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Orthopedic Physical Therapy focuses on the assessment, diagnosis, and treatment of musculoskeletal conditions and injuries. This course covers essential topics such as anatomy and biomechanics of the musculoskeletal system, principles of tissue healing, manual therapy techniques, therapeutic exercise prescription, and modalities for pain management and functional rehabilitation. Students will learn to develop evidence-based treatment plans for various orthopedic conditions affecting the spine, upper and lower extremities, and will gain practical skills in patient evaluation, intervention strategies, and outcome assessment to optimize mobility and function for individuals recovering from orthopedic dysfunctions.
Recommended Textbook
Joint Structure and Function 5th Edition by Pamela K. Levangie
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299 Verified Questions
299 Flashcards
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24 Verified Questions
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Q1) What happens to the center of gravity (CoG)of the body when the body segments are rearranged? What happens to the CoG if the right upper extremity is amputated?
Answer: (1)The CoG shifts in the direction(s)of the location of the segments with the greatest mass.(2)The CoG shifts down and to the left once the mass of the right arm is removed,because the lower and left halves of the body are now relatively heavier.)
Q2) When the centers of mass (CoM)of two adjacent segments are combined,the combined CoM will be located somewhere along a line connecting the two individual CoMs.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) Is naming the plane of motion considered part of kinetics or kinematics? Why?
Answer: Kinematics.It is purely a description of motion without regard to the forces causing it.
Q4) An eccentric muscle contraction is an example of a second-class lever system.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True

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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements is true concerning "joint play" of a joint?
A) Joint play is not considered a "normal" motion at the joint.
B) They must be tested by application of an external force.
C) They can be performed voluntarily by a subject.
D) They occur only in the close-packed position of the joint.
Answer: B
Q2) What are the characteristics of viscoelasticity,and which of the following tissues exhibits viscoelasticity: ligaments,tendons,hyaline cartilage,fibrocartilage,or bone?
Answer: Viscoelastic materials exhibit elasticity (ability to deform and return to its original shape immediately)and viscosity (ability to resist shear).Viscosity gives the tissues time and rate-dependent properties; that is,the deformation response of the tissue varies according to the duration of load and the rate of load.Each of the tissues listed above is viscoelastic.
Q3) The plastic portion of the stress-strain curve pictured above lies between:
A) Point A and point B
B) Point A and point D
C) Point B and point D
Answer: C
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Q1) What must happen before a motor unit will fire (discharge)? What occurs immediately after discharge of the motor unit?
Answer: In order for a motor unit to discharge,there must be sufficient facilitation (buildup of charges)at the anterior horn cell (AHC).Once threshold is reached,an impulse is conducted down the axon and all innervated fibers contract.Immediately after firing and fiber contraction,the motor unit goes through latency,or a refractory period,during which depolarization cannot occur.
Q2) What protects the muscle from overcontraction or overstretch? What "monitors" length of a muscle?
Answer: Overcontraction and overstretch are prevented by the "abort" receptors,the Golgi tendon organs (GTOs).It is generally believed that these will not fire unless there is a reasonable threat to the muscle.The active and passive lengths of a muscle are monitored by the muscle spindle.It is the spindle that is responsible for a muscle's tone,or resistance to passive stretch.
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Q1) Which of the following structures would be best suited to resist the tensile forces produced during spinal extension?
A) Posterior vertebral body
B) Posterior longitudinal ligament
C) Anterior longitudinal ligament
D) Facet capsule
Q2) The (R)alar ligament limits ________________of C1 on C2.
A) (R)rotation
B) (L)rotation
C) Extension
D) Both (R)and (L)lateral flexion
Q3) Which of the following best describes the function of the sacrotuberous and sacrospinous ligaments?
A) They prevent excessive counternutation of the sacrum on the innominates.
B) They become most taut with end range of hip extension to effectively lock the sacrum and innominates together.
C) They counterbalance the trunk forces that flex the sacral promontory.
D) They form the superior border of the lesser sciatic foramen.
Q4) What is the function of lumbopelvic rhythm? To what is this analogous?
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Q1) Which of the following costovertebral joint structures attaches to the intervertebral disc?
A) Superior band of the radiate ligament
B) Superior costotransverse ligament
C) Intra-articular ligament
D) All of the above attach to the intervertebral disc.
Q2) Which ligament attaches to the lateral tubercle of the costotransverse joint?
A) Costotransverse ligament
B) Lateral costotransverse ligament
C) Superior costotransverse ligament
Q3) Describe the zone of apposition and its involvement in respiration.
Q4) Which of the following best describes the changes seen in an infant's chest wall mechanics?
A) The healthy newborn has a very rigid chest wall.
B) The ribs are completely ossified at birth.
C) The infant's ribs are elliptical in shape.
D) The chest wall is very compliant but not very stable.
Q5) Describe the ligamentous support system for the costotransverse (CT)joint.
Q6) What makes up the interchondral joints?
Q7) How does pregnancy affect the biomechanics of the chest wall?
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Q1) Retrusion of the temporomandibular joint (TMJ)is primarily limited by the:
A) Horizontal portion of the temporomandibular ligament
B) Stylomandibular ligament
C) Anterior portion of the temporomandibular joint capsule
Q2) Which of the following statements is true concerning the functions of the posterior bilaminar retrodiscal pad during normal temporomandibular joint (TMJ)osteokinematics?
A) The elastic superior lamina allows disc translation anteriorly along the articular eminence during mandibular depression.
B) The elastic inferior lamina serves to enhance disc motion during mandibular depression.
C) The superior lamina is inelastic and serves to tether the disc from forward translation.
Q3) Describe the attachments of the articular disc of the temporomandibular joint (TMJ).
Q4) What is the significance of a "reciprocal click"?
