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Orthopedic Assessment is a comprehensive course designed to equip students with the essential knowledge and practical skills required to evaluate musculoskeletal injuries and conditions. Emphasizing both theoretical foundations and hands-on techniques, the course covers principles of anatomy, pathology, and biomechanics as they relate to the orthopedic examination. Students learn systematic approaches to patient history-taking, observation, palpation, range of motion testing, and special orthopedic tests to accurately assess injuries in the upper and lower extremities, spine, and related structures. The course prepares students to formulate clinical impressions, determine functional limitations, and collaborate effectively in multidisciplinary healthcare teams for optimal patient outcomes.
Recommended Textbook
Clinical Kinesiology and Anatomy 5th Edition by Lynn S. Lippert PT MS
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Q1) Turning your head to look over your left shoulder involves cervical
A) left rotation.
B) right rotation.
C) left lateral bend.
D) right lateral bend.
Answer: A
Q2) A movement of one bone on another bone to cause an increase in joint angle is called
A) flexion.
B) extension.
C) rotation.
D) circumduction.
Answer: B
Q3) In anatomical position,the thumb is located where in relation to the fingers?
A) Medial
B) Lateral
C) Proximal
D) Distal
Answer: B
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Q1) Which type of bone makes up the dense,hard outer shell?
A) Compact bone
B) Cancellous bone
C) Marrow
D) Periosteum
Answer: A
Q2) Which of the following is a function of the skeletal system?
A) Gives shape and support
B) Protects vital organs
C) Manufactures blood cells
D) All of the above
Answer: D
Q3) How many bones make up the human skeleton?
A) 80
B) 126
C) 206
D) 217
Answer: C
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Q1) Joints serve which of the following functions?
A) Bear weight and provide stability
B) Allow motion
C) Contain fluid that lubricates and nourishes the cartilage
D) All of the above
Answer: D
Q2) Which of the following statements is true of a ligament?
A) They provide support to a joint.
B) They can serve as an attachment for cartilage.
C) They can serve as an attachment for fascia.
D) All of the above are true of a ligament.
Answer: D
Q3) The two bones of a joint are held together and supported by which of the following structures?
A) Tendon
B) Bursa
C) Ligament
D) Fibrocartilage
Answer: C
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Q1) Hip abduction is an example of which type of motion?
A) Arthrokinematic
B) Osteokinematic
C) Angular
D) Torque
Q2) Motions occurring within the joint that are necessary for joint motion but are not under voluntary control are called
A) osteokinematic movement.
B) accessory movement.
C) springy block.
D) manipulation.
Q3) When a patient using a walker bears weight through the wrists,what type of accessory motion force is occurring at the wrist joints?
A) Shear
B) Traction
C) Approximation
D) Rotation forces
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Q1) The type of muscle contraction that occurs with fixed speed,fixed resistance,and no joint motion is
A) ISOK.
B) ISOM.
C) ISOT.
D) tenodesis.
Q2) What is the term for a muscle contraction in which the proximal end moves toward the distal end?
A) Irritability
B) Extensibility
C) Reversal of muscle action
D) Active insufficiency
Q3) Which of the following is NOT true of an eccentric contraction?
A) Contraction produces a greater force than a concentric contraction.
B) Contraction is used as an acceleration activity.
C) Muscle attachments move farther apart.
D) Movement occurs with gravity.
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Q1) A person experiencing "ape hand" has damage to which of the following nerves?
A) Radial nerve
B) Median nerve
C) Femoral nerve
D) Common peroneal nerve
Q2) A common pathology of the PNS characterized by weakness of the long thoracic nerve is which of the following?
A) Scapular winging
B) Thoracic outlet syndrome
C) Bell's palsy
D) Carpal tunnel syndrome
Q3) The white fatty substance present in the central nervous system (CNS)and peripheral nervous system (PNS)that serves to increase the speed of impulse conduction is called
A) myelin.
B) the node of Ranvier.
C) a neuron.
D) a tract.
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Q1) A circulatory pathology characterized by inflammation of a vein is which of the following?
A) Aneurysm
B) Phlebitis
C) Embolism
D) Occlusion
Q2) The joining of vessels to provide alternate circulation in case of a blood vessel blockage is referred to as which of the following?
A) Aneurysm
B) Anastomosis
C) Arteriole
D) Angion
Q3) Movement of lymph through the system is influenced by any of the following EXCEPT A) skeletal muscle contraction.
B) diaphragm movement with abdominal breathing.
C) intestinal peristalsis.
D) stretch reflex of lymph angions.
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Q1) If a PTA wishes to manually resist the knee extensors for an athlete and wishes to make the exercise as difficult as possible for the client,the best placement of her hand would be which of the following?
