Orthopedic Physical Therapy Textbook Exam Questions - 276 Verified Questions

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Orthopedic Physical Therapy

Textbook Exam Questions

Course Introduction

Orthopedic Physical Therapy focuses on the evaluation, treatment, and rehabilitation of musculoskeletal system disorders, encompassing bones, joints, ligaments, tendons, and muscles. The course covers foundational knowledge of anatomy, physiology, and biomechanics, and emphasizes clinical reasoning skills for managing common orthopedic conditions such as fractures, sprains, strains, arthritis, and post-surgical rehabilitation. Students learn evidence-based assessment techniques, manual therapy, therapeutic exercise prescription, pain management strategies, and modalities used in orthopedic care, preparing them for effective patient-centered treatment and collaborative practice in various healthcare settings.

Recommended Textbook

Differential Diagnosis for Physical Therapists 5th Edition by Catherine C. Goodman

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18 Chapters

276 Verified Questions

276 Flashcards

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Chapter 1: Introduction to Screening for Referral in Physical Therapy

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Sample Questions

Q1) Symptoms that present bilaterally are always

A) Yellow flags

B) Red flags

C) Originated in the peripheral nervous system

D) Originated in the central nervous system

Answer: B

Q2) Risk factor assessment and risk reduction fall under which type of disease prevention?

A) Primary prevention

B) Secondary prevention

C) Tertiary prevention

D) Health promotion and wellness

Answer: A

Q3) A physical therapist finds a yellow flag symptom during the screening process of a new patient. What is the appropriate action by the physical therapist?

A) Make an appropriate referral.

B) Send the patient to the emergency department immediately.

C) Slow down and think about the need for further screening.

D) Aggressive further screening is required.

Answer: C

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Chapter 2: Interviewing as a Screening Tool

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following is not a side effect of long-term use of steroids?

A) Excessive sweating

B) Increased pain thresholds

C) Tissue edema

D) Proximal muscle weakness

Answer: A

Q2) The therapist begins an evaluation in a patient who is indicating he or she is taking psychotropic medications. What physical symptoms should the therapist look for during the evaluation?

A) Postural orthostatic hypotension

B) Dry skin

C) Hypertension

D) Poor memory recall

Answer: A

Q3) What is the last life cycle of a woman?

A) Reproductive years

B) Perimenopause

C) Menopausal

D) Postmenopausal

Answer: D

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Chapter 3: Pain Types and Viscerogenic Pain Patterns

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Sample Questions

Q1) Painful symptoms that start 3 to 5 minutes after initiating activity and then go away when the client stops suggest pain from what structures?

A) Muscles

B) Nerves

C) Vascular origin

D) Bone

Answer: C

Q2) When a child is born with an abnormal ear, what part of the body should be examined first for similar dysfunction?

A) Contralateral lung

B) Ipsilateral lung

C) Contralateral kidney

D) Ipsilateral kidney

Answer: D

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Chapter 4: Physical Assessment as a Screening Tool

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Sample Questions

Q1) Referral for medical evaluation is advised when resting oxygen saturation falls below

A) 97%

B) 95%

C) 92%

D) 90%

Q2) What is the correct order of examination of the abdomen?

A) Inspection, palpation, percussion, auscultation

B) Auscultation, inspection, palpation, percussion

C) Inspection, auscultation, percussion, palpation

D) Inspection, percussion, auscultation, palpation

Q3) Onset of anesthesia-induced dementia is most likely after which of the following surgical procedures?

A) Liver transplant

B) Nephrectomy

C) Rotator cuff repair

D) Hip replacement

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Chapter 5: Screening for Hematologic Disease

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following is the part of blood that carries antibodies and nutrients to tissues?

A) Erythrocytes

B) Leukocytes

C) Plasma

D) Platelets

Q2) What vitamin primarily affects the function of platelets?

A) Vitamin A

B) Vitamin B

C) Vitamin C

D) Vitamin K

Q3) What is the most common site of bleeding in an individual with hemophilia?

A) Muscles

B) Brain

C) Lungs

D) Joints

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Chapter 6: Screening for Cardiovascular Disease

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Sample Questions

Q1) During what time of day is the highest likelihood of having a heart attack?

A) Morning

B) Noon

C) Afternoon

D) Night

Q2) Almost all symptoms of mitral valve prolapse are due to imbalance in what body system?

