Paramedic Anatomy and Physiology
Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Paramedic Anatomy and Physiology is a foundational course designed to equip students with a comprehensive understanding of the human bodys structure and function as it relates to prehospital emergency care. The course explores the major body systems including the cardiovascular, respiratory, musculoskeletal, nervous, and endocrine systems emphasizing the anatomical features and physiological processes essential for maintaining health and life. Students will learn to apply this knowledge in the assessment and treatment of patients in emergency medical settings, preparing them to recognize normal versus abnormal findings and understand the implications for patient care in the field.
Recommended Textbook
Holes Human Anatomy and Physiology 14th Edition by David Shier
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Chapter 1: Introduction to Human Anatomy and Physiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Self-regulating control mechanisms usually operate by a process called ______ feedback.
Answer: negative
Q2) The branch of science that deals with the functions of human body parts is called ______.
Answer: physiology
Q3) A lengthwise cut that divides the body into right and left portions is termed
Answer: sagittal
Q4) Which of the following processes is most important to continuation of the human species?
A) Responsiveness
B) Movement
C) Reproduction
D) Respiration
Answer: C
Q5) Aging begins in the fetus.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Page 3
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Chapter 2: Chemical Basis of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) Synthesis reactions are particularly important in the body for A) release of energy.
B) digestion of food products.
C) growth of body parts.
D) neutralization of acids by buffers.
Answer: C
Q2) Atomic radiation is useful for treating cancer because
A) radiation affects cancer cells but not normal cells.
B) radiation protects normal cells against the effects of cancer.
C) radiation harms cancer cells more readily than it does most non-cancer cells.
D) normal cells are not affected by radiation.
Answer: C
Q3) The atomic number of an atom equals the number of ______ and the atomic weight equals the ____.
A) neutrons; number of protons
B) protons; weight of all the electrons
C) neutrons; number of protons plus electrons
D) protons; number of protons plus neutrons
Answer: D
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Cells
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following does not influence the rate of diffusion?
A) Distance
B) The concentration of the substance
C) The amount of energy available for transport molecules
D) The molecular weight of the diffusing molecules
Answer: C
Q2) Krabbe disease results from an abnormality that affects the _______ of nerve cells in the brain.
Answer: lysosomes
Q3) As a cell grows,
A) the relationship between its surface area and volume remains unchanged.
B) its surface area increases to a lesser degree than its volume.
C) its volume increases to a lesser degree than its surface area.
D) its requirement for nutrients increases to a lesser degree than its requirement for oxygen.
Answer: B
Q4) Loss of cell cycle control can cause cancer.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Page 5
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Chapter 4: Cellular Metabolism
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Sample Questions
Q1) "Anabolic metabolism" refers to
A) biochemical reactions that synthesize compounds.
B) all processes required to maintain life.
C) biochemical reactions that break down compounds.
D) biochemical reactions that release energy from nutrients.
Q2) A mutation can cause disease if
A) the DNA sequence does not change.
B) the DNA sequence changes so that one amino acid is substituted for another in a way that affects the encoded protein's functioning.
C) the DNA sequence changes so that one amino acid is substituted for another in a way that does not alter the encoded protein's functioning.
D) it attracts mutagens.
Q3) A glucose molecule is broken down into two pyruvic acid molecules in A) glycolysis.
B) the citric acid cycle.
C) gluconeogenesis.
D) the electron transport system.
Q4) A substance that causes a mutation is called a __________.
Q5) The molecule that an enzyme affects is its _________.
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Chapter 5: Tissues
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Sample Questions
Q1) Extracellular matrix consists of
A) ground substance and protein fibers.
B) fixed cells and wandering cells.
C) heparin and keratin.
D) lacunae and lamellae.
Q2) About 90% of all cancers originate from A) epithelium.
B) connective tissue.
C) muscle tissue.
D) nervous tissue.
Q3) "Cutaneous membrane" refers to A) skin.
B) bones.
C) cartilage.
D) mucus.
Q4) Which of the following is not a characteristic of nervous tissue?
A) It is found in the brain and spinal cord.
B) Some of its cells send electrochemical messages.
C) Its intercellular space is filled with collagen.
D) Its cells sense changes in their surroundings.
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Chapter 6: Integumentary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Hypothermia is elevated body temperature due to exposure to heat, and the body being unable to cool down.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Gray hair is
A) caused by a pigment, pseudomelanin.
B) a mixture of red and brown hairs.
C) a mixture of pigmented and unpigmented hairs.
D) a form of albinism.
Q3) An autograft covers an injured area of skin with
A) skin from a person other than the patient.
B) a skin substitute, such as an artificial membrane.
C) skin from a skin bank.
