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Orthopedic Physical Therapy focuses on the evaluation, management, and rehabilitation of musculoskeletal injuries and disorders affecting bones, joints, muscles, ligaments, and tendons. This course covers foundational concepts such as tissue healing, biomechanics, and pain science, while also emphasizing clinical reasoning and hands-on intervention strategies including therapeutic exercise, manual therapy, and modalities. Students will learn to assess a variety of orthopedic conditions, design individualized treatment plans, and integrate evidence-based practices to optimize functional mobility and improve patients quality of life.
Recommended Textbook
Joint Structure and Function 5th Edition by Pamela K. Levangie
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299 Verified Questions
299 Flashcards
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24 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following best describes torque?
A) The force a muscle generates
B) A force times the perpendicular distance from the line of force to the axis of rotation
C) A force times the distance measured along the lever from the line of force to the axis of rotation
D) The distance a muscle can move
Answer: B
Q2) If not all of a muscle's force is contributing to rotation,what happens to the "wasted" force? Describe by resolution of forces.
Answer: The "wasted" force goes toward translation.The translatory component (ft)is a force applied parallel to the shaft of the bone,either toward the joint (compression or joint reaction force)or away from the joint (distraction).
Q3) When the centers of mass (CoM)of two adjacent segments are combined,the combined CoM will be located somewhere along a line connecting the two individual CoMs.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Sample Questions
Q1) Describe the arrangement of fibers in hyaline cartilage.Why is this arrangement suited to its function?
Answer: The outer layer (zone I)has parallel fibers suited to the function of reducing friction between contacting surfaces.The middle layer (zone II)is a lattice-work arrangement,allowing this layer to change shape to absorb shock and squeeze fluid in and out.The inner layer (zone III)contains fibers that are also aligned perpendicular to the bone surface to secure the tissue into the calcified layer of cartilage (zone IV).
Q2) Which of the following statements is true concerning fibroblasts?
A) They synthesize the extracellular matrix of connective tissue.
B) They are not normally present in healthy connective tissue.
C) They are undifferentiated precursor cells.
D) They are circulating cells.
Answer: A
Q3) How is the synovial fluid within a joint formed? Of what is it composed?
Answer: Synovial fluid,which is produced by the synovial layer of the capsule,is composed primarily of plasma and hyaluronic acid,with a glycoprotein called lubricin.Hyaluronate is responsible for reducing friction between the synovium and joint surfaces,and lubricin reduces friction between the joint surfaces (cartilage-on-cartilage).
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Sample Questions
Q1) The complete sarcomere unit lies within the boundaries of the ____________________.
A) Z disks
B) A bands
C) H zone
D) M band
Answer: A
Q2) Your patient attempts to strengthen his triceps by positioning his shoulder at the end of range of shoulder and elbow extension.He reports weakness and inability to extend his shoulder more in this position.His report may best be explained by which of the following?
A) Active insufficiency of the biceps
B) Active insufficiency of the triceps
C) Passive insufficiency of the biceps
D) Passive insufficiency of the triceps
Answer: B
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Sample Questions
Q1) The (R)alar ligament limits ________________of C1 on C2.
A) (R)rotation
B) (L)rotation
C) Extension
D) Both (R)and (L)lateral flexion
Q2) Which of the following statements is true concerning the surface of the sacroiliac joints?
A) The sacral surface is formed from the fused bodies of S1 to S4.
B) Both the sacral and innominate articular surfaces are covered with fibrocartilage.
C) There is a pattern of elevations and ridges only on the sacral surfaces.
D) The innominate articular surface is "C" shaped.
Q3) Which of the following accurately describes what happens to the articular surface of the facet joints of the mid/lower cervical spine during cervical extension?
A) Distraction of articular surfaces
B) Compression of articular surfaces
C) No change at the articular surfaces
Q4) Identify the ligaments that are unique to each of the areas,including the motions each ligament checks.
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Q1) Which ligament attaches to the lateral tubercle of the costotransverse joint?
A) Costotransverse ligament
B) Lateral costotransverse ligament
C) Superior costotransverse ligament
Q2) The "pump handle" motion of the upper ribs occurs primarily in what plane of motion?
A) Horizontal
B) Frontal
C) Sagittal
Q3) Which of the following costovertebral joint structures attaches to the intervertebral disc?
A) Superior band of the radiate ligament
B) Superior costotransverse ligament
C) Intra-articular ligament
D) All of the above attach to the intervertebral disc.
Q4) Describe the zone of apposition and its involvement in respiration.
Q5) What makes up the interchondral joints?
Q6) Describe the ligamentous support system for the costotransverse (CT)joint.
Q7) How does pregnancy affect the biomechanics of the chest wall?
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Q1) Retrusion of the temporomandibular joint (TMJ)is primarily limited by the:
A) Horizontal portion of the temporomandibular ligament
B) Stylomandibular ligament
C) Anterior portion of the temporomandibular joint capsule
Q2) Contraction of which muscle will pull the articular disc anteriorly during mouth opening?
A) Medial pterygoid
B) Lateral pterygoid
C) Digastric
D) Temporalis
Q3) Which of the following statements is true concerning the functions of the posterior bilaminar retrodiscal pad during normal temporomandibular joint (TMJ)osteokinematics?
