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Organizational Psychology explores the scientific study of human behavior in workplace settings, focusing on how individuals, groups, and structures affect and are affected by organizations. The course examines key psychological principles related to motivation, leadership, team dynamics, employee selection, job satisfaction, and organizational culture. Students will analyze real-world cases, learn about psychological assessment tools, and discuss strategies to enhance productivity, well-being, and overall effectiveness in organizations. By understanding the interplay between people and workplaces, students gain insights to foster positive work environments and drive organizational success.
Recommended Textbook
Understanding and Managing Organizational Behavior 6th Edition by Jennifer M. George
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Q1) Information technology (IT) includes computer and communication hardware and software, but it does not include human skills.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) According to Mintzberg, a manager is acting as a ________ when she launches a new organizational advertising campaign to promote a new product.
A) figurehead
B) disseminator
C) spokesperson
D) negotiator
Answer: C
Q3) Once a baker has gathered all of the ingredients needed to bake cakes, the ________ stage begins.
A) input
B) conversion
C) output
D) labor
Answer: B
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Q1) Individuals with high self-esteem are more likely than individuals with low self-esteem to choose challenging careers and jobs.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) Over periods of time ranging from five to ten years, a person's personality is quite unstable.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) Which of the dimensions of personality do competence, order, and self-discipline fall under?
A) agreeableness
B) neuroticism
C) conscientiousness
D) extraversion
Answer: C
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Q1) Does job satisfaction affect job performance? Explain!
Answer: Intuitively, most people believe that job satisfaction is positively associated with job performance. Surprisingly, the results of research indicate that job satisfaction is not strongly related to job performance; at best, there is a very weak positive relationship. One recent review of the many studies conducted in this area concluded that levels of job satisfaction accounted for only about two percent of the differences in performance levels across employees in the studies reviewed. For all practical purposes, then, we can conclude that job satisfaction is not meaningfully associated with job performance.
Q2) A study found that identical twins with similar upbringings had very different levels of job satisfaction when jobs were similar. This finding would LEAST support the _____ of job satisfaction?
A) facet model
B) steady-state theory
C) discrepancy model
D) motivator-hygiene theory
Answer: B
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Q1) As a management trainee, you have had a chance to observe many supervisors. One of them, Bob Smith, is particularly fascinating to you. Bob is a retired U.S. Army tank commander. He tends to see every challenge to his authority as an enemy attack and every task as a military campaign. Bob also tends to let whomever he likes personally heavily influence who gets promotions and bonuses in his area, although he sees this as rewarding the worker's exceptional performance. Bob also believes his workers are all saints when he is in a good frame of mind and all bums when he is not. Use what you have learned about perceivers and perception to explain Bob's actions and tendencies.
Q2) The impression management tactic of ________ occurs when the target tries to present himself or herself in as positive a light as possible.
A) behavioral matching
B) flattering others
C) self-promotion
D) being consistent
Q3) Primacy effects are common problems in interviews.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Define and discuss the concept of the fundamental attribution error.
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Q1) Task-relevant knowledge expedites creativity.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Negative reinforcement often has unintended side effects and makes for an unpleasant work environment.
A)True
B)False
Q3) With a fixed-ratio schedule, the time between each instance of reinforcement is fixed or set.
A)True
B)False
Q4) In operant conditioning, learning occurs when the learner recognizes the link between ________.
A) a behavior and its consequences
B) a conditioned stimulus and its response
C) an antecedent and a successor
D) a negative reinforcement and its outcome
Q5) Define positive and negative reinforcement.
Q6) What is shaping and how is it used in the learning process?
Q7) Contrast continuous and partial reinforcement.
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Q1) The key challenge facing managers in terms of motivation is how to encourage employees to contribute inputs to their jobs and to the organization.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Need theory, expectancy theory, equity theory, and organizational justice theory are
A) complementary perspectives
B) mutually exclusive perspectives
C) divergent perspectives
D) noncontiguous perspectives
Q3) Explain the three key elements of work motivation.