D) skin from an uninjured region of the patient's body.
Q4) Inflammation
A) is a type of infection.
B) is a result of exposure to very low temperatures.
C) is a normal response to stress or injury.
D) is an abnormal response to injury or stress.
Q5) The ______________ of the subcutaneous layer acts as a heat insulator.
Page 8
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Chapter 7: Skeletal System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The parietal bones meet each other along the sagittal suture.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The talus, calcaneus, navicular, cuboid, and lateral, intermediate, and cuneiform bones are all part of the A) foot.
B) hand.
C) pelvis. D) skull.
Q3) The first cervical vertebra is the axis and the second is the atlas.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Cells that remove excess bone tissue after fracture repair are A) fibroblasts and osteoblasts.
B) chondrocytes and osteocytes.
C) osteoblasts and osteoclasts.
D) osteoclasts and phagocytes.
Q5) A bone shaft is the diaphysis; the expanded parts at the ends are the epiphyses.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 8: Joints of the Skeletal System
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Sample Questions
Q1) A joint capsule is reinforced by
A) tendons binding articular ends of bones together.
B) articular cartilage cushioning ends of bones.
C) ligaments binding articular ends of bones together.
D) hyaline cartilage providing strength to the capsule walls.
Q2) Cartilagenous joints are connected by
A) synovial fluid.
B) fibrous connective tissue.
C) hyaline cartilage or fibrocartilage.
D) a joint capsule.
Q3) A synovial membrane
A) is very thick with many layers of cells.
B) secretes serous fluid.
C) secretes mucus.
D) secretes synovial fluid.
Q4) Joint capsules may be reinforced by bundles of strong, tough collagenous fibers called ______.
Q5) The basic structure of the knee joint permits flexion and extension.
A)True
B)False
10
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Chapter 9: Muscular System
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Sample Questions
Q1) A forceful, sustained muscle contraction is called a ______ ______.
Q2) The pigment responsible for the reddish brown color of skeletal muscle is ______.
Q3) Which of the following is not true?
A) Red fibers contract more slowly than white.
B) Red fibers contain more myoglobin than white.
C) Red fibers have fewer mitochondria than white.
D) Red fibers fatigue more slowly than white.
Q4) The muscle that causes an action is the
A) synergist.
B) antagonist.
C) agonist.
D) mediator.
Q5) An example of a partial but sustained contraction is
A) knee jerking.
B) muscle tone.
C) a twitch.
D) eye blinking.
Q6) The combining of a series of twitches to produce a more forceful contraction is called ______.
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Chapter 10: Nervous System I: Basic Structure and Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Dendrites on unipolar neurons are parts of
A) sensory neurons.
B) motor neurons.
C) interneurons.
D) efferent neurons.
Q2) Neural stem cells can be harvested from autopsies and stored, alive, in banks, whereas neurons cannot, because
A) people do not will them to science.
B) neural stem cells have lower oxygen and energy requirements than neurons.
C) neural stem cells have higher oxygen and energy requirements than neurons.
D) neural stem cells have more globular shapes than neurons.
Q3) Saltatory conduction
A) occurs only if the myelin sheath is continuous.
B) occurs only if nodes of Ranvier are lacking.
C) is faster than conduction on an unmyelinated fiber.
D) is slower than conduction on an unmyelinated fiber.
Q4) A mixed nerve includes different neuroglial cells.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Muscles and glands that respond to nervous stimulation are called _______.
Page 12
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Chapter 11: Nervous System II: Division of the Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The expected response to the triceps-jerk reflex is
A) flexion of the forearm.
B) extension of the forearm.
C) plantar flexion.
D) plantar extension.
Q2) Spinal nerve injury may result from
A) fracture of vertebrae, dislocations, or birth injuries.
B) too little dopamine in the basal ganglia.
C) excess acetylcholine in synapses.
D) a drug overdose.
Q3) The part of the brain that assigns value to a memory is the A) cerebral cortex.
B) amygdala.
C) medulla oblongata.
D) pons.
Q4) Aging of the brain begins
A) before birth.
B) at birth.
C) at age 30.
D) after age 50.
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Chapter 12: Nervous System III: Senses
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Sample Questions
Q1) Light is refracted when it passes
A) between media of the same optical density.
B) into glass at a right angle.
C) between media of different optical densities at a right angle.
D) between media of different optical densities at an oblique angle.
Q2) The adjustment of the thickness of the lens to make close vision possible is called
Q3) Receptors that are stimulated by changes in chemical concentrations are called thermoreceptors.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Otosclerosis affects the
A) tympanic membrane.
B) auditory ossicles.
C) cochlea.
D) auditory nerve.
