorders
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10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2440
Sample Questions
Q1) A rare illness that involves the overgrowth of lymphoid tissue, although not itself considered a cancer is:
A) Castleman disease.
B) hyperlymphatic disease.
C) hypolymphatic disease.
D) Ann Arbor disease.
Q2) The function of the hormones secreted by the thymus gland is to:
A) break down old erythrocytes and recycle the hemoglobin.
B) concentrate the lymph and filter out toxins.
C) stimulate lymph production.
D) enable lymphocytes to develop into mature T cells.
Q3) Malignant neoplasms involving lymphocyte proliferation in the lymph nodes are called:
A) lymphomas
B) myelomas
C) lymphocytomas
D) lymphedemas
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Chapter 12: Cardiovascular System Disorders
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105 Verified Questions
105 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2441
Sample Questions
Q1) Which change results from total heart block?
A) A prolonged PR interval
B) Periodic omission of a ventricular contraction
C) A wide QRS wave
D) Spontaneous slow ventricular contractions, not coordinated with atrial contraction
Q2) The basic pathophysiology of myocardial infarction is best described as:
A) cardiac output that is insufficient to meet the needs of the heart and body.
B) temporary vasospasm that occurs in a coronary artery.
C) total obstruction of a coronary artery, which causes myocardial necrosis.
D) irregular heart rate and force, reducing blood supply to coronary arteries.
Q3) A drug taken in small doses on a continuing basis to reduce platelet adhesion is:
A) acetylsalicylic acid (ASA).
B) streptokinase.
C) acetaminophen.
D) heparin.
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Chapter 13: Respiratory System Disorders
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103 Verified Questions
103 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2442
Sample Questions
Q1) In addition to effects on the lungs and pancreas, cystic fibrosis results in:
A) excess bile production.
B) high sodium chloride content in saliva and sweat.
C) gastric ulcers.
D) frequent ear and sinus infections.
Q2) Which of the following is a common source of a pulmonary embolus?
A) Mural thrombus from the left ventricle
B) Thrombus attached to atheromas in the aorta or iliac arteries
C) Thrombus forming in the femoral veins
D) A blood clot in the pulmonary vein
Q3) Which of the following activities does NOT require muscle contractions and energy?
A) Quiet inspiration
B) Forced inspiration
C) Quiet expiration
D) Forced expiration
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Chapter 14: Neurological Disorders
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105 Verified Questions
105 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2443
Sample Questions
Q1) Which statement best describes herniation resulting from increased intracranial pressure?
A) Movement of brain tissue into ventricles
B) Movement of brain stem upward
C) Pushing of excess CSF and blood down around the spinal cord
D) Displacement of brain tissue downward toward the spinal cord
Q2) Which of the following applies to cerebral palsy?
A) Nonprogressive brain damage to the fetus or neonate
B) A genetic defect affecting metabolism and causing degeneration in the neurons
C) A developmental error during early growth of the peripheral nervous system
D) A chromosomal defect resulting in abnormalities in many body structures
Q3) Following a spinal injury at C5, what is the expected effect during the period of spinal shock?
A) Spastic paralysis below the level of the injury
B) Urinary incontinence
C) Possible periods of apnea
D) Normal blood pressure
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16
Chapter 15: Disorders of the Eye, Ear, and Other Sensory Organs
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32 Verified Questions
32 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2444
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is an example of conduction deafness?
A) Damage to the organ of Corti
B) Degeneration of cranial nerve VIII
C) Adhesions reducing the movement of the ossicles
D) Trauma affecting the temporal lobe
Q2) Narrow-angle glaucoma develops when the angle is decreased between the:
A) retina and ciliary process.
B) lens and ciliary body.
C) iris and cornea.
D) iris and lens.
Q3) Which of the statements apply to infection of the eye by Staphylococcus aureus?
1) It involves the conjunctiva.
2) It is highly contagious.
3) It is commonly known as "pinkeye."
4) It usually causes keratitis and permanent visual loss.
A) 1, 3
B) 2, 3
C) 2, 4
D) 1, 2, 3
Page 17
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Chapter 16: Endocrine System Disorders
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65 Verified Questions
65 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the most common cause of type 1 diabetes mellitus?
A) Increased glucose production in the liver
B) Destruction of pancreatic cells by an autoimmune reaction
C) Increased resistance of body cells to insulin action
D) Chronic obesity
Q2) Which of the following is caused by Graves' disease?
