Paramedic Anatomy and Physiology Study Guide
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Course Introduction
Paramedic Anatomy and Physiology provides an in-depth exploration of the structural and functional organization of the human body as it relates to pre-hospital emergency care. This course covers essential anatomical systems including cardiovascular, respiratory, nervous, musculoskeletal, and integumentary systems while emphasizing their physiological processes and relevance to paramedic practice. Through a combination of lectures, labs, and case studies, students will gain a foundational understanding of how these systems interact in both healthy and pathological states, enabling effective assessment and intervention during emergency situations.
Recommended Textbook
Holes Human Anatomy Physiology 13th Edition by David Shier
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2278 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Introduction to Human Anatomy and Physiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) The most abundant substance in the human body is _____. Answer: water
Q2) Paired organs,such as the kidneys or lungs,are said to be A)bisexual.
B)bilingual.
C)bilateral.
D)bivalent.
Answer: C
Q3) The branch of science that deals with the structure of human body parts is called _____.
Answer: anatomy
Q4) The anatomical position is lying down,as a cadaver would be positioned. A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q5) The maintenance of a steady body temperature in the face of fluctuating environmental conditions illustrates homeostasis. A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Chapter 2: Chemical Basis of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is not organic?
A)Sodium chloride
B)Lipids
C)Nucleic acids
D)Enzymes
Answer: A
Q2) The parts of an atom that carry single negative electrical charges are called
Answer: electrons
Q3) Chemistry is the study of the composition of matter and how matter changes.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q4) A biomarker test for cancer should ideally be
A)inexpensive.
B)easy to perform.
C)specifiC.
D)all of the above.
Answer: D
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Chapter 3: Cells
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Sample Questions
Q1) Microfilaments and microtubules are part of the cytoskeleton.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) Which of the following describes a lysosome?
A)A double-membraned organelle that is the "powerhouse" of the cell
B)A complex network of interconnected membranes that is a communication system in the cell
C)A tiny,membranous sac that contains enzymes that degrade worn cell parts and debris
D)A nonmembranous structure that is essential for mitosis
Answer: C
Q3) Smooth endoplasmic reticulum has ribosomes and rough endoplasmic reticulum does not.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q4) The process by which a cell receives and responds to incoming messages is called __________ transduction.
Answer: signal
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Chapter 4: Cellular Metabolism
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Sample Questions
Q1) "Metabolism" refers to
A)the reactions in the body that synthesize proteins and nucleic acids.
B)the reactions in the body that break down proteins and nucleic acids.
C)all of the chemical reactions in a cell.
D)the breakdown of glucose molecules to release energy.
Q2) Copying DNA information into an mRNA molecule is called
A)translation.
B)synthesis.
C)replication.
D)transcription.
Q3) Which of the following is true?
A)The genome consists of entirely protein-encoding genes.
B)An amino acid encodes a gene.
C)DNA has five types of nucleotide bases.
D)Much of the genome does not encode proteins.
Q4) A peptide bond forms between
A)a tRNA and an mRNA.
B)adjacent amino acids.
C)an mRNA and an rRNA.
D)a gene and a protein.
Page 6
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Chapter 5: Tissues
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Sample Questions
Q1) Cartilage tissues are likely to be slow in healing following an injury because
A)chondrocytes cannot divide.
B)chondrocytes do not have direct blood supplies.
C)the intercellular material is semisolid.
D)cartilage cells are immersed in fluids.
Q2) The study of tissues is called ___________.
Q3) Which of the following is not true about the extracellular matrix?
A)It is the same in all tissues.
B)In epithelium it consists of a basement membrane and interstitial matrix.
C)In many body parts it includes various glycoproteins.
D)It may include integrins.
Q4) Bone cells (osteocytes)are in concentric circles around osteonic canals.
A)True
B)False
Q5) A mucus-secreting goblet cell is a unicellular gland.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Osteoblasts become osteocytes.
A)True
B)False
Page 7
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Chapter 6: Skin and the Integumentary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The deepest cells of the epidermis make up the stratum ____________.
Q2) The flexible proteins that link the cell membranes of squamous epithelial cells in skin are
A)cadherins.
B)collagens.
C)cellular adhesion molecules (CAMs).
D)keratins.
Q3) Which person is at highest risk of developing a cutaneous carcinoma?
A)a light-complexioned man age 52 who goes to the beach on summer weekends and does not use sunblock because he likes to be tan.
B)an eighty-year-old who spends most of her time indoors.
C)a twenty-two-year-old college student who is outdoors often and uses sunblock.