Q5) The taste of food is the same, whether a person has a respiratory infection or not.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 13: Endocrine System
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Sample Questions
Q1) One of the hallmarks of Graves disease is
A) weight gain.
B) increased thirst.
C) decreased appetite.
D) goiter.
Q2) The blood concentration of growth hormone
A) rises in females after menopause.
B) varies greatly in males during adulthood.
C) drops at puberty and rises after adolescence.
D) rises at puberty and levels off after adolescence.
Q3) Cells of the adrenal medulla are closely associated with preganglionic fibers of the parasympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system.
A)True
B)False
Q4) All hormones are
A) steroids.
B) proteins.
C) inorganic compounds.
D) organic compounds.
Q5) Calcitonin is produced in the ______ gland.
Page 15
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Chapter 14: Blood
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Sample Questions
Q1) Normally the most common type of leukocyte in a blood sample is the
Q2) The normal white blood cell count is
A) 500-1,000 cells per microliter of blood.
B) 4,500-10,000 cells per microliter of blood.
C) 45,000-100,000 cells per microliter of blood.
D) 5,000,000-10,000,000 cells per microliter of blood.
Q3) As a result of starvation or a protein-deficient diet, blood protein concentration
A) increases and water accumulates in tissue spaces.
B) decreases and water accumulates in tissue spaces.
C) increases and water accumulates in cells.
D) decreases and water accumulates in cells.
Q4) Plasma electrolytes include
A) bicarbonate, magnesium, chloride, and potassium ions.
B) monocytes, basophils, and eosinophils.
C) fibrinogen, globulins, and albumin.
D) urea and uric acid.
Q5) When hemoglobin molecules are decomposed, a greenish pigment called _____________ is formed.
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Chapter 15: Cardiovascular System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The loose-fitting sac around the heart is the
A) fibrous pericardium.
B) visceral pericardium.
C) epicardium.
D) endocardium.
Q2) Which of the following is not a branch of the aorta?
A) Right coronary artery
B) Pulmonary artery
C) Brachiocephalic artery
D) Left subclavian artery
Q3) The heart pumps about ____ liters of blood a day and contracts about _____ times in a lifetime.
A) 1,000 liters; 1 billion
B) 1,200 liters; 2 billion
C) 3,000 liters; 2 billion
D) 7,000 liters; 2.5 billion
Q4) Osmotic pressure forces molecules in the blood out through capillary walls.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 16: Lymphatic System and Immunity
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Sample Questions
Q1) In an autoimmune disease, the immune response is directed toward A) foreign cells.
B) cells of the body ("self").
C) all antigens.
D) all antibodies.
Q2) The lymph nodes of the axillary region receive lymph mainly from the A) scalp and face.
B) upper limb and mammary gland.
C) thoracic viscera.
D) abdominal viscera.
Q3) Lymph nodes are centers for the production of ______, which act against foreign particles carried in lymph.
Q4) The type of resistance that is acquired as a result of developing a disease is A) naturally acquired active immunity.
B) artificially acquired active immunity.
C) artificially acquired passive immunity.
D) naturally acquired passive immunity.
Q5) The thymus is in the mediastinum behind the sternum.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 17: Digestive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) ______ ions help to regulate the pH of saliva.
Q2) An extracorporeal liver assist device was surgically implanted into Sam. This device is very similar to
A) an artificial heart.
B) artificial skin.
C) kidney dialysis.
D) a blood transfusion.
Q3) The common hepatic duct and the cystic duct unite to form the A) common bile duct.
B) hepatic duct.
C) hepatopancreatic duct.
D) pancreatic duct.
Q4) The process by which bile breaks down fat globules into smaller droplets is ______.
Q5) Salivary amylase digests
A) carbohydrates.
B) proteins.
C) fats.
D) vitamins.
Q6) Chisel-shaped teeth are _______.
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Chapter 18: Nutrition and Metabolism
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Sample Questions
Q1) Individuals at highest risk for developing anorexia nervosa are A) infants.
B) adolescents.
C) adults.
D) children.
Q2) The condition associated with lack of intrinsic factor and decreased absorption of cyanobalamin is
A) pernicious anemia.
B) pellagra.
C) megaloblastic anemia.
D) scurvy.
Q3) Vitamin D deficiency, especially in older people, results from lack of exposure to the sun.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Caloric intake exceeding caloric output is a positive energy balance.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The units of heat that measure the amount of energy in food are called ______.
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Q6) Cholesterol removed from the blood is excreted as a component of ______.
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Chapter 19: Respiratory System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The hypoxia associated with high altitude can cause
A) vasodilation of the major arterial blood vessels.
B) vasoconstriction of the pulmonary blood vessels.