A) Proximal to the knee joint
B) Just distal to the tibial tuberosity
C) Midpoint of the tibia
D) Just proximal to the talus
Q2) The law of motion best demonstrated when a person in a wheelchair gains speed when she pushes on the rims is the
A) law of inertia.
B) law of acceleration.
C) law of action-reaction.
D) law of physics.
Q3) The type of machine that consists of a grooved wheel that turns on an axle with a rope or cable is a(n)
A) movable pulley.
B) wheel and axle.
C) fixed pulley.
D) inclined plane.
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Q1) The serratus anterior and the pectoralis minor have which of the following motions in common?
A) Shoulder medial rotation
B) Downward rotation
C) Upward rotation
D) Protraction
Q2) Weakness of the pectoralis minor muscle could indicate trauma to which of the following nerves?
A) Cranial nerve XI
B) Dorsal scapular nerve
C) Long thoracic nerve
D) Medial pectoral nerve
Q3) The levator scapula and rhomboids have which of the following motions in common?
A) Elevation
B) Depression
C) Upward rotation
D) Depression.
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Q1) Damage to which of the following nerves could result in weakness of the infraspinatus muscle?
A) Radial nerve
B) Musculocutaneous nerve
C) Axillary nerve
D) Suprascapular nerve
Q2) Which muscle originates on the medial one-third of the clavicle and inserts on the lateral lip of the bicipital groove?
A) Anterior deltoid
B) Supraspinatus
C) Pectoralis major,clavicular portion
D) Coracobrachialis
Q3) All of the following can contribute to joint subluxation of the glenohumeral joint EXCEPT
A) weight of the upper extremity.
B) gravity.
C) shallow glenoid fossa.
D) strong lateral capsular ligaments.
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Q1) Measured from the position of the forearm in neutral or midposition,which of the following is true regarding normal ROM for pronation and supination?
A) There is more supination than pronation.
B) There is more pronation than supination.
C) There are equal amounts of available pronation and supination.
D) It depends on how much elbow extension the arm is placed in to measure the motion.
Q2) Your patient has point tenderness at the common flexor origin at the elbow.Given this symptom,which diagnosis is likely?
A) Medial epicondylitis
B) Lateral epicondylitis
C) Tendonitis of biceps tendon
D) Volkmann's ischemic contracture
Q3) Weakness of the biceps brachii muscle could indicate trauma to which of the following nerves?
A) Musculocutaneous nerve
B) Median nerve
C) Ulnar nerve
D) Radial nerve
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Q1) Which muscle originates on the lateral epicondyle of the humerus and inserts at the base of the third metacarpal?
A) Palmaris longus
B) Extensor carpi radialis longus
C) Extensor carpi radialis brevis
D) Extensor carpi ulnaris
Q2) Paralysis of the flexor carpi ulnaris muscle could indicate trauma to which of the following nerves?
A) Median nerve
B) Ulnar nerve
C) Radial nerve
D) Musculocutaneous nerve
Q3) Which muscle originates on the medial epicondyle of the humerus and inserts on the palmar fascia?
A) Palmaris longus
B) Extensor carpi radialis longus
C) Flexor carpi ulnaris
D) Extensor carpi ulnaris
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Q1) Carpal tunnel syndrome involves compression of which of the following nerves?
A) Radial
B) Ulnar
C) Median
D) Brachial
Q2) Which muscle does NOT make up the anatomical snuffbox?
A) Abductor pollicis brevis
B) Extensor pollicis brevis
C) Extensor pollicis longus
D) Abductor pollicis longus
Q3) Which muscle originates on the humeral lateral condyle and inserts at the base of the distal phalanges of the four fingers?
A) Flexor digitorum profundus
B) Extensor digitorum
C) Flexor digitorum superficialis
D) Extensor carpi radialis longus
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Q1) The bony landmark of the mandible that forms the posterior projection that articulates with the temporal bone is called the A) angle.
B) styloid process.
C) condyle.
D) ramus.
Q2) Clenching the teeth is an ISOM contraction of which muscle?
A) Medial pterygoid
B) Lateral pterygoid
C) Temporalis
D) Masseter
Q3) All of the following muscles are prime movers in mandibular elevation EXCEPT the A) lateral pterygoid.
B) medial pterygoid.
C) temporalis.
D) masseter.
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Q1) The muscle that originates on the iliac crest and inserts on the 12th rib and transverse processes of T12 to L5 is the A) iliopsoas.
B) quadratus lumborum.
C) rectus abdominis.
D) internal oblique.
Q2) The bony landmark of the vertebra that makes up the anterior portion of the neural arch is called the A) lamina.