A) Hypermetabolism
B) Decreased size of thyroid gland
C) Bradycardia and hypothermia
D) Decreased blood levels of T<sub>3</sub>, T<sub>4</sub>, and TSH
Q3) Complications of diabetes mellitus include:
A) peripheral neuropathy.
B) frequent infections.
C) cataracts.
D) A, B, and C.
Q4) Which of the following conditions may cause immunosuppression?
A) Graves' disease
B) Acromegaly
C) Cushing's disease
D) Diabetes insipidus
18
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Chapter 17: Digestive System Disorders
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109 Verified Questions
109 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) How does iron deficiency anemia frequently develop with ulcerative colitis?
A) Loss of surface area for absorption in the ileum
B) Bone marrow depression by toxic wastes
C) Chronic blood loss in stools
D) Insufficient hydrochloric acid for iron absorption
Q2) What is a common cause of gastroenteritis due to Salmonella?
A) Unrefrigerated custards or salad dressings
B) Poorly canned foods
C) Raw or undercooked poultry or eggs
D) Contaminated water
Q3) What does the defecation reflex require?
A) Stimulation by the sympathetic nervous system
B) Contraction of the internal anal sphincter
C) Coordination through the sacral spinal cord
D) Voluntary relaxation of pelvic muscles
Q4) What is a common sign of acute gastritis?
A) Colicky right upper quadrant pain
B) Vomiting and anorexia
C) Projectile vomiting after eating
D) Diarrhea with abdominal distention
Page 19
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Chapter 18: Urinary System Disorders
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70 Verified Questions
70 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the primary reason for hypocalcemia developing during end-stage renal failure or uremia?
A) Decreased parathyroid hormone secretion
B) Insufficient calcium in the diet
C) Excessive excretion of calcium ions in the urine
D) A deficit of activated vitamin D and hyperphosphatemia
Q2) Why may acute pyelonephritis and cystitis follow untreated prostatitis?
A) Microbes spread through the circulation.
B) Antibodies have not yet formed.
C) There is no effective treatment.
D) There is a continuous mucosa along the involved structures.
Q3) Which substance directly controls the reabsorption of water from the collecting ducts?
A) Renin
B) Aldosterone
C) Angiotensin
D) Antidiuretic hormone
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Chapter 19: Reproductive System Disorders
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45 Verified Questions
45 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why does frequent need for urination occur with benign prostatic hypertrophy?
A) Increased volume of dilute urine
B) Irritation of the bladder and urethra
C) Impaired micturition reflex
D) Incomplete emptying of the bladder
Q2) Which sexually transmitted infection(s) is/are usually considered asymptomatic in women?
A) Chlamydia
B) Gonorrhea
C) Syphilis
D) All of the above
Q3) A hard nodule in the peripheral area of the prostate gland is typical of:
A) prostatic cancer.
B) benign prostatic hypertrophy.
C) acute prostatitis.
D) chronic prostatitis.
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Chapter 20: Neoplasms and Cancer
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Sample Questions
Q1) One reason for staging a malignant tumor at the time of diagnosis is to:
A) identify the original cell from which the tumor developed.
B) locate and identify the primary tumor.
C) decide the initiating factor for a particular tumor.
D) determine the best treatment and prognosis.
Q2) Which of the following does paraneoplastic syndrome refer to?
A) The effects of substances such as hormones secreted by the tumor cells
B) Severe weight loss and cachexia associated with advanced cancer
C) The decreased resistance to infection resulting from malignant tumors
D) The effects of multiple metastatic tumors
Q3) What type of normal cells are often damaged during chemotherapy and radiation treatments?
A) Epithelial cells
B) Skeletal muscle cells
C) Nerve tissue
D) Collagen and fibrous tissue
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22
Chapter 21: Congenital and Genetic Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements applies to Huntington's disease?
A) The effects are obvious at birth.
B) There is a test for the defective gene.
C) There is a 50% probability that the child of an affected parent will be a carrier.
D) The child must inherit the defective gene from both parents in order to be affected.
Q2) What is the term for an arrangement of the chromosomes from an individual's cell, organized in pairs based on size and shape?
A) Pedigree
B) Punnett squares
C) Karyotype
D) Genotype
Q3) Which of the following statements applies to the sex chromosomes?
A) They are identified as XY in the female.
B) They are numbered pair 23 in the karyotype.
C) They contain the same genes as in the other pairs of chromosomes.
D) They are found only in the cells in the gonads (the ovaries and the testes).
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Chapter 22: Complications due to Pregnancy
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Sample Questions
Q1) Adolescent pregnancy is often considered high risk because of:
A) inadequate prenatal care.