Q4) If an employee does not think she is capable of performing at an adequate level even with maximum effort, her motivation to perform at that level will be ________.
A) high
B) low
C) zero
D) average
Q5) Identify and define the four forms of organizational justice.
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Q1) The necessary elements of a successful MBO program include all of the following EXCEPT ________.
A) specific goals
B) difficult goals
C) penalties
D) rapport and trust between the manager and the subordinate
Q2) ________ focus primarily on how to motivate employees to contribute their inputs to their jobs and organizations.
A) Job design and goal setting
B) Job enlargement and job enrichment
C) Time and motion studies
D) Social interaction theories
Q3) In the job characteristics model, the extent to which a job provides a worker with clear information about his or her effectiveness is known as ________.
A) autonomy
B) task identity
C) task significance
D) feedback
Q4) How can managers enrich jobs?
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Q1) A psychological contract that is ________ in nature focuses on extrinsic outcomes.
A) relational
B) transactional
C) controversial
D) professional
Q2) Lucy is a very hard worker but very critical of herself. At her last job she was always unsure of how she was performing and eventually quit because of the lack of feedback . She might have stayed if her manager had ________.
A) used informal performance appraisals more often
B) evaluated more employee dimensions for formal appraisals
C) lengthened the time between formal appraisals
D) evaluated fewer employee dimensions for informal appraisals
Q3) ________ measures are used primarily when an appraisal focuses on facts and results.
A) Graphic
B) Behavioral
C) Subjective
D) Objective
Q4) What are the four general categories of careers?
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Q1) Many organizations use flexible work schedules to help their employees cope with conflicts between work and personal life.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The graph of the relationship between stress and job performance can be characterized as ________.
A) a U shape
B) downward sloping
C) upward sloping
D) an inverted U
Q3) Relatively minor life events such as getting a speeding ticket or going on a vacation can be stressful.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which of the following is LEAST LIKELY an example of a work-life stressor?
A) concise directions
B) too little work
C) too much work
D) competing demands on time
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Q1) Dave notices that no one in his group writes an agenda for the meetings or takes minutes, so he begins performing these tasks. In a few months, he is in an indispensable position. In what process did Dave engage?
A) role taking
B) role making
C) job redesign
D) job rotation
Q2) Which of the following is NOT one of the socialization tactics used by the military?
A) formal
B) collective
C) sequential
D) disjunctive
Q3) Role ________ dictate the way members should interact with one another to perform their specific roles.
A) relationships
B) policies
C) negotiations
D) privileges
Q4) Define the three mechanisms groups use to control their members' behaviors.
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Q1) The negative effects of sequential task interdependence can be minimized by forming work groups consisting of individuals with divergent ability levels.
A)True
B)False
Q2) ________ leads to process gains, whereas ________ lead(s) to process losses.
A) The sucker effect; social loafing
B) High group cohesiveness; low group cohesiveness
C) Synergy; social loafing
D) Research and development; self-managed teams
Q3) The potential for process losses is higher with ________ than with ________.
A) pooled interdependence; sequential interdependence
B) sequential interdependence; pooled interdependence
C) pooled interdependence; reciprocal interdependence
D) sequential interdependence; reciprocal interdependence
Q4) Large groups have the greatest potential for conflict.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Discuss how various levels of cohesiveness (low, medium, and high) affect group performance and effectiveness when group goals are aligned with organizational goals.
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Q1) A leadership neutralizer is something that prevents a leader from having any influence and negates his or her leadership efforts.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Supportive leadership behaviors can be effective when subordinates are under a lot of stress.
A)True
B)False
Q3) ________ are given the authority to influence members to achieve organizational goals.
A) Formal leaders
B) Central leaders
C) Informal leaders
D) Influential leaders
Q4) Charismatic leaders are characterized by their ability to ________.
A) provide a vision to organizational members
B) avoid consideration behaviors towards subordinates
C) discourage intellectual activity by subordinates
D) demand admiration from followers
Q5) Discuss leader reward and leader punishing behavior.