C) vasoconstriction of the coronary blood vessels.
D) vasodilation of the major venous blood vessels.
Q2) The visceral and parietal pleural membranes are normally held together by
A) loose connective tissue.
B) dense connective tissue.
C) a thin film of serous fluid.
D) surfactant.
Q3) The first event in expiration is
A) inter-alveolar pressure increases.
B) elastic tissues of the lungs, thoracic cage, and abdominal organs recoil.
C) air is squeezed out of the lungs.
D) the diaphragm and external intercostal respiratory muscles relax.
Q4) Of the respiratory air volumes listed, which one has the largest volume?
A) Expiratory reserve volume
B) Inspiratory reserve volume
C) Vital capacity
D) Tidal volume
Page 21
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Chapter 20: Urinary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) A biochemical important in glomerulus formation in the embryo is A) ADH.
B) ADP.
C) renin.
D) VEGF.
Q2) The micturition reflex can be voluntarily controlled by the
A) person controlling contraction and relaxation of the pyloric sphincter.
B) sympathetic impulses stimulating the internal urethral sphincter.
C) relaxation of the external urethral sphincter.
D) voluntary contractions or inhibition of the prostate gland.
Q3) If glucose is not reabsorbed in the tubular fluid, ___________ increases.
A) hydrostatic pressure
B) glomerular filtration rate
C) sodium reabsorption
D) the osmotic pressure
Q4) The countercurrent mechanism functions primarily in the A) renal corpuscle.
B) proximal convoluted tubule.
C) distal convoluted tubule
D) nephron loop.
Page 22
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Chapter 21: Water, Electrolyte, and Acid-Based Balance
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Sample Questions
Q1) When sodium ions are reabsorbed in response to the action of aldosterone, potassium ions are
A) actively reabsorbed.
B) passively reabsorbed.
C) secreted.
D) reabsorbed.
Q2) Kidneys help to regulate acid-base balance of the blood by secreting OH<sup>-</sup>.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The sequence of symptoms of heatstroke is
A) neurological symptoms, dizziness, skin reddening, and then headache and racing heart.
B) headache, dizziness, exhaustion, then sweating, which stops as the skin becomes red, hot, and dry.
C) intense itching, profuse sweating, kidney failure, racing pulse, headache.
D) fever, itching, redness, headache, numb extremities, vomiting.
Q4) In a healthy body, the volume of water remains relatively stable at all times.
A)True
B)False
Page 23
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Chapter 22: Reproductive Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) Chromosomes align down the center of a cell undergoing meiosis in metaphase.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The structure the sperm enters upon exiting the ductus deferens is the A) seminal vesicles.
B) epididymis.
C) ejaculatory duct.
D) rete testis.
Q3) A Pap smear is used to detect abnormal cells in the A) urethra.
B) ovary.
C) cervix.
D) vagina.
Q4) The hormone mainly responsible for the development and maintenance of female secondary sexual characteristics is A) estrogen.
B) progesterone.
C) androgen.
D) luteinizing hormone.
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Chapter 23: Pregnancy, Growth, and Development
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Q1) The term "newborn" refers to the period from birth through _____, whereas the term "infant" refers to the period from _____.
A) 3 months; 3 months to 6 months
B) the first four weeks; the first month to 1 year
C) one week; the second week through the second year
D) the first year; the first year to the second year
Q2) In an adult, a solid, cordlike structure called the ______ ______ represents the former umbilical vein.
Q3) At the blastocyst stage, the cells are considered
A) totipotent.
B) extraembryonic.
C) pluripotent.
D) endodermal.
Q4) The implantation of the blastocyst results from
A) enzymes digesting the endometrium around the blastocyst.
B) hyaluronic acid breaking down the myometrium around the blastocyst.
C) hCG stimulating the growth of trophoblast blood vessels.
D) the cessation of the reproductive cycle.
Q5) The process of growing old is called _____.
Q6) The fertilized ovum is also called a _____.
Page 25
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Chapter 24: Genetics and Genomics
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Q1) A multifactorial trait is determined by many environmental factors, but not necessarily genetic influences.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Amniocentesis provides an image of a developing fetus.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The phenotypes and genotypes that result from a cross of Aa and aa (A = normal pigmentation and a = albinism) are
A) phenotypes-all normal; genotypes-50% heterozygous and 50% homozygous recessive.
B) phenotypes-all albino; genotypes-all homozygous recessive.
C) phenotypes-50% normal and 50% albino; genotypes-50% heterozygous and 50% homozygous recessive.
D) phenotypes-all albino; genotypes-50% heterozygous and 50% homozygous recessive.
Q4) Genetic information passes from protein to RNA to DNA.
A)True
B)False
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