Outpatient Care Management
Midterm Exam
Course Introduction
Outpatient Care Management focuses on the strategies and practices essential to delivering effective healthcare services outside of the hospital setting. The course covers the coordination and integration of care for patients with chronic and acute conditions, emphasizing the roles of interdisciplinary teams, care planning, patient education, and resource utilization. Students will learn about population health management, risk assessment, care transitions, and the use of health information technology to improve patient outcomes. Ethical, legal, and cultural considerations in outpatient care are also explored to prepare students for leadership roles in ambulatory and community healthcare environments.
Recommended Textbook Laboratory and Diagnostic Testing in Ambulatory Care 3rd Edition by Marti Garrel Available Study Resources on Quizplus
Chapters
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Chapter 1: Introduction to the Laboratory and Safety Training
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is a laboratory test panel or profile?
A) A series of tests associated with a particular organ, disease, or general assessment of a patient's health status done on the same specimen
B) A group of individuals who perform laboratory tests
C) A laboratory test that is required by federal law
D) A single test ordered for a specific disease
Answer: A
Q2) An outpatient health care setting in which patients are not bedridden is a(n) _____________.
Answer: ambulatory care setting
Q3) The abbreviation POL means ____________________.
Answer: physician's office laboratory
Q4) Tests that provide simple, unvarying results and require minimal judgment and interpretation are ____________________ tests.
Answer: CLIA-waived
Q5) The substance being tested in a specimen, such as glucose or cholesterol in a blood specimen, is a(n) ____________________.
Answer: analyte
3
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Chapter 2: Regulations, Microscope Setup, and Quality
Control
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following microscope maintenance actions is incorrect?
A) Clean all lenses with lens paper only.
B) When cleaning the lenses, start with the oil immersion lens.
C) Store the microscope in a dust-free area with a cover over it.
D) Carry the microscope with two hands by the base and arm.
Answer: B
Q2) Any substance in a sample, other than the one being measured or detected, whose presence affects the result of the test being performed is called a(n)
Answer: interfering substance
Q3) What causes the microscopic image to be clearer and sharper?
A) Focus controls
B) Mechanical stage
C) Condenser
D) Nosepiece
Answer: A
Q4) A substance or ingredient used in a laboratory test to detect, measure, examine, or produce a reaction is a(n) ____________________.
Answer: reagent
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Chapter 3: Urinalysis
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements about bacteria in urine is incorrect?
A) Presence of bacteria could indicate either contamination or a urinary tract infection (UTI).
B) If WBCs are present with bacteria, this could be significant for a UTI.
C) Bacteria are viewed on high power and are reported as few, moderate, or many, or 1+, 2+, 3+, or 4+.
D) Even though contaminant bacteria reproduce rapidly if the urine is kept at room temperature for a prolonged period, it is not important that the testing and microscopic examination be done on fresh urine.
Answer: D
Q2) Which of the tests on a chemical strip should be held for2 minutes (after removal from the urine) before reading the results?
A) Specific gravity
B) Leukocytes
C) Protein
D) pH
Answer: B
Q3) The functional unit of the kidney is the ____________________.
Answer: nephron
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Blood Collection
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following veins is most commonly used for venipuncture?
A) Basilic vein
B) Cephalic vein
C) Radial vein
D) Median cubital vein
Q2) Plasma is obtained by:
A) centrifuging a clotted tube.
B) centrifuging a tube that contains an anticoagulant.
C) using a red-top "clot" tube.
D) using an "SST" gold-top tube.
Q3) ______________ are tiny purple or red skin spots that can be found in patients who have coagulation problems.This condition could lead to excessive bleeding during phlebotomy procedures.
Q4) Which is the correct statement regarding syncope?
A) Have the patient raise his or her head and breathe shallowly.
B) If a patient does faint or experience a seizure, remove the needle and then release the tourniquet.
C) Signs of fainting are that the patient becomes pale, sweats, and hyperventilates.
D) Have the patient leave the room immediately after experiencing syncope.
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Chapter 5: Hematology
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Sample Questions
Q1) The complete blood count (CBC) generally includes all of the following except:
A) hemoglobin.
B) hematocrit.
C) ESR.
D) RBC count.
E) WBC count.
Q2) Most CLIA-waived hematology tests use blood from a(n): A) artery.
B) vein.
C) capillary.
D) Vacutainer.
E) syringe.
Q3) Which of the following WBCs does not match the associated description?
A) Basophil becomes a mast cell when it enters the tissues to mediate the inflammatory response.
B) Lymphocyte is the smallest WBC.
C) Eosinophil increases in number during allergic reactions.
D) Neutrophil can differentiate into a T cell or B cell.
E) Monocyte is the largest WBC.
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Page 7
Chapter 6: Chemistry
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Sample Questions
Q1) Excessive fat in blood that gives a milky appearance in the plasma is called ____________________.
Q2) Elevated blood sugar is called ____________________.
