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Orthopedic Assessment is a course designed to provide students with comprehensive knowledge and practical skills for evaluating musculoskeletal injuries and conditions. The curriculum covers foundational concepts in anatomy, biomechanics, and pathophysiology, enabling students to perform systematic patient interviews, physical examinations, and special tests to identify orthopedic disorders. Through case studies, hands-on practice, and analysis of diagnostic imaging, students will learn to differentiate between athletic, traumatic, and degenerative musculoskeletal issues and develop appropriate assessment plans. The course prepares learners for clinical decision-making and effective communication with other healthcare professionals in orthopedic and rehabilitation settings.
Recommended Textbook
Clinical Kinesiology and Anatomy 5th Edition by Lynn S. Lippert PT MS
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Sample Questions
Q1) The fibula is on which side of the lower leg?
A) Medial
B) Lateral
C) Proximal
D) Distal
Answer: B
Q2) When a person steps forward to release a bowling ball,what type of motion of the body is occurring?
A) Angular motion
B) Linear motion
C) Kinematic motion
D) Torque motion
Answer: B
Q3) Turning your head to look over your left shoulder involves cervical
A) left rotation.
B) right rotation.
C) left lateral bend.
D) right lateral bend.
Answer: A
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Q1) How many bones make up the human skeleton?
A) 80
B) 126
C) 206
D) 217
Answer: C
Q2) Which type of bone makes up the dense,hard outer shell?
A) Compact bone
B) Cancellous bone
C) Marrow
D) Periosteum
Answer: A
Q3) The scapula is an example of which type of bone?
A) Short
B) Flat
C) Irregular
D) Sesamoid
Answer: B
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Q1) The hip is an example of which type of joint?
A) Nonaxial
B) Uniaxial
C) Biaxial
D) Triaxial
Answer: D
Q2) Joints serve which of the following functions?
A) Bear weight and provide stability
B) Allow motion
C) Contain fluid that lubricates and nourishes the cartilage
D) All of the above
Answer: D
Q3) What type of structure is located where tendons pass over a bone or joint and serves to decrease friction?
A) Cartilage
B) Fat pad
C) Bursa
D) Fibrocartilage
Answer: C
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Sample Questions
Q1) Motions occurring within the joint that are necessary for joint motion but are not under voluntary control are called
A) osteokinematic movement.
B) accessory movement.
C) springy block.
D) manipulation.
Q2) According to the convex-concave law,the convex femoral head during hip flexion moves in which direction in relation to the direction the femur moves?
A) Same direction
B) Opposite direction
C) First the same direction,then the opposite direction at the end of the movement
D) It depends on whether the person is standing or lying down.
Q3) The type of joint end feel characterized by a leatherlike limitation with some give is A) bony.
B) soft tissue approximation.
C) capsular.
D) empty.
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Q1) What is the term for a muscle contraction in which the proximal end moves toward the distal end?
A) Irritability
B) Extensibility
C) Reversal of muscle action
D) Active insufficiency
Q2) The type of muscle contraction that occurs with fixed speed,fixed resistance,and no joint motion is
A) ISOK.
B) ISOM.
C) ISOT.
D) tenodesis.
Q3) You can make a tighter fist with your wrist extended than with your wrist flexed because of
A) active insufficiency of the finger flexors.
B) active insufficiency of the finger extensors.
C) passive insufficiency of the finger flexors.
D) passive insufficiency of the finger extensors.
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Q1) A person with "wrist drop" has damage to which of the following nerves?
A) Radial nerve
B) Median nerve
C) Femoral nerve
D) Common peroneal nerve
Q2) A common pathology of the PNS characterized by weakness of the long thoracic nerve is which of the following?
A) Scapular winging
B) Thoracic outlet syndrome
C) Bell's palsy
D) Carpal tunnel syndrome
Q3) At which level of the spinal column is damage to the spinal cord no longer a concern?
A) C7
B) T8
C) T10
D) L1
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Q1) The main branch artery that supplies blood to the forearm and hand is which of the following?
A) Radial and ulnar
B) Axillary
C) Subclavian
D) Internal iliac
Q2) A circulatory pathology characterized by inflammation of a vein is which of the following?
A) Aneurysm
B) Phlebitis
C) Embolism
D) Occlusion
Q3) The valve that allows one-way blood flow from the left atrium to the left ventricle is which of the following?
A) Pulmonary valve
B) Aortic valve
C) Tricuspid valve
D) Bicuspid valve
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Q1) The type of machine that consists of a grooved wheel that turns on an axle with a rope or cable is a(n)
A) movable pulley.
B) wheel and axle.
C) fixed pulley.