B) poor nutrition and lack of vitamin supplements.
C) iron deficiency anemia.
D) All of the above
Q2) Which of the following indicates development of pregnancy-induced hypertension?
A) Proteinuria, edema, and weight gain
B) Persistent blood pressure measuring above 140/90
C) Vaginal bleeding
D) Blood clots forming in the legs
Q3) Which of the following is a serious potential complication of abruptio placentae indicated by low serum levels of clotting factors?
A) Severe hypertension
B) Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)
C) Jaundice
D) Thromboembolism
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Chapter 23: Complications due to Adolescence
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Sample Questions
Q1) How is scoliosis identified?
A) Bowed or hunched-over position of head and shoulders
B) Unevenly aligned hips and shoulders
C) A swayback posture
D) One arm and leg shorter than the other
Q2) Infectious mononucleosis can be diagnosed by the presence of:
A) sore throat, fever, and lymphadenopathy.
B) abnormal lymphocytes and positive antibody test.
C) the causative bacteria in the saliva.
D) extreme fatigue and malaise.
Q3) The biological changes associated with adolescence are stimulated primarily by:
A) the peripheral nervous system.
B) the thalamus.
C) increased secretion of estrogen and progesterone.
D) the pituitary gland.
Q4) What is a lateral curvature of the spine called?
A) Lordosis
B) Kyphosis
C) Scoliosis
D) Kyphoscoliosis
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Chapter 24: Complications due to Aging
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Sample Questions
Q1) Lung expansion in the elderly may be reduced because of decreased:
1) tissue elasticity.
2) rib mobility.
3) control by the respiratory center.
4) skeletal muscle strength.
A) 1, 3
B) 1, 4
C) 2, 3, 4
D) 1, 2, 4
Q2) Which of the following factors lead to delayed wound healing in the elderly?
1) Reduced rate of mitosis
2) Inadequate circulation
3) High risk of infection
4) More effective immune system
A) 1, 2
B) 1, 3
C) 2, 4
D) 1, 2, 3
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Chapter 25: Immobility and Associated Problems
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Sample Questions
Q1) Prolonged immobility may predispose to ___________ in the kidneys.
A) urinary stasis
B) renal calculi
C) infection
D) All of the above
Q2) Bladder infections are more likely to develop in immobilized patients because of:
A) stasis of urine in the urinary system.
B) development of hypocalcemia with immobility.
C) fluid overload in the system.
D) lack of neurological control of the bladder.
Q3) Which of the following frequently causes decubitus ulcers?
A) Infection by resident flora
B) Ischemia at pressure points
C) Normal degenerative changes
D) Allergic reaction to adhesive tape or dressings
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Chapter 26: Stress and Associated Problems
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Sample Questions
Q1) Possible complications caused by prolonged, severe stress include all of the following EXCEPT:
A) hypertension.
B) tension headache.
C) diabetes mellitus.
D) blindness.
Q2) In which of the following situations would the stress response be used to prevent blood pressure from dropping too low?
A) Increasing anger during an argument
B) Writing a final examination
C) Fear about a medical diagnosis
D) Internal hemorrhage from injuries in a car accident
Q3) Which of the following may alter a person's perception of a stressor?
A) The presence of several stressors at the same time
B) Past experiences
C) Lack of effective coping mechanisms
D) A, B, and C
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28
Chapter 27: Substance Abuse and Associated Problems
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a synthetic opioid that prevents withdrawal symptoms and improves function?
A) Antabuse
B) Methadone
C) Cocaine
D) Diazepam
Q2) Chronic alcoholism is likely to cause all of the following EXCEPT:
A) cirrhosis.
B) mental confusion.
C) loss of motor coordination.
D) altered personality and amnesia.
E) respiratory failure.
Q3) What is a common indication of substance abuse?
A) Behavioral change
B) Weight gain
C) Depression
D) Loss of sensory function
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Chapter 28: Environmental Hazards and Associated Problems
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Sample Questions
Q1) Bites from both wild and domesticated animals may cause:
A) anaphylaxis.
B) Shigella outbreaks.
C) rabies.
D) severe pain and headache.
Q2) During the development of hyperthermia, the state of heat exhaustion is indicated when:
A) body core temperature is very high.
B) skeletal muscle spasms occur.
C) hypovolemia and fainting occur.
D) the cool-down process is too rapid.
Q3) Which of the following types of cells are most likely to be damaged by exposure to radiation?
A) Bone and cartilage
B) Skeletal and smooth muscle
C) Peripheral and central neurons
D) Epithelial tissue and bone marrow
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Page 30