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Orthopedic Physical Therapy is a specialized area within physical therapy focused on evaluating, managing, and treating musculoskeletal conditions and injuries involving muscles, bones, joints, ligaments, and tendons. This course explores foundational principles and evidence-based interventions for a range of conditions, including fractures, sports injuries, post-surgical rehabilitation, arthritis, and degenerative disorders. Students will learn to conduct comprehensive assessments, develop individualized care plans, and apply manual therapy, therapeutic exercise, and modalities to restore function, reduce pain, and prevent recurrence. Emphasis is placed on clinical reasoning, patient education, and collaboration with other healthcare professionals to optimize outcomes in orthopedic rehabilitation settings.
Recommended Textbook
Differential Diagnosis for Physical Therapists 5th Edition by Catherine C. Goodman
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Q1) What is the purpose of the review of symptoms during the screening progress?
A) Guide the physical therapist to the appropriate intervention
B) Help diagnose the patient's specific dysfunction
C) Recognize clusters of associated signs and symptoms
D) Speed the evaluation process
Answer: C
Q2) Symptoms that present bilaterally are always
A) Yellow flags
B) Red flags
C) Originated in the peripheral nervous system
D) Originated in the central nervous system
Answer: B
Q3) Risk factor assessment and risk reduction fall under which type of disease prevention?
A) Primary prevention
B) Secondary prevention
C) Tertiary prevention
D) Health promotion and wellness
Answer: A
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Q1) Which of the following is a quick three-question screening tool for domestic abuse?
A) Woman Abuse Screening Tool (WAST)
B) Composite Abuse Scale (CAS)
C) Index of spouse abuse
D) Partner Violence Screen (PVS)
Answer: D
Q2) Which of the following groups is most likely to exhibit osteoporosis?
A) White women
B) White men
C) African-American women
D) African-American men
Answer: A
Q3) In children younger than 18 months old, fractures of which bones are more likely to be associated with abuse rather than accidental trauma?
A) Femur
B) Humerus
C) Ribs
D) Metacarpals
Answer: C
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Sample Questions
Q1) Sensory fibers to the appendix enter at what spinal cord level?
A) T8
B) T9
C) T10
D) T11
Answer: C
Q2) Muscle pain from trauma occurs as broken fibers leak _______________ into the interstitial fluid. Fill in the blank.
A) Potassium
B) Sodium
C) Calcium
D) Iron
Answer: A
Q3) Which of the following is a false statement regarding neuropathic pain?
A) It is usually described as sharp or shooting pain.
B) Acute nerve root irritation tends to be severe.
C) It is not alleviated by narcotics.
D) There is usually muscle spasm associated with the pain.
Answer: D
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Q1) During chart review a therapist notes that a patient had a 4+ reflex response at the patella tendon during the last examination. What information does this convey to the therapist?
A) No response or absent response
B) Decreased or slight muscle contraction
C) Normal visible muscle twitch
D) Hyperactive with possible spinal cord disorder
Q2) A patient taking which of the following medications will have a lower normal body temperature?
A) Coumadin
B) Lortab
C) Thorazine
D) Haldol
Q3) Virchow's node is usually palpated where and is indicative of what dysfunction?
A) Axillary, systemic infection
B) Axillary, primary carcinoma of the thorax or abdomen
C) Supraclavicular, systemic infection
D) Supraclavicular, primary carcinoma of the thorax or abdomen
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Q1) Which of the following are primary bleeding sites associated with thrombocytopenia?
A) Bone marrow/spleen
B) Mucosa/bone marrow
C) Mucosa/skin
D) Mucosa/brain
Q2) What is the most common site of bleeding in an individual with hemophilia?
A) Muscles
B) Brain
C) Lungs
D) Joints
Q3) What vitamin primarily affects the function of platelets?
A) Vitamin A
B) Vitamin B
C) Vitamin C
D) Vitamin K
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Q1) Which of the following is an early sign of right ventricular failure?
A) Decreased renal function
B) Tachycardia
C) Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea
D) Dependent edema
Q2) What type of angina is usually brought on by the bursting of a cholesterol-filled plaque in the lining of a coronary artery?