D) inclined plane.
Q2) Two forces acting in equal but opposite directions and resulting in a turning effect is called a
A) stabilizing force.
B) dislocating force.
C) moment of force.
D) force couple.
Q3) The reason that a large-handled object is easier to turn is that the mechanical advantage is larger.
Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) The upper trapezius,serratus anterior,and lower trapezius have which of the following actions in common?
A) Retraction of the scapula
B) Protraction of the scapula
C) Downward rotation of the scapula
D) Upward rotation of the scapula
Q2) If shoulder girdle retraction is the desired motion,which two muscles are agonists in this motion?
A) Pectoralis minor and pectoralis major
B) Levator scapula and upper trapezius
C) Middle trapezius and rhomboids
D) Serratus anterior and latissimus dorsi
Q3) An example of linear shoulder girdle motion is
A) upward rotation.
B) scapular protraction.
C) scapular depression.
D) B and C
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Q1) The latissimus dorsi,subscapularis,and anterior deltoid have which of the following shoulder motions in common?
A) Medial rotation
B) Lateral rotation
C) Adduction
D) Flexion
Q2) Which muscle originates on the medial one-third of the clavicle and inserts on the lateral lip of the bicipital groove?
A) Anterior deltoid
B) Supraspinatus
C) Pectoralis major,clavicular portion
D) Coracobrachialis
Q3) You are asked to palpate for tenderness at the coracoid process of the scapula.If you locate tenderness at this spot,the patient may have soft tissue inflammation at the origin of which of the following muscles?
A) Teres major
B) Coracobrachialis
C) Pectoralis major
D) Long head of the biceps brachii
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Q1) Weakness of the triceps brachii muscle could indicate trauma to which of the following nerves?
A) Musculocutaneous nerve
B) Median nerve
C) Ulnar nerve
D) Radial nerve
Q2) The bony landmark of the ulna,which forms the prominent posterior point of the elbow,is which of the following?
A) Olecranon fossa
B) Olecranon process
C) Coronoid process
D) Radial head
Q3) Which of the following groups are the prime movers in elbow flexion?
A) Biceps,supinator,and brachialis
B) Brachialis,brachioradialis,and anconeus
C) Biceps,pronator teres,and supinator
D) Brachialis,biceps,and brachioradialis
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Q1) The three wrist extensors are innervated by which nerve?
A) Median nerve
B) Ulnar nerve
C) Radial nerve
D) Musculocutaneous nerve
Q2) If you are instructed to work on closed-chain upper extremity activity and you have your patient stand and place her hand on a table with her fingers facing forward and rock forward to touch an object with the other hand,which motion is occurring at the wrist that is on the table?
A) Flexion
B) Extension
C) Radial deviation
D) Ulnar deviation
Q3) When the flexor carpi radialis and the extensor carpi radialis longus contract simultaneously,which motion results?
A) Supination of the forearm
B) Wrist extension
C) Wrist radial deviation
D) Wrist circumduction
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Sample Questions
Q1) Carpal tunnel syndrome involves compression of which of the following nerves?
A) Radial
B) Ulnar
C) Median
D) Brachial
Q2) Which type of grip is used to pick up a coin?
A) Lumbrical grip
B) Pincer grip
C) Cylindrical grip
D) Spherical grip
Q3) With the palm down on the table,raise the second finger off the table.This requires muscle action of the
A) flexor digitorum longus.
B) flexor indicis.
C) extensor indicis.
D) extensor digiti minimi.
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Q1) Which muscle originates on the lateral pterygoid plate of the sphenoid and tuberosity of the maxilla and inserts on the ramus and angle of the mandible?
A) Temporalis
B) Masseter
C) Medial pterygoid
D) Lateral pterygoid
Q2) Clenching the teeth is an ISOM contraction of which muscle?
A) Medial pterygoid
B) Lateral pterygoid
C) Temporalis
D) Masseter
Q3) The bony landmark of the mandible that forms the posterior projection that articulates with the temporal bone is called the A) angle.
B) styloid process.
C) condyle.
D) ramus.
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Q1) The muscle that originates on the spinous processes of T3 through T6 and inserts on the transverse processes of C1 through C3 is the
A) scalene.
B) sternocleidomastoid.
C) splenius cervicis.
D) clavicular portion of the pectoralis major.
Q2) Which is the best instruction to most effectively stretch the left sternocleidomastoid muscle?
A) Flex and laterally bend to the right; rotate to the left side
B) Flex and laterally bend to the right; rotate to the right side
C) Flex and laterally bend to the left; rotate to the left side
D) Flex and laterally bend to the left; rotate to the right side
Q3) The facet joints of the lumbar spine primarily run in which plane to allow good spinal flexion and extension?