Q5) Describe the articulations and functions of the upper and lower joint spaces.
Q6) What is the relationship of the temporomandibular joint (TMJ)with the cervical spine?
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Q1) Elevation of the clavicle at the sternoclavicular joint involves osteokinematic motion of the clavicle in the ________________direction and arthrokinematic motion of the joint surface in the ________________direction.
A) inferior,superior
B) inferior,inferior
C) superior,inferior
D) superior,superior
Q2) What accounts for the static stability of the glenohumeral (GH)joint when the arm is at the side? What happens if you excessively load the hanging (dependent)limb?
Q3) What muscular synergy does the teres major require to perform its function?
Q4) When a tennis player elevates her shoulder during a serve,the clavicle rolls in a(n)________________direction and glides in a(n)________________direction on the clavicular notch at the sternoclavicular joint.
A) superior,superior
B) inferior,inferior
C) superior,inferior
D) inferior,superior
Q5) What are the advantages to the coracoacromial arch? What are the disadvantages?
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Q1) Which of the following describes the arthrokinematic motion that occurs at the humeroulnar joint when the elbow is flexing to bring your hand to your mouth?
A) Caudal/anterior/cephalic glide of ulna on trochlea; medial glide of ulna on trochlea
B) Cephalic/posterior/caudal glide of ulna on trochlea; medial glide of ulna on trochlea
C) Caudal/anterior/cephalic glide of ulna on trochlea; lateral glide of ulna on trochlea
D) Cephalic/posterior/caudal glide of ulna on trochlea; lateral glide of ulna on trochlea
Q2) In full elbow extension,varus stability is provided by which of the following bony and/or noncontractile soft tissue structures?
A) Configuration of the joint surfaces,medial collateral ligament,anterior ligament
B) Posterior ligament,configuration of the joint surfaces,annular ligament
C) Oblique cord,quadrate ligament,configuration of the joint surfaces
D) Configuration of the joint surfaces,joint capsule,lateral collateral ligament
Q3) What is the causative mechanism and the structure(s)involved in "tennis elbow"?
Q4) Which muscles are the first recruited in forearm supination and pronation?
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Q1) What secondary motions do the extensor pollicis longus,pollicis brevis,and abductor pollicis longus cause at the wrist? What synergy do they require to function effectively as thumb extensors?
Q2) Tip-to-tip prehension involves which of the following muscle groups?
A) Extensor carpi ulnaris,extensor carpi radialis longus,and flexor pollicis brevis
B) Flexor digitorum profundus,opponins pollicis,and abductor pollicis brevis
C) Flexor digitorum profundus and flexor pollicis longus
D) B and C
Q3) In which of the following types of grip does the thumb play a very minimal role?
A) Hook grip
B) Tip-to-tip prehension
C) Spherical grip
D) Cylindrical grip
Q4) The midcarpal joint favors which of the following directions?
A) Flexion and radial deviation
B) Flexion and ulnar deviation
C) Extension and ulnar deviation
D) Extension and radial deviation
Q5) What metacarpophalangeal (MCP)joint position is most prone to injury and why?
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Q1) ________________is defined as an angle of torsion of the femoral neck-head on the femoral shaft that is greater than 15° to 20°.
A) Retroversion
B) Anteversion
C) Coxa valga
D) Coxa vera
Q2) What is the close-packed position of the hip joint?
Q3) A patient with femoral anteversion will present with which of the following apparent range of motion (ROM)adaptations at the hip?
A) Increased lateral rotation and decreased medial rotation
B) Decreased lateral rotation and increased medial rotation
C) Symmetric lateral and medial rotation
Q4) The gluteus medius and gluteus minimus muscles act:
A) To stabilize the pelvis during unilateral stance.
B) As the primary extensors of the hip.
C) To laterally rotate the hip in unilateral stance.
D) As accessory muscles to hip flexion.
Q5) How can the two-joint hip muscles affect this rhythm?
Q6) What is the role of the ligamentum teres at the hip joint?
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Q1) Which ligaments are responsible for medial-lateral stability of the knee joint? To which compartment do they belong?
Q2) Describe the patellofemoral articulation,including the number and shape of the surfaces.
Q3) Why is ascending stairs commonly cited as producing knee pain? Relate this to patellofemoral joint compression.
Q4) During closed kinetic chain knee extension,the menisci are pushed ________________by the femoral condyles and pulled anteriorly by
A) posteriorly,semimembranosus muscle
B) posteriorly,gracilis muscle
C) anteriorly,quadriceps expansion and patellofemoral ligament
D) anteriorly,popliteus muscle and coronary ligaments
Q5) Identify the bursae of the knee joint.Which of these are generally separate from and which are part of the capsule?
Q6) Describe the congruency of the tibiofemoral joint.What factors add to or detract from stability?
Q7) What are the dynamic stabilizers of the knee,and in what plane do they contribute to stability?
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Q1) During supination at the subtalar joint,the axes of the transverse tarsal (midtarsal)joints become ____________________,resulting in greater ________________of the foot during gait.
A) parallel,mobility
B) convergent,mobility
C) parallel,stability
D) convergent,stability
Q2) What is the close-packed position for the subtalar joint? Which motion of the tibia will lock the subtalar joint?
Q3) The transverse tarsal joint is formed by:
A) Talocalcaneal joint and talonavicular joint
B) Talonavicular joint and calcaneocuboid joint
C) Calcaneocuboid joint and tarsometatarsal joint
Q4) Which of the following is a primary function of the foot?
A) The foot serves as a rigid lever to increase efficiency during push-off.
B) In supination,the foot becomes a mobile adapter in order to adapt to changes in the terrain.
C) The foot assists with shock absorption but is not the body's primary shock absorber.
D) The foot absorbs rotation of the lower limb by pronating and supinating.
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