A) Chronic stable angina
B) Resting angina
C) Unstable angina
D) Nocturnal angina
Q3) The physical therapist begins an examination of a patient who is currently taking statin medications. The patient complains of muscle aches and joint pain. The physical therapist decides to request the latest laboratory values. What two laboratory values would be abnormally high if the patient were having an adverse reaction to the statin medication?
A) White blood cell count and serum liver enzymes
B) White blood cell count and creatine kinase
C) White blood cell and erythrocyte
D) Serum liver enzymes and creatine kinase
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Q1) Which of the following is not a cause of pneumonia?
A) Aspiration of food
B) Inhalation of toxic chemicals
C) Bacterial infection
D) Congestive heart failure
Q2) What is the normal pH range of the human body?
A) 7-7.25
B) 7.25-7.35
C) 7.35-7.45
D) 7.40-7.50
Q3) What is most often the first sign or symptom of lung cancer?
A) Shortness of breath
B) Hemoptysis
C) Cough
D) Shoulder pain
Q4) Chronic bronchitis is characterized by
A) Mucous hypersecretion and hypertrophy of mucus-producing cells in the bronchi
B) Mucous hypersecretion and atrophy of mucus-producing cells in the bronchi
C) Mucous hyposecretion and hypertrophy of mucus-producing cells in the bronchi
D) Mucous hyposecretion and atrophy of mucus-producing cells in the bronchi
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Q1) Individuals with inflammatory visceral pain are most often found in which of the following positions?
A) Supine
B) Prone
C) Fetal
D) Right side lying
Q2) Which of the following positions is likely to relieve pain associated with esophagitis?
A) Sitting upright
B) Supine
C) Prone
D) Right side lying
Q3) Which of the following will generally not cause bright red blood in the stool?
A) Bleeding from the upper gastrointestinal (GI) tract
B) Bleeding from internal hemorrhoids
C) Bleeding from external hemorrhoids
D) Colorectal carcinoma
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Q1) Which of the following is not a risk factor for development of gallstones?
A) Female gender
B) Small frame
C) Diet high in cholesterol and low in fiber
D) Diabetes
Q2) Which of the following types of hepatitis does not have a carrier state?
A) Hepatitis A
B) Hepatitis B
C) Hepatitis C
D) Hepatitis D
Q3) Pain associated with gallstones will become worse how long after eating a meal?
A) Immediately
B) 30 minutes-1 hour
C) 1-3 hours
D) 4-7 hours
Q4) What is the classic symptom of biliary colic?
A) Constant right upper abdominal pain
B) Right upper abdominal pain that comes and goes in waves
C) Constant left upper abdominal pain
D) Left upper abdominal pain that comes and goes in waves
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Q1) A patient is being treated at the physical therapy clinic for cervical disk protrusion. During a treatment session the patient complains of a new onset of urinary incontinence. What is the correct course of action by the physical therapist?
A) Proceed with current interventions.
B) Begin cervical spinal manipulation.
C) Add cervical traction to the current treatment protocol.
D) Contact the referring physician immediately.
Q2) What are the most common sites of costovertebral or costotransverse mechanical derangements that cause pseudorenal pain?
A) T6-T8
B) T8-T10
C) T10-T12
D) L1-L3
Q3) What type of incontinence is marked by a weak or underactive detrusor muscle?
A) Stress incontinence
B) Urge incontinence
C) Overflow incontinence
D) Functional incontinence
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Q1) Which of the following is an example of autonomic nervous system involvement with diabetes?
A) Foot drop
B) Carpal tunnel syndrome
C) Numbness and burning in the feet
D) Impaired bladder function
Q2) What is the leading cause of end-stage renal disease?
A) Diabetes
B) Cardiovascular disease
C) Poor diet
D) Medication overdose
Q3) Which of the following is not a function of the hypothalamus?
A) Direct control over the thalamus gland
B) Direct control over the anterior portion of the pituitary gland
C) Direct control over the posterior portion of the pituitary gland
D) Synthesis and release of hormones directly into blood circulation
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Q1) Which of the following is the most common method of transferring human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)?
A) Male-male sexual contact
B) Injection drug use
C) High-risk heterosexual contact
D) Blood transfusions
Q2) Which of the following is a swan neck deformity of the fingers common with rheumatoid arthritis?