Q3) Which of the following groups are allowed to be eaten2 days before collecting the fecal specimen used for the Hemoccult blood test?
A) Chicken, fish, and eggs
B) Vitamin C, alcohol, and aspirin
C) Cauliflower, broccoli, turnips, parsnips, and melons
D) Red and partially cooked meats
Q4) Cholesterol derived from the diet is ____________________.
Q5) Which of the following analytes would not be part of an I-STAT CHEM8+ panel?
A) Electrolytes: Cl-, Na+, K+
B) Alcohol
C) Creatinine and blood urea nitrogen (BUN)
D) Hemoglobin (Hgb) and hematocrit (HCT)
E) Glucose
Q6) _______________ is cholesterol manufactured in the liver.
Q7) ________________ include sugars and starches.
Q9) Man-made hydrogenated fats are called ____________________. Page 8
Q8) Excessively high blood insulin levels is referred to as ____________________.
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Page 9
Chapter 7: Immunology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Nonpathogenic microorganisms that normally inhabit the skin and mucous membranes are called ____________________.
Q2) Which of the following statements regarding Helicobacter pylori and ulcers is false?
A) Helicobacter pylori is believed to be the cause of all ulcers.
B) Spicy foods may irritate the ulcerous tissue.
C) As the mucous layer breaks down, the acid and the bacteria cause an ulcer.
D) Treatment includes antibiotics and acid-reducing medications.
E) Helicobacter pylori weakens the mucous lining of the stomach and duodenum.
Q3) _____________ are cells capable of engulfing and ingesting microorganisms and cellular debris.
Q4) Destructive tissue diseases caused by antibody/self-antigen reactions are referred to as ____________________.
Q5) The age group in which symptoms of EBV are most often displayed is:
A) under 5.
B) 15 to 25.
C) 40 to 50.
D) 50 and over.
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Page 10
Chapter 8: Microbiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) A disease state that occurs when pathogenic microorganisms invade the body and overcome its natural defense mechanisms is a(n) ____________________.
Q2) Which of the following represents incomplete hemolysis, producing a green halo around the colony?
A) Alpha
B) Beta
C) Gamma
D) Delta
Q3) Which of the following is an incorrect association?
A) Enterobius vermicularis/pinworms
B) Giardia lamblia/protozoan flagellate that causes gastrointestinal symptoms
C) Pediculus humanus/body louse
D) Trichomonas vaginalis/roundworm
Q4) _______________ means an infection capable of forming pus.
Q5) Which of the following describes a coccus bacterium?
A) An organism that can be a gently curved rod
B) A rod-shaped organism
C) A round organism that can be found as singles, pairs, clusters, or chains
D) An organism that looks like a corkscrew or a spring
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Chapter 9: Toxicology
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Sample Questions
Q1) The three-letter abbreviation used for phencyclidine is ____________________.
Q2) An abnormal susceptibility to a drug or other agent that is peculiar to the individual is called ____________________.
Q3) The three-letter abbreviation used for buprenorphine is ____________________.
Q4) The three-letter abbreviation used for marijuana is ____________________.
Q5) The three-letter abbreviation used for cocaine is ____________________.
Q6) The three-letter abbreviation used for benzodiazepines is ____________________.
Q7) Methadone and morphine are ____________________.
Q8) The level at which a drug becomes poisonous in the body is called __________________.
Q9) Blood carrying the drug through the body is called ____________________.
Q10) The three-letter abbreviation used for barbiturates is ____________________.
Q11) ______________ measurement determines if a substance is present or absent.
Q13) A substance produced by the metabolism of a drug in the body is a(n) Page 12
Q12) The release of a prescribed drug from its dosage is called ____________________.
Q14) An FDA-approved drug for treating opioid drug addiction is ____________________.
Q15) The three-letter abbreviation used for methadone is ____________________.
Q16) The three-letter abbreviation used for amphetamine is ____________________.
Q17) The three-letter abbreviation used for oxycodone is ____________________.
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13
Chapter 10: Electrocardiography and Spirometry
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Sample Questions
Q1) The chambers of the heart that pump the blood out of the heart to the lungs and the body are the ____________________.
Q2) ____________ is when the heart rhythm is within normal limits.
Q3) A patient's spirometer results are compared to the predicted values of a control group of others who share all the following except:
A) blood pressure.
B) weight.
C) gender and age.
D) race.
E) height.
Q4) Which is the correct statement regarding patient instructions prior to performing an FVC spirometer test?
A) "Don't use a bronchodilator for 2 days before your scheduled test."
B) "Smoking and eating is not allowed 14 hours prior to the scheduled test."
C) "Wear clothes that may easily be removed from the waist up."
D) "The test consists of three steps: Fully inflate the lungs.Fully exhale fast and hard into the mouthpiece.Give full effort and keep exhaling for another 5 seconds."
Q5) COPD stands for ______________.
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