D)a black woman who spends most of her time in her office.
Q4) Decreased hair growth,decreased sensory receptors in the skin,and inability to regulate body temperature are all signs of ________________.
Q5) Two or more types of tissue functioning together constitute a(n)___________.
Q6) Localized redness,swelling,warmth,and pain are indicators of _________________,the normal response to injury.
Q7) The ______________ of the subcutaneous layer acts as a heat insulator.
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Chapter 7: Skeletal System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Ribs that join the sternum directly by costal cartilages are called
A)true ribs.
B)false ribs.
C)floating ribs.
D)vertebrochondral ribs.
Q2) The secondary curves of the vertebral column are the
A)cervical and lumbar curvatures.
B)cervical and thoracic curvatures.
C)thoracic and sacral curvatures.
D)lumbar and sacral curvatures.
Q3) The medullary cavity of a long bone is lined with a thin cellular layer called ______.
Q4) At what age are nearly all bones completely ossified?
A)Birth
B)5 years
C)15 years
D)25 years
Q5) Osteoclasts are bone-resorbing cells,whereas osteoblasts are bone-forming cells.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 8: Joints of the Skeletal System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Fibrocartilage discs that divide the joint into two compartments are called A)menisci.
B)bursae.
C)tendons.
D)ligaments.
Q2) Types of fibrous joints include
A)synarthrotic,amphiarthrotic,and diarthrotic joints.
B)syndesmosis,suture,and gomphosis joints.
C)synchondrosis,symphysis,and synovial joints.
D)pivot,condylar,and ellipsoidal joints.
Q3) A synchondrosis is a cartilaginous joint.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Joints are also called A)annotations.
B)articulations.
C)affectations.
D)affiliations.
Q5) Fluid-filled sacs associated with synovial joints are _______.
Q6) Moving a part backward is called ______.
Page 10
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Chapter 9: Muscular System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The structures that connect cardiac muscle cells are
A)intervertebral discs.
B)neuromuscular junctions.
C)intercalated discs.
D)motor end plates.
Q2) Myasthenia gravis is A)an autoimmune disorder.
B)a bacterial infection.
C)a form of cancer.
D)the result of injury.
Q3) Endomysium separates individual muscle fibers from each other.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Bones and muscles function as mechanical devices called A)lifts.
B)levers.
C)syncytia.
D)ladders.
Q5) A forceful,sustained muscle contraction is called a ______ ______.
Q6) Muscles that assist an agonist are called ______.
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Chapter 10: Nervous System I
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following neuroglia are not part of the CNS?
A)Ependymal cells
B)Astrocytes
C)Satellite cells
D)Microglia
Q2) The neurotransmitter most likely produced when a person uses a drug that creates a sense of well-being is
A)glutamic acid.
B)dopamine.
C)enkephalin.
D)substance Q.
Q3) Enkephalins are neuropeptides.
A)True
B)False
Q4) An action potential is triggered if
A)EPSPs overpower IPSPs.
B)IPSPs overpower EPSPs.
C)chloride channels open.
D)the membrane hyperpolarizes.
Q5) Muscles and glands that respond to nervous stimulation are called _______.
Page 12
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Chapter 11: Nervous System II
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Sample Questions
Q1) Bob witnesses an auto accident and impulses from the ___________ division of the autonomic nervous system increase his heart rate.
A)spinal
B)parasympathetic
C)sympathetic
D)cranial
Q2) Aging of the brain begins A)before birth.
B)at birth.
C)at age 30.
D)after age 50.
Q3) A traumatic brain injury (TBI)results from A)an open head wound.
B)mechanical force.
C)an infection.
D)poisoning.
Q4) Spinal nerves are grouped and named according to function.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The _________ root of a spinal nerve consists of motor neuron axons.
Page 13
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Chapter 12: Nervous System III
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Sample Questions
Q1) As they extend from the retina to the brain,the nerve fibers
A)from the nasal half of each retina cross over.
B)from the temporal half of each retina cross over.
C)all cross over.
D)do not cross over.
Q2) Taste receptors are
A)found only on the tongue.
B)unable to divide.
C)modified connective tissue cells.
D)modified epithelial cells.
Q3) Receptors for the general senses are found
A)in a few clusters.
B)only in the integumentary system.
C)widely distributed throughout the body.
D)throughout the visceral organs.
Q4) The Golgi tendon organ is stimulated more when
A)muscles are metabolically active and produce oxygen.
B)muscle tension increases.
C)muscle tension decreases.
D)muscle tension stays the same.