A) Hyperextension of the proximal interphalangeal joint and flexion of the distal interphalangeal joint
B) Flexion of the proximal interphalangeal joint and hyperextension of the distal interphalangeal joint
C) Hyperflexion of the proximal interphalangeal joint and flexion of the distal interphalangeal joint
D) Hyperextension of the proximal interphalangeal joint and extension of the distal interphalangeal joint
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Q1) Which of the following types of cancer has screening tests that are readily available and widely recommended?
A) Lung cancer
B) Colorectal cancer
C) Brain cancer
D) Kidney cancer
Q2) Rheumatic disorders caused by cancer have been associated most often with what type of cancer?
A) Colorectal and breast cancer
B) Pancreatic and lung cancer
C) Lung and colorectal cancer
D) Breast and lung cancer
Q3) What is the single most important risk factor for cancer?
A) Age over 50 years
B) Ethnicity
C) Family history
D) Environment and lifestyle
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Q1) Clients with neurogenic lumbar pain will obtain relief from which posture?
A) Extension
B) Right side bending
C) Left side bending
D) Forward flexion
Q2) Severe esophagitis will most often refer pain to what anatomic area?
A) The face
B) Posterior cranial area
C) Thoracic spine
D) Lumbar spine
Q3) Which of the following structures in the cranium does not have pain receptors?
A) Skull
B) Sinuses
C) Brain
D) Membrane surrounding the brain
Q4) What is the most common cause of back pain referred from the stomach?
A) Stomach cancer
B) Long-term use of nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs (NSAIDs)
C) Long-term use of acetaminophen
D) Rectus abdominis strains
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Q1) What is likely to relieve pain associated with uterine prolapse?
A) Walking
B) Standing
C) Coughing
D) Lying down
Q2) The therapist begins an examination of a patient with complaints of sacral pain. During the history of the examination the patient also complains of arthritis, conjunctivitis, and urethritis. The combination of these symptoms with sacral pain leads the therapist to believe the patient has what medical condition?
A) Crohn's disease
B) Rheumatoid arthritis
C) Cirrhosis of the liver
D) Reiter's syndrome
Q3) Clients with unilateral pain below the level of the L5 spinous process and pain when they rise from sitting are likely to have dysfunction in what anatomic structure?
A) L3-L4 disk
B) L4-L5 disk
C) Sacroiliac (SI) joint
D) Hip
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Q1) A combination of which of the following motions is considered a positive impingement sign of the hip?
A) Pain reproduced with hip extension, adduction, internal rotation
B) Pain reproduced with hip flexion, abduction, external rotation
C) Pain reproduced with hip flexion, adduction, internal rotation
D) Pain reproduced with hip extension, abduction, external rotation
Q2) What gait patterns are common with intraarticular hip pain?
A) Lean away from the affected hip and shorten the swing phase of the affected hip
B) Lean toward the affected hip and shorten the swing phase of the affected hip
C) Lean away from the affected hip and lengthen the swing phase of the affected hip
D) Lean toward the affected hip and lengthen the swing phase of the affected hip
Q3) What is the most common sign of cancer metastasis to the foot?
A) First metatarsal
B) Navicular
C) Talus
D) Calcaneus
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Q1) Chest pain of musculoskeletal origin is usually felt when?
A) With increased activity
B) 5-10 minutes after the activity begins
C) 10-15 minutes after the activity begins
D) 15-20 minutes after the activity begins
Q2) Most breast pain is the result of
A) Cancerous tumors
B) Benign tumors
C) Fibroid mass
D) Monthly hormonal fluctuations
Q3) Which of the following client presentations would lead the therapist to believe that the patient does not have cardiac complaints?
A) A patient who has chest pain relieved by standing
B) Pain that radiates to the left shoulder
C) Pain that radiates to both shoulders
D) Pain that increases with exertion
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Q1) In which stage of complex regional pain syndrome (CRPS) does muscle atrophy begin?
A) Stage I
B) Stage II
C) Stage III
D) Stage IV
Q2) What artery is occluded in thoracic outlet syndrome?
A) Brachial artery
B) Radial artery
C) Posterior circumflex humeral artery
D) Subclavian artery
Q3) A woman with a ruptured ectopic pregnancy with abdominal hemorrhage can produce pain where?
A) Right shoulder
B) Left shoulder
C) Right elbow
D) Left elbow
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