A) Renal system

B) Muscular system

C) Gastrointestinal system

D) Autonomic nervous system

Q3) The physical therapist begins an examination of a patient who is currently taking statin medications. The patient complains of muscle aches and joint pain. The physical therapist decides to request the latest laboratory values. What two laboratory values would be abnormally high if the patient were having an adverse reaction to the statin medication?

A) White blood cell count and serum liver enzymes

B) White blood cell count and creatine kinase

C) White blood cell and erythrocyte

D) Serum liver enzymes and creatine kinase

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Chapter 7: Screening for Pulmonary Disease

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Sample Questions

Q1) What is the normal pH range of the human body?

A) 7-7.25

B) 7.25-7.35

C) 7.35-7.45

D) 7.40-7.50

Q2) What is most often the first sign or symptom of lung cancer?

A) Shortness of breath

B) Hemoptysis

C) Cough

D) Shoulder pain

Q3) What type of emphysema usually occurs in the upper lung regions?

A) Centrilobular emphysema

B) Panlobular emphysema

C) Paraseptal emphysema

D) Panacinar emphysema

Q4) A productive cough with nonpurulent sputum indicates which of the following?

A) Infection

B) Simple airway irritation

C) Pneumonia

D) Tumor

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Chapter 8: Screening for Gastrointestinal Disease

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following will generally not cause bright red blood in the stool?

A) Bleeding from the upper gastrointestinal (GI) tract

B) Bleeding from internal hemorrhoids

C) Bleeding from external hemorrhoids

D) Colorectal carcinoma

Q2) An abnormality of which of the following structures is likely to result in a muscle spasm of the rectus abdominis below the umbilicus?

A) Stomach

B) Appendix

C) Gallbladder

D) Liver

Q3) Individuals with inflammatory visceral pain are most often found in which of the following positions?

A) Supine

B) Prone

C) Fetal

D) Right side lying

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Chapter 9: Screening for Hepatic and Biliary Disease

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Sample Questions

Q1) What is the classic symptom of biliary colic?

A) Constant right upper abdominal pain

B) Right upper abdominal pain that comes and goes in waves

C) Constant left upper abdominal pain

D) Left upper abdominal pain that comes and goes in waves

Q2) In what stage of hepatic encephalopathy would the client begin to have resistance to passive movement with increased muscle tone?

A) Stage I

B) Stage II

C) Stage III

D) Stage IV

Q3) Pain associated with gallstones will become worse how long after eating a meal?

A) Immediately

B) 30 minutes-1 hour

C) 1-3 hours

D) 4-7 hours

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Chapter 10: Screening for Urogenital Disease

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following would be considered an upper urinary tract infection?

A) Bladder infection

B) Cystitis

C) Urethritis

D) Ureteral infections

Q2) What is the most characteristic symptom of ureteral stones?

A) Sudden sharp pain

B) Inability to urinate

C) Swollen testicles

D) Dull aching lumbar pain

Q3) A patient is being treated at the physical therapy clinic for cervical disk protrusion. During a treatment session the patient complains of a new onset of urinary incontinence. What is the correct course of action by the physical therapist?

A) Proceed with current interventions.

B) Begin cervical spinal manipulation.

C) Add cervical traction to the current treatment protocol.

D) Contact the referring physician immediately.

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Chapter 11: Screening for Endocrine and Metabolic Disease

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Sample Questions

Q1) An adult with acromegaly will have enlargement of which of the following structures?

A) Femur

B) Humerus

C) Ribs

D) Hands

Q2) Which of the following should be a red flag to the therapist during an examination?

A) Carpal tunnel syndrome in one upper extremity

B) Bilateral carpal tunnel syndrome

C) Calcific tendonitis in one shoulder of an individual

D) Calcific tendonitis in both shoulders of an individual

Q3) Which of the following is the cause of Cushing's syndrome?

A) Hyperfunction of the adrenal gland

B) Hypofunction of the adrenal gland

C) Excess secretion of ACTH

D) Decreased secretion of ACTH

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Chapter 12: Screening for Immunologic Disease

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following is not true regarding systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)?

A) It is more likely to affect women than men.

B) It is rare in older people.

C) All clients will have nearly the same clinical presentation.

D) There is no known gene associated with SLE.

Q2) Involvement of what part of the body is uncommon with Lyme arthritis?

A) Knee

B) Shoulder

C) Elbow

D) Hand

Q3) Polymyalgia rheumatica (PMR) is closely linked with which of the following disorders?