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Chapter 13: Endocrine System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Graves disease,the most common form of hyperthyroidism,is caused by A)a lack of iodine.
B)an excess of iodine.
C)an improper diet.
D)an autoimmune disorder.
Q2) Which of the following has both endocrine and exocrine functions?
A)Pancreas
B)Anterior pituitary
C)Liver
D)Thyroid gland
Q3) Diabetes mellitus results in A)protein in the urine.
B)urine with high osmotic pressure.
C)reduced urinary output.
D)low blood sugar.
Q4) A person who is stressed usually has increased A)activity of the spleen and other lymphatic organs.
B)number of lymphocytes in the blood.
C)resistance to infections.
D)blood pressure.
Page 15
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Chapter 14: Blood
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Sample Questions
Q1) Universal precautions are
A)specific measures that astronauts take in space to avoid leaving microorganisms beyond the Earth.
B)specific measures that health-care workers should take to prevent transmission of bloodborne pathogens in the workplace.
C)rules used to avoid mismatched blood types in transfusions.
D)the careful administration of clotting factors to stop bleeding during surgery.
Q2) What percentage of the US population is Rh negative?
A)1.5% of Caucasians and 5% of African Americans
B)5% of Caucasians and 5% of African Americans
C)15% of Caucasians and 5% of African Americans
D)25% of the total population
Q3) Plasma electrolytes include
A)bicarbonate,magnesium,chloride,and potassium ions.
B)monocytes,basophils,and eosinophils.
C)fibrinogen,globulins,and albumin.
D)urea and uric aciD.
Q4) _____________ is the term used to describe the stoppage of bleeding by any one of several means.
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Chapter 15: Cardiovascular System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The pulmonary circuit
A)sends oxygen-poor blood to the heart.
B)sends oxygen-poor blood to the tissues.
C)sends oxygen-poor blood to the lungs.
D)brings oxygen-rich blood from the tissues.
Q2) Which of the following is not a factor that increases risk of developing atherosclerosis?
A)A diet high in unsaturated fats
B)Tobacco smoking
C)Lack of physical exercise
D)Low blood pressure
Q3) Which of the following layers of the heart and their functions are correctly matched?
A)Epicardium-protective inner lining of the heart chambers and valves
B)Myocardium-cardiac muscle tissue that pumps blood out of the heart chambers
C)Endocardium-protective outer covering
D)Pericardium-protective inner lining of the heart chambers and valves
Q4) Osmotic pressure forces molecules in the blood out through capillary walls.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 16: Lymphatic System and Immunity
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Sample Questions
Q1) Plasma cells
A)increase the volume of the blood plasmA.
B)produce antibody molecules.
C)directly attack antigens.
D)produce interferon.
Q2) The cells that are primarily responsible for immunity are
A)lymphocytes and macrophages.
B)neutrophils and lymphocytes.
C)monocytes and macrophages.
D)lymphocytes and monocytes.
Q3) Lymph differs from plasma in that
A)lymph has more protein than plasmA.
B)plasma has more protein than lymph.
C)lymph is colorless and plasma is red.
D)lymph is thin and plasma is viscous.
Q4) The spleen
A)is the largest lymphatic organ.
B)contains nodules similar to lymphatic nodules.
C)contains many phagocytes.
D)all of the above.
Page 18
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Chapter 17: Digestive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Secretion of cholecystokinin from the intestinal wall is stimulated by
A)protein in the stomach.
B)protein in the small intestine.
C)fat in the stomach.
D)protein and fat in the small intestine.
Q2) The sphincter muscle located between the small intestine and the large intestine is the ______ ______.
Q3) Bile salts function like detergents in that they ___________ fat globules.
A)emulsify
B)coagulate
C)digest
D)liquefy
Q4) The epithelial cells that form the inner lining of the small intestine
A)are replaced every few days.
B)are not able to reproduce.
C)are cube-shaped.
D)remain where they are first formeD.
Q5) The _________ reflex regulates the rate at which chyme leaves the stomach.
Q6) The esophagus passes through an opening in the diaphragm called the esophageal
Page 19
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Chapter 18: Nutrition and Metabolism
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Sample Questions
Q1) Inhibition of which hormone may help in weight loss?
A)Leptin
B)Ghrelin
C)Cholecystokinin
D)Adiponectin
Q2) Cholesterol removed from the blood is excreted as a component of ______.
Q3) Dietary minerals are organic molecules.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Kwashiorkor may develop in children who have dietary deficiencies of A)carbohydrates.
B)lipids.
C)proteins.
D)fiber.