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Q1) Task relationships generate conflict between people and groups, because organizational tasks are interrelated and affect one another.
A)True
B)False
Q2) If a group has high group efficacy and its members have a passion for group goals, they will be LEAST LIKELY to partake in ________ if there is conflict with another group.
A) compromise
B) avoidance
C) competition
D) collaboration
Q3) List the five tactics that managers can use to structure the negotiation and bargaining process to make compromise and collaboration more likely.
Q4) Referent power is possessed by people who gain power and influence in a group because they are liked, admired, and respected.
A)True
B)False
Q5) What are the sources of functional and divisional power?
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Q1) Many companies use ________ to facilitate real-time organizational communication online.
A) intranets
B) Web sites
C) extranets
D) e-mail messages
Q2) A manager has been told by upper management to communicate a message to several of his employees. The manager needs to convey the message quickly and does not want to have a lengthy discussion about the message. His BEST option would be
A) holding a meeting
B) calling each employees
C) writing an informal letter
D) sending an email
Q3) Choosing the right communication medium for any given message involves trade-offs for both the sender and the receiver.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What is the definition of communication?
Q5) What is linguistic style?
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Q1) Define escalation of commitment. Why does it occur?
Q2) Tom Seigmund, the employment manager at NTT, Inc., realizes that for a number of reasons he cannot always make the ideal decision when it comes to selecting a new employee. Instead, Tom ________ by searching for and choosing a candidate who has satisfactory job qualifications and who will be acceptable for the job.
A) satisfices
B) optimizes
C) rationalizes
D) compromises
Q3) An eBay seller noticed an interesting thing while listing her products on eBay. If she listed her items with a high starting bid, she would not get any bids. However, if she started her items out at a lower starting bid, she would often sell them for more money than the high starting bid she had assigned other items. This MOST LIKELY reason for this is ________ .
A) an escalation of commitment by the buyer
B) buyer's remorse
C) use of the availability heuristic
D) use of the representative heuristic
Q4) What are the advantages and disadvantages of the Delphi technique?
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Q1) In a(n)________, employees working in empowered teams assume the responsibility to make decisions as organizational needs dictate.
A) hybrid structure
B) organic structure
C) mechanistic structure
D) evolutionary structure
Q2) An organization CANNOT standardize activities at the ________ stage.
A) input
B) output
C) conversion
D) personnel
Q3) What is a functional structure? Provide an example.
Q4) Increasingly, more global companies are recognizing that higher input standards result in higher-quality products.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Briefly discuss the three contingencies affecting organizational design.
Q6) What is a virtual organization?
Q7) Explain how Nike uses the network structure.
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Q1) What is LEAST LIKELY to occur in a country where collectivism pervades?
A) merit pay based on an employee's performance
B) merit pay based on a group's performance
C) rites of passage and integration
D) norms of helping out co-workers
Q2) Which of the following is NOT a component of organizational culture?
A) values
B) beliefs
C) norms
D) technology
Q3) Stories about organizational heroes must be true because they provide important clues about cultural values and norms.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Fair and equitable human resource procedures signal workers that they are working for an ethical organization and should behave in an ethical manner.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Identify the three main reasons why unethical behavior exists in businesses.
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Q1) Which of the following is the LEAST LIKELY reason an organization would resort to restructuring?
A) to adapt to an unexpected change in the environment
B) to prevent the organization from growing too bureaucratic
C) to stay on top in the face of competition
D) to adapt incrementally to the marketplace
Q2) Evaluating the change process is MOST successful when managers ________.
A) conduct an internal audit
B) develop measures or criteria
C) survey corporate stakeholders
D) review press clippings and media releases
Q3) ________ is an OD technique designed to improve the effectiveness of interdependent groups.
A) Team building
B) Intergroup training
C) Organizational mirroring
D) Sensitivity training
Q4) Discuss the forms of evolutionary organizational change and the forms of revolutionary organizational change.
Q5) What is organization change and what are the forces for change?
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