A) Fibromyalgia

B) Rheumatoid arthritis

C) Juvenile rheumatoid arthritis

D) Giant cell arteritis (GCA)

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Chapter 13: Screening for Cancer

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Sample Questions

Q1) What is the primary metastatic pathway for osteogenic sarcoma?

A) Lymphatics

B) Blood

C) Along nerves

D) Through the muscles

Q2) Which race/ethnicity has the highest mortality and worst survival rate for cancer of any population?

A) White

B) Native American

C) Asian

D) African American

Q3) A client comes to the physical therapist with an enlarged lymph node in the axillary area. The therapist palpates the lymph node, and it is abnormally large. What is the best course of action by the therapist?

A) Have the client come back in 1 week for reexamination.

B) Have the client come back in 1 month for reexamination.

C) Have the client come back in 1 year for reexamination.

D) Contact the referring physician.

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Chapter 14: Screening the Head, Neck, and Back

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Sample Questions

Q1) What is the most reliable screening test for cervical spondylotic myelopathy in a client with complaints of low back pain?

A) Straight leg raise test

B) Babinski sign

C) Manual cervical distraction

D) Passive cervical extension

Q2) What cranial nerve root is involved if a patient reports deep aching pain in the occipital, retroorbital, or temporal areas with referred pain to the face, ear, or subocciput?

A) C1

B) C2

C) C3

D) C4

Q3) Which of the following structures in the cranium does not have pain receptors?

A) Skull

B) Sinuses

C) Brain

D) Membrane surrounding the brain

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Chapter 15: Screening the Sacrum, Sacroiliac, and Pelvis

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Sample Questions

Q1) Clients with unilateral pain below the level of the L5 spinous process and pain when they rise from sitting are likely to have dysfunction in what anatomic structure?

A) L3-L4 disk

B) L4-L5 disk

C) Sacroiliac (SI) joint

D) Hip

Q2) Somatic pelvic pain is caused by stimulation of sensory nerve endings in what spinal segment?

A) L4-L5

B) L5-S1

C) S1-S2

D) S2-S3

Q3) Cystocele, rectocele, and uterine prolapse are disorders that commonly occur after A) Sexual assault

B) Cesarean section

C) Natural childbirth

D) Cholecystectomy

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Chapter

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Sample Questions

Q1) What is the most common site for avascular osteonecrosis?

A) Humeral head

B) Femoral head

C) Tibial plateau

D) Talus

Q2) What muscles are involved in a sports or athletic hernia?

A) Hip abductor musculature

B) Gluteal musculature

C) Rectus femoris

D) Hip adductor musculature

Q3) Of the choices provided where does ureteral pain usually occur?

A) Lateral hip

B) Buttocks

C) Costovertebral angle

D) Thoracic spine

Q4) Meralgia paresthetica involves compression of what nerve?

A) Femoral nerve

B) Popliteal nerve

C) Common peroneal nerve

D) Lateral femoral cutaneous nerve

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Chapter 17: Screening the Chest, Breasts, and Ribs

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15 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following is an uncommon sign of advanced breast cancer?

A) Pain

B) Edema

C) Tender breasts

D) Axillary mass

Q2) Most breast pain is the result of

A) Cancerous tumors

B) Benign tumors

C) Fibroid mass

D) Monthly hormonal fluctuations

Q3) What type of chest pain is commonly encountered in physical therapy practice?

A) Referred

B) Visceral

C) Deep somatic/parietal

D) Cutaneous

Q4) Chest pain of musculoskeletal origin is usually felt when?

A) With increased activity

B) 5-10 minutes after the activity begins

C) 10-15 minutes after the activity begins

D) 15-20 minutes after the activity begins

Page 19

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Chapter 18: Screening the Shoulder and Upper Extremity

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Sample Questions

Q1) What are the two most common types of cancer to metastasize to the shoulder?

A) Brain and bone cancer

B) Breast and bone cancer

C) Lung and brain cancer

D) Breast and lung cancer

Q2) Which of the following positions will make pericardial pain better?

A) Deep breathing

B) Swallowing

C) Leaning forward

D) Belching

Q3) Shoulder pain from diaphragmatic irritation usually will not be felt where?

A) Anterior shoulder

B) Upper trapezius

C) Suprascapular

D) Posterior portion of shoulder

Q4) Damage to the spleen is likely to refer pain to what anatomic location?

A) Left shoulder

B) Right shoulder

C) Left elbow

D) Right elbow

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