Q5) Vitamin D deficiency,especially in older people,results from lack of exposure to the sun.
A)True B)False
Q6) The most common dietary lipids are fats called ______.
Q7) Iodine is commonly added artificially to food in the form of ______ ______.
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Chapter 19: Respiratory System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Exposure to secondhand smoke increases risk of A)damage to the smooth endothelial lining of blood vessels.
B)platelet activation
C)abnormal blood clotting.
D)all of the above.
Q2) Of the respiratory air volumes listed,which one has the largest volume?
A)Expiratory reserve volume
B)Inspiratory reserve volume
C)Vital capacity
D)Tidal volume
Q3) The enzyme carbonic anhydrase causes
A)carbon dioxide to react with water.
B)carbon dioxide to react with bicarbonate ions.
C)water to react with bicarbonate ions.
D)water to react with hydrogen ions.
Q4) Air entering the potential space of the pleural cavity is called A)pneumoniA.
B)pneumothorax.
C)pulmonary ventilation.
D)internal respiration.
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Chapter 20: Urinary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following indicates the parts of a renal tubule in the correct sequence from beginning to end?
A)Proximal convoluted tubule,ascending limb of nephron loop,descending limb of nephron loop,distal convoluted tubule
B)Distal convoluted tubule,ascending limb of nephron loop,descending limb of nephron loop,proximal convoluted tubule
C)Proximal convoluted tubule,descending limb of nephron loop,ascending limb of nephron loop,distal convoluted tubule
D)Collecting duct,proximal convoluted tubule,descending limb of nephron loop,ascending limb of nephron loop,distal convoluted tubule
Q2) Aldosterone from the adrenal cortex causes sodium ions to be
A)excreted and potassium ions to be conserved.
B)excreted and potassium ions to be excreted.
C)conserved and potassium ions to be conserved.
D)conserved and potassium ions to be excreteD.
Q3) The glomerular capsule is composed of two layers of squamous epithelial cells.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 21: Water, Electrolyte, and Acid-Base Balance
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Sample Questions
Q1) Transcellular fluid includes the water and electrolytes in the A)cerebrospinal fluid.
B)aqueous and vitreous humors of the eyes.
C)synovial fluid of the joints.
D)all of the above.
Q2) Factors that alter water balance will also alter electrolyte balance.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Kidneys help to regulate acid-base balance of the blood by secreting OH<sup>-</sup>.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Edema is
A)a response to dehydration.
B)caused by hyperproteinemia.
C)abnormal accumulation of extracellular fluid.
D)caused by depressed venous pressure.
Q5) Parathyroid hormone increases phosphate reabsorption from the renal tubules.
A)True
B)False
23
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Chapter 22: Reproductive Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) The zona pellucida consists of A)glycoprotein.
B)adipose tissue.
C)epithelium.
D)nucleic aciD.
Q2) The hormone responsible for the development and maintenance of male secondary sex characteristics is A)LH.
B)FSH.
C)testosterone.
D)gonadotropin-releasing hormone.
Q3) Undifferentiated spermatogenic cells are called A)spermatogoniA.
B)primary spermatocytes.
C)secondary spermatocytes.
D)spermatids.
Q4) Chromosomes align down the center of a cell undergoing meiosis in metaphase. A)True B)False
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Chapter 23: Pregnancy, Growth, and Development
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Q1) Factors that can cause congenital malformations by affecting an embryo during its periods of rapid growth and development are called teratogens.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The adolescent period begins at the end of the first year and completes at puberty.
A)True
B)False
Q3) __________ are substances that interfere with development of an embryo,causing congenital malformations.
Q4) Postmortem sperm retrieval is useful if
A)a woman has inadvertently taken a teratogenic drug when pregnant.
B)a man is infertile.
C)a man dies after making it known he would want his sperm to be used to conceive a child.
D)a man has an incurable disease.
Q5) The period of development during which the contents of a zygote are divided into increasingly smaller cells is _____.
Q6) The process of growing old is called _____.
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Chapter 24: Genetics and Genomics
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Sample Questions
Q1) A heterozygote has identical alleles of a gene and a homozygote has different alleles.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A human male is hemizygous for genes on the X chromosome because he has two copies of that chromosome.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Cells from a woman with Turner syndrome have
A)an extra X chromosome.
B)one X and two Y chromosomes.
C)only one X chromosome.
D)no sex chromosomes.
Q4) An autosomal condition affects only males.
A)True
B)False
Q5) A multifactorial trait is determined by many environmental factors,but not necessarily genetic influences.
A)True
B)False
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