A) Frontal plane
B) Sagittal plane
C) Transverse plane
D) A and C
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Q1) Quiet inspiration requires the use of which of the following?
A) Internal intercostals
B) External intercostals
C) Gravity
D) Recoil of the diaphragm
Q2) Which muscle originates on the xiphoid process,the ribs,and the lumbar vertebra and inserts on the central tendon?
A) Internal intercostals
B) External intercostals
C) Diaphragm
D) Pectoralis major
Q3) A chronic lung pathology characterized by loss of elasticity of the alveolar walls is which of the following?
A) Pneumonia
B) Bronchitis
C) Emphysema
D) Pleurisy
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Q1) The rotation of the pelvis just before the right foot begins stance phase is A) anterior left rotation.
B) anterior right rotation.
C) posterior left rotation.
D) posterior right rotation.
Q2) The bony landmark on the ischium that is posterior and located between the greater and lesser sciatic notches is the A) tuberosity.
B) auricular surface.
C) spine.
D) posterior inferior iliac spine.
Q3) The bony landmark of the sacrum that makes up the lateral surface and articulates with the ilium is called the A) ala.
B) auricular surface.
C) superior articular process.
D) pelvic surface.
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Q1) A hip joint pathology characterized by lateral knee pain,often due to poor footwear or running on uneven surfaces,is which of the following?
A) Trochanteric bursitis
B) Hip pointer
C) Iliotibial band syndrome
D) Hamstring strain
Q2) A person who has had a hip replacement surgery will have a surgical incision on the lateral surface of the hip.The hip muscle group most likely to need strengthening after this procedure is the
A) hip flexors.
B) hip adductors.
C) hip extensors.
D) hip abductors.
Q3) Which muscle originates on the pubis and inserts on the medial proximal tibia?
A) Adductor longus
B) Rectus femoris
C) Adductor brevis
D) Gracilis
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Q1) You are asked to instruct your client in eccentric strengthening of the hamstring muscles.The BEST instruction is
A) standing,slowly flex the knee.
B) standing,slowly extend the knee from a flexed position.
C) supine,slide the heel toward the hip.
D) side-lying,slowly extend the top knee from a flexed position.
Q2) Which muscle is responsible for "unlocking" the knee?
A) Popliteus
B) Plantaris
C) Soleus
D) Posterior tibialis
Q3) Descending the stairs and leading with the right foot,the right quadriceps muscles are performing which type of muscle contraction?
A) Concentric
B) Eccentric
C) Isometric
D) Isokinetic
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Q1) Leaning into the wall with the left foot behind and the left knee bent is isolating a stretch to which muscle of the lower leg?
A) Soleus
B) Gastrocnemius
C) Plantaris
D) Popliteus
Q2) Walking on the lateral borders of your feet involves an isometric contraction of which group of muscles at the ankle?
A) Ankle evertors
B) Ankle plantar flexors
C) Ankle dorsiflexors
D) Ankle invertors
Q3) Which muscle originates on the posterior interosseus membrane and inserts on the navicular and most tarsals and metatarsals?
A) Anterior tibialis
B) Flexor digitorum longus
C) Posterior tibialis
D) Peroneus longus
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Q1) A person with a facet joint problem in the spine is generally most comfortable in which of the following positions?
A) Lying prone
B) Lying supine with legs extended
C) Side-lying with top leg extended behind the body
D) Side-lying with both legs flexed toward the chest
Q2) In observing standing posture,you note a flattened longitudinal arch of the foot.You would document this as which of the following?
A) Pes planus
B) Pes cavus
C) Claw toe
D) Hammer toe
Q3) Postural sway is a normal phenomenon that is largely controlled by gravity and which of the following muscle groups?
A) Quadriceps and hamstrings
B) Hip extensors and flexors
C) Ankle plantar flexors and dorsiflexors
D) Ankle invertors and evertors
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Q1) Your patient has a long leg cast on the left leg but is allowed to bear weight while ambulating.During the swing phase,what will you likely see that person do to move that limb forward?
A) Extend the trunk
B) Shift the trunk to the left side during swing phase
C) Circumduct the left hip
D) Flex the knee on the right side
Q2) The period of the stance phase when the body is directly over the weight-bearing limb and the vertical displacement of the pelvis is at its highest point is
A) initial contact.
B) loading response.
C) midstance.
D) terminal stance.
Q3) A difficulty or slowness in initiating gait is characteristic of which of the following conditions?
A) Rheumatoid arthritis
B) Nonfunctioning gastrocnemius muscle
C) Parkinsonism
D) Muscular dystrophy
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