B) pedicle.
C) vertebral foramen.
D) spinous process.
Q3) The spinal ligament that runs posteriorly along the vertebral bodies inside the vertebral foramen is called the A) ligamentum flavum.
B) supraspinous ligament.
C) anterior longitudinal ligament.
D) posterior longitudinal ligament.
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Q1) Which muscles originate on the rib above and insert on the rib below and serve to elevate the ribs?
A) Internal intercostals
B) External intercostals
C) Diaphragm
D) Pectoralis major
Q2) During inspiration,air moves into the lungs due to which of the following explanations?
A) The size of the thoracic cavity decreases,and the air pressure inside decreases.
B) The size of the thoracic cavity increases,and the air pressure inside decreases.
C) Gravity allows it to flow from the nose down into the lungs.
D) None of the above explains why this happens.
Q3) A person with a spinal cord injury above which of the following levels would require ventilator dependency?
A) L1
B) T8
C) C6
D) C3
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Q1) The bony landmark of the sacrum that makes up the lateral surface and articulates with the ilium is called the
A) ala.
B) auricular surface.
C) superior articular process.
D) pelvic surface.
Q2) The muscle groups activated when you have a patient do a supine posterior pelvic tilt are the
A) hip flexors and trunk flexors.
B) hip flexors and trunk extensors.
C) hip eExtensors and trunk flexors.
D) Hip extensors and trunk flexors.
Q3) A normal finding for a lumbosacral angle would be which of the following?
A) 10 degrees
B) 30 degrees
C) 45 degrees
D) 60 degrees
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Q1) Which muscle originates on the ischium and pubis and inserts on the entire linea aspera and adductor tubercle?
A) Adductor brevis
B) Adductor longus
C) Adductor magnus
D) Vastus lateralis
Q2) Your patient has been in bed for months and has developed lateral hip rotator contractures.The muscles you need to strengthen to improve hip alignment are the A) gluteus minimus.
B) gluteus medius.
C) deep rotators.
D) gluteus maximus.
Q3) Your patient has had a crush injury to the sciatic nerve.You would expect to see weakness in any of the following muscles EXCEPT the A) semimembranosus.
B) biceps femoris.
C) rectus femoris.
D) All of these could be affected by a sciatic nerve injury.
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Q1) Which of the following ligaments prevents excessive forward movement of the tibia on the femur?
A) Lateral meniscus
B) Medial collateral
C) Anterior cruciate ligament
D) Genu labrum
Q2) Which muscle has its origin at the anterior inferior iliac spine and its insertion at the tibial tuberosity?
A) Sartorius
B) Rectus femoris
C) Vastus intermedialis
D) Vastus medialis
Q3) You are asked to instruct your client in eccentric strengthening of the hamstring muscles.The BEST instruction is
A) standing,slowly flex the knee.
B) standing,slowly extend the knee from a flexed position.
C) supine,slide the heel toward the hip.
D) side-lying,slowly extend the top knee from a flexed position.
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Q1) Ankle inversion is accomplished by the action of the A) peroneus brevis.
B) anterior tibialis.
C) posterior tibialis.
D) B and C
Q2) Which muscle originates on the posterior tibia and fibula and inserts on the posterior calcaneus?
A) Gastrocnemius
B) Soleus
C) Plantaris
D) Flexor digitorum longus
Q3) The supporting ligament on the medial side of the ankle joint is called the A) spring ligament.
B) deltoid ligament.
C) lateral ligament.
D) plantar aponeurosis.
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Q1) A person with excessive lumbar lordosis could need stretching instruction for which group of muscles?
A) Hip flexors
B) Hip extensors
C) Trunk extensors
D) A and C
Q2) Which two spinal curves are considered to be the secondary (antigravity)curves?
A) Cervical and thoracic
B) Thoracic and sacral
C) Cervical and lumbar
D) Lumbar and sacral
Q3) Pressure on the vertebral discs is greatest in which of the following positions?
A) Supine
B) Side-lying
C) Seated
D) Standing upright
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Q1) During the loading response of the stance phase,which muscle group contracts eccentrically to keep the foot from slapping the ground as that extremity accepts the body's weight?
A) Knee extensors
B) Ankle dorsiflexors
C) Ankle plantar flexors
D) Toe flexors
Q2) Your patient has a tendency to cross the unsupported limb in front of the other during swing phase.This could indicate spasticity of which of the following muscle groups?
A) Hip flexors
B) Hip adductors
C) Knee extensors
D) Ankle plantar flexors
Q3) The term used to describe the distance between heel strike of one limb and heel strike of the other is
A) double support.
B) step length.
C) cadence.
D) single support.
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