A) The elastic superior lamina allows disc translation anteriorly along the articular eminence during mandibular depression.
B) The elastic inferior lamina serves to enhance disc motion during mandibular depression.
C) The superior lamina is inelastic and serves to tether the disc from forward translation.
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Q1) Which of the supporting ligaments of the glenohumeral (GH)joint is considered to be a "ligament complex"?
A) The inferior GH ligament
B) The middle GH ligament
C) The superior GH ligament
D) The coracoacromial ligament
Q2) Which muscle(s)stabilize(s)the scapula in order to allow normal function of the teres major muscle?
A) Levator scapula
B) Supraspinatus
C) Rhomboids
D) Upper trapezius
Completion
Complete each statement.
Q3) How would range and strength of abduction of the upper extremity be affected if there were paralysis of the infraspinatus,teres minor,and subscapularis muscles?
Q4) What accounts for the static stability of the glenohumeral (GH)joint when the arm is at the side? What happens if you excessively load the hanging (dependent)limb?
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Q1) What causes the carrying angle of the elbow joint? What functional purpose does the carrying angle serve?
Q2) Which of the following would you consider to be a limiter of motion when a patient cannot achieve full elbow extension?
A) Passive tension of the flexor muscles
B) Tension in the posterior ligaments
C) Passive tension of the elbow extensor muscles
D) Posterior capsular tightness
Q3) Which of the following muscles works to dynamically support the distal radioulnar joint?
A) Pronator quadratus
B) Pronator teres
C) Flexor carpi radialis longus
D) Palmaris longus
Q4) Where would you position the elbow joint to optimize the biomechanical effects of both the brachialis and the biceps brachii?
Q5) Which muscles are the first recruited in forearm supination and pronation?
Q6) What is the causative mechanism and the structure(s)involved in "Nursemaid's elbow"?
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Q1) What is the finest (most precise)form of prehension that can be accomplished by someone without intact intrinsic or extrinsic hand function?
Q2) In which of the following types of grip does the thumb play a very minimal role?
A) Hook grip
B) Tip-to-tip prehension
C) Spherical grip
D) Cylindrical grip
Q3) Which of the following carpal bones shows the greatest amount of motion during wrist flexion/extension?
A) Scaphoid
B) Lunate
C) Triquitrum
D) Pisaform
Q4) Which carpal bone is not part of the wrist complex?
A) Scaphoid
B) Lunate
C) Trapezoid
D) Pisiform
Q5) What metacarpophalangeal (MCP)joint position is most prone to injury and why?
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Q1) A person bends forward at the hips to tie his shoes.The acetabulum on the (R)side glides ________________on the head of the femur to allow this to happen.
A) posteriorly and inferiorly
B) anteriorly and inferiorly
C) posteriorly and superiorly
D) anteriorly and superiorly
Q2) Which statement is true regarding articular congruency of the hip joint?
A) The hip joint is not considered to be a naturally congruent joint.
B) The acetabulum is larger than the femoral head and entirely covers the head.
C) A combination of hip flexion,abduction,and lateral rotation gives the hip joint its most congruent position.
D) A combination of extension and adduction gives the hip its most congruent position.
Q3) The gluteus medius and gluteus minimus muscles act:
A) To stabilize the pelvis during unilateral stance.
B) As the primary extensors of the hip.
C) To laterally rotate the hip in unilateral stance.
D) As accessory muscles to hip flexion.
Q4) What is the role of the ligamentum teres at the hip joint?
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Q1) Which of the following best describes the screw home mechanism of the tibiofemoral joint during open kinetic chain movement?
A) Lateral rotation of the femur on the tibia occurring at 90<sup>o</sup> knee flexion to lock the tibiofemoral joint in its close-packed position
B) Medial rotation of the tibia on the femur occurring at 60<sup>o</sup> knee flexion to lock the tibiofemoral joint in its close-packed position
C) Lateral rotation of the tibia on the femur occurring at 0<sup>o</sup> knee flexion to lock the tibiofemoral joint in its close-packed position
D) Medial rotation of the femur on the tibia occurring at 45<sup>o</sup> knee flexion to lock the tibiofemoral joint in its close-packed position
Q2) Which of the following describes the effect on the lumbar spine of a subject standing in excessive bilateral genu recurvatum?
A) Compensatory increase in lumbar lordosis
B) Compensatory increase in lumbar kyphosis
C) Compensatory increase in thoracic lordosis
D) Compensatory increase in thoracic kyphosis
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Q1) The talocrural joint functions in the motion of dorsiflexion and plantarflexion.Due to triplanar motion at this joint,what other motion occurs with dorsiflexion?
A) Abduction
B) Adduction
C) Inversion
D) Eversion
Q2) What is the weight distribution through the various joints from the ankle through the metatarsal heads in unilateral stance?
Q3) Describe the articulations of the transverse tarsal joint.
Q4) When performing resisted testing of your patient's foot and ankle,you find that pain is reproduced only when resisting a muscle that supports the lateral longitudinal arch.Which of the following muscles would be painful with resisted testing?
A) Flexor hallucis longus
B) Abductor hallucis
C) Posterior tibialis
D) Peroneus longus
Q5) Describe the three articular surfaces of the subtalar joint,including the capsular arrangement.
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